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Endocrine Vocabulary slide (1-30)

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to chemical messengers released by neurons to communicate across synapses?

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Target cells

d)

Molecules

2.

Which structure is specifically the cell that a hormone is intended to affect?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Target cell

c)

Pancreatic islet

d)

Thymus

3.

Which glands are located above the kidneys and are associated with the stress response?

a)

Thyroid glands

b)

Adrenal glands

c)

Pineal glands

d)

Parathyroid glands

4.

Which endocrine organ is classically known as the 'master gland' because it influences many other glands?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Pituitary

c)

Thyroid

d)

Ovaries

5.

Which feedback mechanism reduces the initial stimulus to maintain homeostasis?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Secretion

d)

Exocrine

6.

Which term best describes hormones that pass through cell membranes to bind intracellular receptors?

a)

Water-soluble

b)

Lipid-soluble

c)

Pancreatic islet

d)

Exocrine

7.

Which endocrine structure contains clusters of cells that regulate blood glucose levels?

a)

Thyroid follicles

b)

Pancreatic islets

c)

Pineal gland

d)

Adrenal cortex

8.

Which gland primarily regulates metabolic rate through its hormones?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Parathyroid

c)

Testes

d)

Thymus

9.

Which choice correctly pairs the reproductive organs with their classification as endocrine glands?

a)

Ovaries and testes are exocrine only

b)

Ovaries and testes function as endocrine glands

c)

Ovaries are endocrine; testes are not

d)

Neither ovaries nor testes are endocrine

10.

Which process describes the release of substances from a cell, such as hormones, into the bloodstream?

a)

Secretion

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Stress response

d)

Disorder

11.

Which statement best describes how the nervous and endocrine systems coordinate body functions?

a)

They work independently, each controlling different organs exclusively.

b)

They act together to coordinate all systems of the body.

c)

Only the endocrine system coordinates body systems while the nervous system transmits pain.

d)

The nervous system coordinates movement while the endocrine system coordinates only digestion.

12.

What type of signaling molecule is released by the nervous system?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Hormones

d)

Antibodies

13.

Which mechanism correctly describes how most hormones exert their effects?

a)

They are released at synapses and act only locally without entering blood.

b)

They circulate through the blood and bind to receptors on target cells.

c)

They directly alter DNA without binding to receptors.

d)

They function as structural proteins in target cells.

14.

Both hormones and neurotransmitters share which feature regarding their action on cells?

a)

They are stored in bone tissue before release.

b)

They bind to receptors on target cells.

c)

They only act on the cells that secrete them.

d)

They do not require receptors to produce effects.

15.

According to the diagram overview of the endocrine system, which gland is located deep in the brain and often associated with regulating circadian rhythms?

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Pineal gland

d)

Adrenal gland

e)

Pancreas

16.

Which option best identifies the endocrine gland situated at the base of the brain, just below the hypothalamus, as indicated in the diagram?

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Pituitary gland

c)

Adrenal glands

d)

Gonads

e)

Pancreas

17.

Using the diagram, select the pair that correctly matches a gland to its general location in the body.

a)

Thyroid — within the cranial cavity

b)

Adrenal glands — atop the kidneys in the upper abdomen

c)

Pancreas — in the thoracic cavity behind the sternum

d)

Gonads — in the cervical region of the neck

e)

Pineal gland — in the pelvic cavity

18.

A student claims the pancreas is part of the endocrine system and is located in the mid-abdomen. Based on the gland overview diagram, which evaluation is most accurate?

a)

Incorrect: the pancreas is not an endocrine organ and is in the thorax

b)

Correct: the pancreas has endocrine function and is located in the mid-abdomen

c)

Partially correct: the pancreas is endocrine but located in the neck

d)

Incorrect: the pancreas is only exocrine and is near the kidneys

e)

Correct: the pancreas is endocrine but located in the pelvic cavity

19.

Which statement best describes the molecules used by the nervous system for communication?

a)

Hormones circulated by the blood to distant tissues

b)

Neurotransmitters released locally in response to nerve impulses

c)

Enzymes secreted into the digestive tract

d)

Steroids stored in adipose tissue

20.

Where do neurotransmitters primarily bind to exert their effects?

a)

Receptors in postsynaptic membranes at synapses

b)

Receptors on erythrocytes in the bloodstream

c)

Nuclear pores of all cells

d)

Mitochondrial membranes of muscle cells

21.

Which description matches the endocrine system’s typical site of action?

a)

Close to the site of release at a synapse

b)

Far from the site of release, binding to receptors on or in target cells

c)

Only within skeletal muscle fibers

d)

Exclusively within gland cells

22.

Which set correctly identifies the common targets of the nervous system?

a)

Cells throughout the body without specificity

b)

Muscle (smooth, cardiac, skeletal) cells, gland cells, and other neurons

c)

Only endocrine glands

d)

Only epithelial cells

23.

What is the typical time to onset of action for the nervous system compared to the endocrine system?

a)

Nervous: seconds to days; Endocrine: milliseconds

b)

Nervous: milliseconds; Endocrine: seconds to hours or days

c)

Both: milliseconds

d)

Both: seconds to hours

24.

Which statement best contrasts the duration of action between the two systems?

a)

Nervous actions are generally longer (seconds to days); endocrine actions are brief (milliseconds)

b)

Both systems have identical durations

c)

Nervous actions are generally briefer (milliseconds); endocrine actions are longer (seconds to days)

d)

Endocrine actions are instantaneous

25.

A signaling molecule travels through the blood to reach receptors inside a distant target cell. Which system is most likely involved?

a)

Nervous system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Immune system

26.

A fast, localized response occurs at a synapse and ends within milliseconds. Which mechanism most accurately explains this event?

a)

Hormone binding in distant tissues

b)

Neurotransmitter release in response to a nerve impulse, binding to postsynaptic receptors

c)

Genetic transcription changes in target cells

d)

Paracrine signaling via blood-borne cytokines

27.

Which endocrine gland is located posterior to the thyroid gland in the neck?

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Parathyroid glands

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Thymus

28.

In the anatomical diagram, which structure sits just superior to the pituitary gland within the brain?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pineal gland

d)

Adrenal gland

29.

Which pair of endocrine glands is shown capping the kidneys?

a)

Adrenal glands

b)

Parathyroid glands

c)

Ovaries

d)

Pancreas

30.

According to the diagram, which endocrine organ is located in the upper abdomen and lies near the small intestine?

a)

Thymus

b)

Pancreas

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Pineal gland

31.

Which option correctly matches the endocrine gland to its general location in the diagram?

a)

Ovary—male scrotum

b)

Thymus—anterior mediastinum above the heart

c)

Pituitary gland—on top of the kidneys

d)

Pineal gland—anterior neck near the trachea

32.

Which statement best explains why a hormone affects only certain cells in the body?

a)

All cells respond equally to any hormone in the bloodstream.

b)

Only target cells with specific protein receptors for the hormone respond.

c)

Hormones must be physically injected into cells to have an effect.

d)

Hormones only act on cells located near the endocrine gland.

33.

What happens to receptor numbers when a cell is exposed to high concentrations of a hormone for a prolonged time?

a)

Receptors are up-regulated, increasing sensitivity.

b)

Receptors stop being synthesized entirely.

c)

Receptors are down-regulated, decreasing sensitivity.

d)

Receptors convert into enzymes.

34.

Which process describes increasing the number of receptors in response to low hormone concentrations?

a)

Down-regulation

b)

Up-regulation

c)

Desensitization

d)

Internalization

35.

According to the diagram of circulating hormones, what enables distant target cells to respond to a hormone transported in the blood?

a)

Presence of hormone receptors on the target cells

b)

Direct physical contact with the endocrine cell

c)

Higher temperature in capillaries

d)

Larger cell size compared to non-target cells

36.

Which statement is consistent with the idea that receptors are continually being synthesized and broken down?

a)

Receptor number on a cell is fixed and cannot change.

b)

Cells can adjust receptor density in response to hormone levels.

c)

Hormone binding permanently activates a receptor.

d)

Receptors only exist on endocrine cells.

37.

A patient has chronically low circulating levels of a particular hormone. Which cellular change would most likely improve responsiveness to that hormone?

a)

Decreasing receptor synthesis

b)

Increasing receptor degradation

c)

Up-regulating receptor expression on target cells

d)

Eliminating receptors to conserve energy

38.

In the context of circulating hormones, which pathway correctly traces the movement and action of a hormone as depicted?

a)

Target cell releases hormone into interstitial fluid, which diffuses into neighboring cells without receptors.

b)

Endocrine cell releases hormone into blood capillary; hormone travels and binds receptors on distant target cells.

c)

Endocrine cell stores hormone in target cells until needed.

d)

Hormone forms inside target cells and exits to activate the endocrine cell.

39.

Which statement best defines local hormones (paracrines)?

a)

Hormones that circulate widely in the bloodstream

b)

Hormones that do not circulate and act on nearby target cells

c)

Hormones that only act on distant organs

d)

Hormones that are always protein-based

40.

Autocrines are hormones that:

a)

Act on the same cell that secretes them

b)

Act only on distant organs via blood

c)

Require transport proteins to move through plasma

d)

Are always water-soluble

41.

A signaling molecule released by a cell and binding to receptors on a neighboring cell is best classified as:

a)

Autocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Endocrine circulating hormone

d)

Neurotransmitter

42.

Which group correctly lists examples of lipid-soluble hormones?

a)

Amine hormones, peptide hormones, eicosanoid hormones

b)

Steroid hormones, thyroid hormones, nitric oxide

c)

Peptide hormones only

d)

Catecholamines and insulin

43.

Water-soluble hormones typically circulate in the plasma:

a)

Bound to transport proteins

b)

Embedded in cell membranes

c)

Freely without being bound to proteins

d)

Only when converted to steroids

44.

Lipid-soluble hormones in the blood are most often:

a)

Freely dissolved in plasma

b)

Bound to transport proteins

c)

Stored inside red blood cells

d)

Converted to water-soluble forms before release

45.

Which scenario best demonstrates the distinction between paracrine and autocrine signaling?

a)

A hormone released into the bloodstream affecting the kidneys

b)

A cell releasing a factor that binds receptors on its own surface

c)

A cell releasing a factor that binds receptors on a nearby target cell

d)

Neural transmission across a synapse

46.

Which statement best explains why the same hormone can produce different responses in different target cells?

a)

Target cells vary in receptor location and downstream machinery

b)

Hormones randomly change their chemical structure in the bloodstream

c)

All hormones act only through second messengers

d)

Target cells do not contain receptors

47.

Which of the following is listed as a possible cellular response to a hormone?

a)

Decreasing receptor count only

b)

Synthesis of new molecules

c)

Elimination of all transport proteins

d)

Permanent cell death

48.

Changing permeability of the cell membrane in response to a hormone would most directly affect which process?

a)

Gene expression in the nucleus

b)

Movement of ions or molecules across the membrane

c)

mRNA splicing

d)

Ribosome assembly

49.

Stimulating transport of a substance into or out of a cell is an example of which broader concept from the section?

a)

Hormone response variability

b)

Water-soluble hormone binding sites

c)

Muscle contraction only

d)

Negative feedback

50.

According to the section, hormones can alter the rate of metabolic actions. Which outcome best illustrates this?

a)

Activation of protein kinases increases glycogen breakdown

b)

Insertion of new DNA into the genome

c)

Loss of all ribosomes

d)

Blocking all cell division permanently

51.

Which response listed is specifically related to tissues such as smooth or cardiac muscle?

a)

Synthesis of new molecules

b)

Changing membrane permeability

c)

Causing contraction

d)

Stimulating apoptosis

52.

Lipid-soluble hormones primarily bind to receptors located where?

a)

On the exterior surface of the target cell

b)

Within target cells

c)

On blood capillary walls

d)

Only on ribosomes

53.

In the lipid-soluble hormone mechanism, what is the immediate effect of the activated receptor–hormone complex?

a)

Activates adenylate cyclase

b)

Alters gene expression

c)

Generates cAMP

d)

Phosphorylates cellular proteins

54.

Which sequence best matches the diagram for lipid-soluble hormone action?

a)

Hormone binds membrane receptor → cAMP forms → kinases activated

b)

Hormone diffuses into cell → receptor–hormone complex alters gene expression → mRNA formed → ribosomes synthesize specific proteins → new proteins alter cell activity

c)

Hormone remains outside cell → G protein activates adenylate cyclase → proteins phosphorylated

d)

Hormone binds transporters on capillary → ADP produced → muscle contracts

55.

Water-soluble hormones bind to receptors located where on the target cell?

a)

Within the nucleus

b)

Embedded in the cytosol

c)

On the exterior surface of the target cell

d)

Inside mitochondria

56.

In the water-soluble hormone mechanism, what is the role of cAMP?

a)

Acts as the first messenger outside the cell

b)

Serves as a second messenger to activate protein kinases

c)

Degrades proteins directly

d)

Binds DNA to initiate transcription

57.

Which step correctly links a component to its function in the water-soluble hormone pathway?

a)

Phosphodiesterase converts ATP to cAMP

b)

Adenylyl cyclase generates cAMP from ATP

c)

Protein kinases are inactivated by cAMP

d)

Receptor–hormone complex diffuses into the nucleus

58.

Which factor directly affects how strongly a target cell responds to a hormone?

a)

Dietary intake of minerals

b)

The hormone’s concentration in the blood

c)

The pH of the extracellular fluid

d)

The temperature of the body

59.

A hormone produces a stronger effect when another hormone assists it. What is this interaction called?

a)

Permissive effect

b)

Synergistic effect

c)

Feedback inhibition

d)

Antagonistic effect

60.

Which scenario best illustrates an antagonistic effect between hormones?

a)

Two hormones together produce a greater response than either alone

b)

One hormone enables a second hormone to bind more receptors

c)

One hormone decreases or opposes the action of another hormone

d)

A hormone’s effect increases because its blood concentration is higher

61.

A tissue shows a reduced response to a circulating hormone despite normal blood levels. Which explanation aligns with the mechanisms of hormone action described?

a)

The number of hormone receptors on the target cell is low

b)

The hormone is hydrophobic

c)

Synergistic effects are always present

d)

Body temperature is elevated

62.

Which statement best describes how hormones are typically released into the bloodstream?

a)

Continuously at a constant rate

b)

In short bursts when needed

c)

Only during sleep cycles

d)

Only after meals

63.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a regulator of hormone secretion?

a)

Signals from the nervous system

b)

Chemical changes in the blood

c)

Other hormones

d)

Genetic mutations in DNA

64.

Most hormone regulation in the body is achieved primarily through which mechanism?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Feedforward control

d)

Random secretion

65.

Which feedback mechanism is described as used by only a few hormones?

a)

Negative feedback

b)

Positive feedback

c)

Open-loop control

d)

Autocrine signaling

66.

A sudden drop in blood glucocorticoid levels triggers which immediate effect according to the regulation diagram?

a)

Decreased CRH and increased cortisol

b)

Increased CRH and decreased cortisol

c)

Decreased ACTH release

d)

Suppression of adrenal cortex activity

67.

In the negative feedback loop regulating glucocorticoids, which structure acts as the control center?

a)

Hypothalamic neurosecretory cells

b)

Corticotrophs in anterior pituitary

c)

Cells of zona fasciculata in adrenal cortex

d)

Liver hepatocytes

68.

During the glucocorticoid regulation pathway, which cells are identified as the effectors?

a)

Hypothalamic neurosecretory cells

b)

Corticotrophs in the anterior pituitary

c)

Cells of the zona fasciculata in the adrenal cortex

d)

Pancreatic beta cells

69.

Which outcome completes the negative feedback cycle in glucocorticoid regulation?

a)

Further decrease in glucocorticoid levels

b)

Return to homeostasis when glucocorticoid levels in blood are brought back to normal

c)

Permanent elevation of ACTH secretion

d)

Switch to positive feedback to amplify the response

70.

Which structure directly connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?

a)

Infundibulum

b)

Pons

c)

Corpus callosum

d)

Pineal stalk

e)

Thalamic peduncle

71.

Which statement best describes the functional relationship between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland?

a)

They work together to control other endocrine glands

b)

They independently regulate only the nervous system

c)

The pituitary controls hypothalamic hormone release

d)

They function only during childhood

e)

They store but do not release hormones

72.

Which lobe of the pituitary makes up about 75% of its weight and secretes seven hormones?

a)

Anterior lobe (adenohypophysis)

b)

Posterior lobe (neurohypophysis)

c)

Intermediate lobe

d)

Pineal lobe

e)

Hypothalamic lobe

73.

What is the tissue origin of the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis)?

a)

Neural tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Connective tissue

e)

Cartilaginous tissue

74.

Which statement about posterior pituitary hormones is correct?

a)

They are released by the posterior pituitary but made by the hypothalamus

b)

They are synthesized and released by the posterior pituitary

c)

They are synthesized by the anterior pituitary

d)

They are made in the thyroid and stored in the pituitary

e)

They are inhibited by the pineal gland

75.

Which type of hypothalamic signals control hormone release from the pituitary gland?

a)

Releasing and inhibiting hormones

b)

Only neural action potentials

c)

Digestive enzymes

d)

Parathyroid factors

e)

Erythropoietin

76.

Human growth hormone (hGH) is primarily characterized in the material as which of the following?

a)

The most plentiful anterior pituitary hormone

b)

A steroid hormone stored in the posterior pituitary

c)

A thyroid hormone released continuously

d)

An adrenal cortex hormone

e)

A pancreatic peptide secreted during fasting

77.

What is the release pattern of hGH according to the material?

a)

It is released in bursts every few hours

b)

It is secreted only once daily

c)

It is continuously secreted at a constant rate

d)

It is released only during sleep

e)

It is released only after meals

78.

Which anterior pituitary cells release hGH, and which hypothalamic hormones regulate their activity?

a)

Somatotrophs; GHRH stimulates and GHIH inhibits

b)

Thyrotrophs; TRH stimulates and GHIH inhibits

c)

Corticotrophs; CRH stimulates and TRH inhibits

d)

Gonadotrophs; GnRH stimulates and GHRH inhibits

e)

Lactotrophs; PRH stimulates and PIH inhibits

79.

Which pairing correctly matches pituitary lobe with its alternate name?

a)

Anterior lobe—adenohypophysis; Posterior lobe—neurohypophysis

b)

Anterior lobe—neurohypophysis; Posterior lobe—adenohypophysis

c)

Anterior lobe—pars nervosa; Posterior lobe—pars distalis

d)

Anterior lobe—pineal; Posterior lobe—hypothalamic lobe

e)

Anterior lobe—neuroendocrine; Posterior lobe—adenal

80.

Which hypothalamic hormone directly stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete growth hormone (GH)?

a)

GHRH (growth hormone–releasing hormone)

b)

GHIH (growth hormone–inhibiting hormone)

c)

TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone)

d)

CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone)

81.

According to the diagram, which condition would most likely increase GHRH release and promote GH secretion?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Deep sleep

c)

High blood levels of GH and IGFs

d)

Aging

82.

Which of the following is listed as a factor that suppresses GH secretion via GHIH?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Decreased blood levels of fatty acids

c)

Obesity

d)

Increased blood levels of amino acids

83.

GH acts on target tissues to stimulate the production of IGFs. Which tissue group is shown as a major source of IGFs in the diagram?

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Liver, bone, skeletal muscle, and cartilage

c)

Pancreatic islets

d)

Thyroid gland

84.

Which metabolic state listed in the diagram is most likely to trigger the release of GHIH rather than GHRH?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Increased blood levels of fatty acids

c)

Decreased blood levels of amino acids

d)

Deep sleep

85.

After GH stimulates the release of IGFs, what primary physiological effect is indicated in the diagram?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Growth of bone, muscle, and other tissues

c)

Decreased thyroid hormone levels

d)

Inhibition of sympathetic activity

86.

Which gland secretes human growth hormone (hGH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), prolactin (PRL), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)?

a)

Posterior pituitary gland

b)

Anterior pituitary gland

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Adrenal medulla

87.

Growth hormone (GH) primarily stimulates which tissues to synthesize and secrete insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) that promote growth?

a)

Kidney and pancreas

b)

Liver, muscle, cartilage, bone, and other tissues

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Adrenal cortex

88.

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), also known as thyrotropin, has its principal action on which target tissue?

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreatic islets

89.

Which hormone from the anterior pituitary stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

TSH

d)

ACTH

90.

In females, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) primarily initiates development of oocytes and induces ovarian secretion of which hormones?

a)

Progesterone only

b)

Estrogens

c)

Testosterone

d)

Cortisol

91.

In males, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the testes to produce which cells?

a)

Oocytes

b)

Sperm

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Leydig cells

92.

Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates secretion of estrogens and progesterone and triggers ovulation in females?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

TSH

d)

ACTH

93.

In males, luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the testes to produce which hormone?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Cortisol

94.

Which of the following is also called somatotropin?

a)

TSH

b)

FSH

c)

GH

d)

ACTH

95.

Which pair correctly matches the anterior pituitary hormone to its principal action?

a)

TSH—stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol

b)

GH—stimulates IGF production that promotes growth of body tissues

c)

FSH—triggers ovulation and progesterone secretion in females

d)

LH—initiates development of oocytes and induces ovarian estrogen secretion

96.

Which set lists only hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

a)

ADH, oxytocin, TSH

b)

TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH

c)

Insulin, glucagon, GH

d)

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, MSH

97.

A patient has low thyroid hormone levels due to reduced pituitary stimulation. Which anterior pituitary hormone is most likely deficient?

a)

GH

b)

TSH

c)

FSH

d)

LH

98.

Which target tissue is directly stimulated by GH to produce IGFs?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Liver

c)

Adrenal cortex

d)

Pancreas

99.

Which statement best distinguishes the roles of FSH and LH in males?

a)

FSH stimulates testosterone production; LH stimulates sperm production

b)

FSH stimulates sperm production; LH stimulates testosterone production

c)

Both FSH and LH stimulate estrogen production

d)

Neither FSH nor LH affects male reproduction

100.

Which hormone’s principal action includes promoting growth of body tissues via IGFs?

a)

ACTH

b)

TSH

c)

GH

d)

MSH

101.

Which anterior pituitary hormone primarily promotes milk production by the mammary glands (together with other hormones)?

a)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

b)

Prolactin (PRL)

c)

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

d)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

102.

ACTH acts on which target tissue to stimulate secretion of glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Mammary glands

d)

Pancreatic islets

103.

Which statement best describes the principal action of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) in humans according to the summary?

a)

It definitively controls blood glucose homeostasis.

b)

Its exact role is unknown but it may influence brain activity; increased amounts can cause darkening of skin.

c)

It directly stimulates cortisol release from the adrenal cortex.

d)

It promotes milk production by mammary glands.

104.

A patient has low cortisol levels due to decreased stimulation of the adrenal cortex. Which anterior pituitary hormone is most likely deficient?

a)

Prolactin (PRL)

b)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

c)

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

d)

Growth hormone (GH)

105.

Which pairing correctly matches hormone to its target tissue and principal action?

a)

PRL → adrenal cortex → increases glucocorticoid secretion

b)

MSH → mammary glands → promotes milk production

c)

ACTH → adrenal cortex → stimulates secretion of glucocorticoids (mainly cortisol)

d)

PRL → brain → influences brain activity

106.

If MSH levels become elevated in a human, which observable effect is most consistent with the summary?

a)

Pale skin with reduced pigmentation

b)

Darkening of the skin

c)

Increased milk production

d)

Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids

107.

Which stimulus directly triggers oxytocin release during childbirth?

a)

Rising maternal blood glucose

b)

Stretch placed on the cervix

c)

Decreased fetal heart rate

d)

Maternal dehydration

108.

What is a primary effect of oxytocin on the uterus during labor?

a)

Relaxes smooth muscle to reduce pain

b)

Enhances contractions of uterine muscle

c)

Initiates ovulation

d)

Thickens the endometrium

109.

Oxytocin’s role in lactation is best described as:

a)

Stimulating milk production by alveolar cells

b)

Inhibiting prolactin release

c)

Stimulating milk ejection by the mammary glands in response to suckling

d)

Increasing mammary blood glucose uptake

110.

Which pair correctly matches the hormone with its main function in fluid balance?

a)

Oxytocin — decreases urine output by acting on kidneys

b)

ADH — regulates blood osmotic pressure by controlling water reabsorption

c)

Oxytocin — increases blood osmotic pressure during dehydration

d)

ADH — stimulates milk ejection during suckling

111.

During dehydration, osmoreceptors detect increased blood osmotic pressure. Which hormonal response helps restore homeostasis?

a)

Increased oxytocin leading to uterine contractions

b)

Increased ADH promoting water reabsorption in kidneys

c)

Decreased ADH increasing urine volume

d)

Oxytocin causing milk ejection to conserve water

112.

A mother is breastfeeding, and the infant’s suckling initiates a reflex. Which immediate hormonal effect supports feeding?

a)

Oxytocin stimulates milk ejection

b)

ADH increases urine output

c)

Prolactin causes uterine contractions

d)

ADH triggers milk production

113.

Consider the following scenario: A patient has low blood volume and elevated plasma osmolarity. Which outcome would you predict if ADH secretion increases?

a)

Urine output increases and osmotic pressure rises

b)

Urine output decreases and blood osmotic pressure decreases

c)

Milk ejection is stimulated and blood volume falls

d)

Uterine contractions intensify and osmotic pressure increases

114.

Which statement best integrates the roles of oxytocin and ADH in maintaining physiological stability?

a)

Both hormones primarily regulate glucose homeostasis

b)

Oxytocin supports reproductive events (labor and milk ejection), whereas ADH helps maintain water balance and blood osmotic pressure

c)

Both hormones decrease urine output during childbirth

d)

ADH stimulates uterine contractions while oxytocin regulates kidney water reabsorption