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Cardiovascular and Developmental Biology Quiz

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which heart chamber has the thickest myocardium to generate systemic circulation pressure?

a)

Right Atrium

b)

Right Ventricle

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Left Ventricle

2.

What structure is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart?

a)

Atrioventricular (AV) Node

b)

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

c)

Purkinje Fibers

d)

Bundle of His

3.

Which electrolyte is the most abundant in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?

a)

Sodium (Na⁺)

b)

Calcium (Ca²⁺)

c)

Potassium (K⁺)

d)

Chloride (Cl⁻)

4.

Normal arterial blood pH is maintained within which range?

a)

6.80-7.00

b)

7.00-7.20

c)

7.35-7.45

d)

7.50-7.70

5.

Why are semilunar valves important in cardiac function?

a)

They delay atrial contraction

b)

They regulate preload

c)

They prevent backflow into atria

d)

They prevent backflow into ventricles from great vessels

6.

Which statement best explains the role of oncotic pressure?

a)

Physical force pushing water out of capillaries

b)

Osmotic pull generated by small electrolytes

c)

Osmotic pull exerted by plasma proteins drawing water into capillaries

d)

Pressure created by cardiac output

7.

How does ADH regulate water balance?

a)

Inhibits sodium reabsorption in renal tubules

b)

Inserts aquaporins in collecting ducts to increase water reabsorption

c)

Stimulates release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex

d)

Triggers thirst sensation in the hypothalamus

8.

In respiratory acidosis, what is the immediate compensatory response?

a)

Hyperventilation to exhale CO₂

b)

Renal reabsorption of bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)

c)

Buffering with phosphate system

d)

Increased aldosterone secretion

9.

A patient with tricuspid valve regurgitation would likely experience:

a)

Backflow of blood into left atrium

b)

Backflow of blood into right atrium

c)

Backflow of blood into pulmonary veins

d)

Backflow of blood into left ventricle

10.

If blood pressure drops significantly, which mechanism is triggered first to restore homeostasis?

a)

ANP release

b)

Increased urine output

c)

RAAS activation by juxtaglomerular cells

d)

Suppression of sympathetic activity

11.

A patient presents with hyponatremia. Which clinical manifestation is most expected?

a)

Arrhythmias

b)

Confusion and seizures

c)

Hypertension

d)

Tetany

12.

During hyperventilation from anxiety, the primary acid-base disturbance is:

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

13.

Why does the left ventricle generate higher pressure than the right ventricle?

a)

It pumps into a larger chamber

b)

It has weaker contraction but larger lumen

c)

It pumps against low pulmonary resistance

d)

It pumps into systemic circulation, requiring higher pressure

14.

In chronic kidney disease, why does metabolic acidosis occur?

a)

Increased reabsorption of HCO₃⁻

b)

Overproduction of lactic acid

c)

Reduced H⁺ excretion and reduced HCO₃⁻ reabsorption

d)

Increased pulmonary ventilation

15.

A patient has edema due to liver failure. Which mechanism best explains this?

a)

Increased hydrostatic pressure

b)

Decreased plasma oncotic pressure from low albumin

c)

Increased lymphatic return

d)

Overproduction of aldosterone

16.

Which scenario represents cardiorenal interdependence?

a)

CKD improving cardiac preload

b)

Heart failure reducing renal perfusion, leading to RAAS activation and fluid retention

c)

ANP secretion reducing fluid overload

d)

Respiratory alkalosis corrected by renal excretion of bicarbonate

17.

A 70-year-old with COPD presents with elevated PaCO₂ and pH 7.30. Which diagnosis is most accurate?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

18.

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes presents with Kussmaul respirations, pH 7.28, low HCO₃⁻. What is the most likely primary disorder?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

19.

A patient is admitted with blood pressure of 190/120 mmHg and pulmonary edema. Which mechanism most likely contributes?

a)

Increased parasympathetic activity

b)

Suppression of RAAS

c)

Excessive activation of RAAS causing fluid retention

d)

Increased renal blood flow

20.

A 55-year-old male with vomiting for 3 days has pH 7.50, PaCO₂ elevated, and HCO₃⁻ high. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

a)

Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation

b)

Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation

c)

Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation

d)

Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

21.

Fertilization usually occurs in which part of the female reproductive tract?

a)

Isthmus of fallopian tube

b)

Infundibulum

c)

Ampulla

d)

Uterine cavity

22.

The zygote formed after fertilization is:

a)

Haploid, 46 chromosomes

b)

Diploid, 46 chromosomes

c)

Haploid, 23 chromosomes

d)

Polyploid, 92 chromosomes

23.

The process of rapid mitotic divisions without significant growth of the cells is called:

a)

Implantation

b)

Cleavage

c)

Gastrulation

d)

Neurulation

24.

The solid ball of cells formed after cleavage is known as:

a)

Blastocyst

b)

Morula

c)

Embryoblast

d)

Zygote

25.

The structure that gives rise to the placenta is primarily derived from:

a)

Embryoblast

b)

Trophoblast

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Endoderm

26.

The inner cell mass of the blastocyst develops into:

a)

The embryo

b)

Placenta

c)

Chorion

d)

Amnion only

27.

Which trophoblast layer is invasive and helps embed the blastocyst into the endometrium?

a)

Cytotrophoblast

b)

Syncytiotrophoblast

c)

Hypoblast

d)

Epiblast

28.

Implantation usually occurs during which days post-fertilization?

a)

1-3

b)

4-5

c)

6-10

d)

11-14

29.

Gastrulation results in the formation of:

a)

Neural crest cells

b)

Blastocyst

c)

Three germ layers

d)

Placenta

30.

Which germ layer forms the nervous system?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Trophoblast

31.

Which germ layer gives rise to the cardiovascular system?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Epiblast only

32.

The gut lining and glandular organs are derived from:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Trophoblast

33.

The neural tube forms the:

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Peripheral nervous system

c)

Skeletal system

d)

Placenta

34.

Neural crest cells develop into:

a)

CNS

b)

PNS

c)

Gut lining

d)

Muscles

35.

By the end of week 8, the embryo transitions to:

a)

Fetal stage

b)

Blastocyst stage

c)

Morula stage

d)

Gastrula stage

36.

The first functional organ system in the embryo is:

a)

Nervous

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Digestive

d)

Respiratory

37.

The embryonic heart begins to beat around:

a)

Day 14

b)

Day 18

c)

Day 22-23

d)

Day 30

38.

Somites are responsible for forming:

a)

Lungs

b)

Heart

c)

Vertebrae and muscles

d)

Kidneys

39.

At week 5, the most rapid development occurs in the:

a)

Brain vesicles

b)

Limbs

c)

Intestines

d)

Kidneys

40.

Physiological umbilical herniation begins in which week?

a)

Week 4

b)

Week 5

c)

Week 6

d)

Week 8

41.

Ossification of long bones begins in:

a)

Week 5

b)

Week 7

c)

Week 8

d)

Week 9

42.

By the end of week 8, all major organs are:

a)

Fully functional

b)

Present in rudimentary form

c)

Not yet developed

d)

Functionally mature

43.

The fetal part of the placenta develops from the:

a)

Trophoblast

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Chorion only

44.

Which hormone is produced by the placenta and maintains the corpus luteum?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

hCG

d)

hPL

45.

Chorionic villi primarily function in:

a)

Hormone synthesis

b)

Maternal-fetal exchange

c)

Genetic regulation

d)

Nervous signaling

46.

Folic acid deficiency during neural tube formation may result in:

a)

Spina bifida

b)

Down syndrome

c)

Turner syndrome

d)

Preeclampsia

47.

Thalidomide exposure during early pregnancy is linked to:

a)

Neural tube defects

b)

Limb malformations

c)

Cardiac defects

d)

Cleft lip

48.

Which infection is classically linked to congenital hearing loss, cataracts, and heart defects?

a)

Rubella

b)

Cytomegalovirus

c)

HIV

d)

Toxoplasmosis

49.

Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is an example of a:

a)

Single-gene mutation

b)

Chromosomal abnormality

c)

Teratogen-induced defect

d)

Epigenetic change

50.

A woman with inadequate folic acid supplementation asks why it's important. The best response is:

a)

It helps your baby's bones.

b)

It prevents neural tube defects in the developing embryo.

c)

It increases your chance of conception.

d)

It makes your placenta stronger.

51.

In prenatal ultrasound at 7 weeks, the absence of cardiac activity suggests:

a)

Normal finding

b)

Possible pregnancy loss

c)

Limb malformation

d)

Fetal alcohol syndrome

52.

A newborn presents with cleft lip. This anomaly likely originated during:

a)

Fertilization

b)

Cleavage

c)

Gastrulation

d)

Organogenesis (weeks 4-8)

53.

Which strategy best reduces congenital anomalies globally?

a)

Increasing C-sections

b)

Prenatal screening, nutrition, and teratogen avoidance

c)

More fetal surgeries

d)

Genetic modification of embryos

54.

Which of the following is the correct order of biological organization from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell → Tissue → Organ → Organ system → Organism

b)

Tissue → Cell → Organ → Organ system → Organism

c)

Organ → Organ system → Tissue → Cell → Organism

d)

Tissue → Organ → Organism → Cell → Organ system

55.

The basic structural and functional unit of life is the:

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ

c)

Cell

d)

Molecule

56.

A group of similar cells performing the same function is called a:

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ

c)

Organ system

d)

Organism

57.

Which cellular organelle is known as the "powerhouse" of the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

58.

In multicellular organisms, what ensures division of labor?

a)

Random cell function

b)

Specialization of cells into tissues and organs

c)

Independent function of each cell

d)

Organelles working alone

59.

Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines internal cavities?

a)

Muscle

b)

Connective

c)

Epithelial

d)

Nervous

60.

The liver is an example of which level of organization?

a)

Tissue

b)

Cell

c)

Organ

d)

Organ system

61.

Which tissue type is responsible for transmitting impulses?

a)

Nervous

b)

Connective

c)

Epithelial

d)

Muscle

62.

Connective tissue functions to:

a)

Generate movement

b)

Bind and support other tissues

c)

Transmit electrical signals

d)

Absorb nutrients

63.

Blood is classified as a connective tissue because:

a)

It stores energy

b)

It contracts

c)

It is composed of plasma and cells

d)

It transmits signals

64.

Muscle tissue responsible for voluntary movement is:

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

Epithelial

65.

Which organelle is the site of protein synthesis?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Ribosome

c)

Lysosome

d)

Nucleus

66.

When several organs work together for a common function, they form:

a)

Tissue

b)

Cell

c)

Organ system

d)

Organism

67.

Which type of tissue is responsible for contraction and movement?

a)

Nervous

b)

Muscle

c)

Connective

d)

Epithelial

68.

Which of the following best illustrates the concept of emergent properties?

a)

Cells functioning independently

b)

The heart pumps blood as a result of coordinated tissue activity

c)

Mitochondria producing ATP alone

d)

Nerve cells transmitting signals

69.

Which system regulates body activities using hormones?

a)

Nervous system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Digestive system

70.

Which system provides structural support and protects internal organs?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Nervous

c)

Circulatory

d)

Integumentary

71.

Which body system is primarily responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Digestive

c)

Respiratory

d)

Nervous

72.

The main function of the integumentary system is:

a)

Circulation

b)

Protection and temperature regulation

c)

Hormone production

d)

Respiration

73.

Which organ is part of both the endocrine and digestive systems?

a)

Kidney

b)

Pancreas

c)

Liver

d)

Stomach

74.

The smallest blood vessels where exchange of gases and nutrients occur are:

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

75.

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

a)

Nephron

b)

Alveolus

c)

Glomerulus

d)

Neuron

76.

The diaphragm is essential for:

a)

Digestion

b)

Breathing

c)

Hormone secretion

d)

Blood circulation

77.

Which part of the nervous system controls voluntary actions?

a)

Autonomic

b)

Somatic

c)

Parasympathetic

d)

Sympathetic

78.

Which system is the body's first line of defense against pathogens?

a)

Digestive

b)

Integumentary

c)

Nervous

d)

Skeletal

79.

Where does fertilization usually occur in humans?

a)

Ovary

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian tube

d)

Cervix

80.

The main function of red blood cells is:

a)

Fighting infection

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Transporting oxygen

d)

Hormone delivery

81.

The large intestine primarily functions in:

a)

Protein digestion

b)

Enzyme secretion

c)

Water reabsorption

d)

Absorption of amino acids

82.

Which system removes metabolic wastes from the body?

a)

Nervous

b)

Excretory

c)

Digestive

d)

Circulatory

83.

The endocrine gland often called the "master gland" is the:

a)

Thyroid

b)

Adrenal

c)

Pituitary

d)

Pancreas

84.

Which muscle type is involuntary and found in the digestive tract?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Skeletal

c)

Smooth

d)

Striated

85.

Which part of the brain regulates balance and coordination?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Hypothalamus

86.

Which structure prevents food from entering the respiratory tract?

a)

Trachea

b)

Epiglottis

c)

Larynx

d)

Pharynx

87.

Which system transports hormones, nutrients, and oxygen throughout the body?

a)

Nervous

b)

Circulatory

c)

Excretory

d)

Digestive

88.

Which organ produces bile to aid in digestion?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Stomach

c)

Liver

d)

Gallbladder

89.

The Central Dogma of molecular biology is:

a)

DNA → Protein → RNA

b)

DNA → RNA → Protein

c)

RNA → DNA → Protein

d)

Protein → DNA → RNA

90.

Which molecule carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosome?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA polymerase

91.

DNA replication occurs during which cellular process?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Cell division

d)

Protein folding

92.

Which enzyme is responsible for building RNA during transcription?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA helicase

d)

Reverse transcriptase

93.

Which base is found in RNA but not in DNA?

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

94.

During transcription, the DNA triplet TAC codes for which start codon in mRNA?

a)

UAC

b)

AUG

c)

ATG

d)

UGA

95.

Which organelle is the site of translation?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Mitochondria

96.

Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

97.

The codon UAA signals:

a)

Initiation of transcription

b)

Initiation of translation

c)

Termination of translation

d)

Protein folding

98.

Which term best describes the genetic code being shared by nearly all organisms?

a)

Redundant

b)

Universal

c)

Ambiguous

d)

Non-overlapping

99.

In post-transcriptional modification, introns are:

a)

Coding regions kept in mRNA

b)

Non-coding regions removed from pre-mRNA

c)

Amino acid sequences

d)

Start codons

100.

Which process links amino acids into a polypeptide chain?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Duplication

101.

Which mutation causes sickle cell anemia?

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Substitution mutation in hemoglobin gene

c)

Deletion mutation

d)

Chromosomal inversion

102.

Misfolded proteins are often associated with:

a)

Malaria

b)

Alzheimer's disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

Influenza

103.

Which regulatory mechanism involves chemical modifications to DNA or histones?

a)

Epigenetic modification

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Translation

104.

The enzyme that links amino acids with peptide bonds is found in the:

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm only

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

105.

Which RNA component is a structural part of ribosomes?

a)
messenger RNA (mRNA)
b)
transfer RNA (tRNA)
c)
small nuclear RNA (snRNA)
d)
ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
106.

Which of the following is an application of genetic control in medicine?

a)
Surgery
b)

Chemotherapy

c)
Vaccination
d)
Gene therapy
107.

The universality of the genetic code provides evidence for:

a)
Common ancestry of life forms.
b)
The impact of environmental factors on evolution.
c)
The role of DNA in protein synthesis.
d)
The diversity of species on Earth.
108.

Which of the following is an example of feedback inhibition?

a)

DNA polymerase stops replication

b)

A ribosome breaks down mRNA

c)

A codon is replaced by a stop signal

d)

A protein product suppresses its own gene expression

109.

Which clinical condition results from defective chloride channel protein?

a)
Pneumonia
b)

Hemophilia

c)
Chronic bronchitis
d)
Cystic fibrosis
110.

Which type of mutation involves a change in one nucleotide without altering the amino acid sequence?

a)
Nonsense mutation
b)
Frameshift mutation
c)
Missense mutation
d)
Silent mutation
111.

The anticodon region is found in:

a)
tRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
DNA
d)
rRNA
112.

Which process ensures different cell types (e.g., neurons, muscle cells) express specific proteins despite identical DNA?

a)
Protein synthesis
b)
Cell division
c)
Gene regulation
d)
DNA replication
113.

Which modern technology allows precise genome editing?

a)
Gene Therapy
b)
RNA Interference
c)
Synthetic Biology
d)
CRISPR-Cas9