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Molecular Basis

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of primer

a)

To help DNA polymerase for initiation

b)

To help RNA polymerase for initiation

c)

To help DNA polymerase for termination

d)

To help RNA polymerase for termination

2.

DNA replication takes place at _________ phase of the cell

cyle.

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

3.

The enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation reaction in ___________direction.

a)

only 5’ → 3’

b)

only 3’ → 5’

c)

both (a) and (b)

d)

none of these

4.

The main enzyme in DNA replication is

a)

DNAse

b)

Proteinase

c)

RNAse

d)

DNA Polymerase

5.

Who proved experimentally that DNA is genetic material?

a)

O. Avery and Colleagues

b)

J. Waston and F. Crick

c)

W. Arber and Colleagues

d)

G. Mendel

6.

The enzyme that restores the phosphodiester linkage between adjacent fragments in the lagging strand during DNA replication is

a)

DNA ligase

b)

primase

c)

reverse transcriptase

d)

helicase

7.

The building blocks for a new DNA molecule are

a)

deoxyribose nucleoside monophosphates

b)

deoxyribose nucleoside diphosphates

c)

deoxyribose nucleoside triphosphates

d)

deoxyribose nucleoside tetraphosphates

8.

The difference between DNA and RNA is that

a)

DNA has thymine and RNA has uracil

b)

DNA has no oxygen bonded to the 2’ carbon; RNA does

c)

DNA is the genetic material; RNA is not.

d)

DNA is double stranded and RNA can’t have hydrogen bond

9.

Which one of the following is not found in DNA?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen or Hydrogen

d)

Sulfur

10.

The Hershey-Chase experiment

a)

Proved semiconservative replication is the mode for DNA replication

b)

used 32P to label protein

c)

used 35S to label DNA

d)

helped to prove DNA was the genetic molecule

11.

Which of the following types of bacteria were used in Griffith’s transformation experiment?

a)

Diplococcus, R-III and S-II type

b)

Pneumococcus, T2 phage

c)

Streptococcus, R-II and S-III type

d)

Diplococcus, E. coli

12.

In Hershey and Chase experiment, the protein of T2 phage was made radioactive by using

a)

S32

b)

P31

c)

S35

d)

P32

13.

Semiconservative DNA replication was proved by Messelson and Stahl, in which DNA was made

a)

Radioactive using N15

b)

Heavy using 14NH4Cl

c)

Heavy using 15NH4Cl

d)

Radioactive using 14NH4Cl

14.

During DNA replication which of the following does not act as substrates?

a)

dATP

b)

dCTP

c)

dUTP

d)

dGTP

15.

RNA primer is removed by

a)

DNA-P-I

b)

DNAP-II

c)

DNAP-III

d)

Primase

16.

Which of the following acts as substrate as well as provide energy for DNA polymerisation?

a)

Ribonucleoside

b)

Deoxyribonucleoside

c)

Ribonucleotide

d)

Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

17.

DNA replication is

a)

Semi-conservative, continuous, unidirectional

b)

Conservative, continuous

c)

Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous

d)

Semi-continuous, conservative

18.

The leading strand and lagging strand in DNA replication differ in that only on the lagging strand

a)

DNA is replicated as short fragments

b)

RNA primer is present

c)

Replication proceeds in the 5’ to 3’ direction

d)

Okazaki fragments are not needed

19.

In semiconservative replication of DNA

a)

the original double helix remains intact and a new double helix forms

b)

the strands of the double helix separate and act as templates for new strands

c)

polymerization is catalyezed by RNA polymerase

d)

polymerization is catalysed by a double helical enzyme

20.

What does DNA have that RNA doesn't

a)

Presence of thymine

b)

Presence of deoxyribose

c)

Presence of ribose

d)

Both a and b

21.

The steps (rungs) of the DNA ladder are made up of __________.

a)

phosphate groups

b)

sugars

c)

nitrogen bases

d)

amino acids

22.

Which of the following is true of DNA but not of RNA?

a)

It is made up of a single strand of nucleotides.

b)

It contains the sugar deoxyribose.

c)

It leaves the nucleus to translate protein.

d)

It contains the nitrogen base uracil.

23.

Which of the following best represents the Central Dogma?

a)

DNA --> RNA --> proteins

b)

RNA --> DNA --> proteins

c)

DNA --> proteins --> RNA

d)

proteins --> RNA --> DNA

24.

What is the nature of the strands of the DNA duplex?

a)

Anti-parallel and complementary

b)

Identical and complementary

c)

Anti-parallel and non-complementary

d)

Dissimilar and non-complementary

25.

If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 45%, the amount of guanine in this DNA will be

a)

22.5%

b)

27.5%

c)

45%

d)

55%

26.

DNA is a polymer made of ______

a)

sugars

b)

amino acids

c)

fats

d)

nucleotides

27.

Nucleoside is made of (a)  

28.

The nitrogenous base is linked to the sugar by (a)   bond

29.

In a polypeptide chain,nucloetides are linked together by (a)   bond

30.

5-methyl uracil is a component of

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Amino acid

d)

Both a and b

31.

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding DNA?

a)

The number of pyrimidine molecules is more than the number of purine molecules.

b)

Guanine is linked to cytosine via 3 hydrogen bonds and adenine forms 2 hydrogen bonds with thymine.

c)

The pitch of the one helix in DNA is 34 Å.

d)

A DNA nucleotide consists of phosphate group, nucleobase, and deoxyribose sugar.

32.

The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:

a)

DNA replication is occurring.

b)

The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.

c)

The DNA double helix is exposed.

d)

Transcription is occurring.

33.

Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that:

a)

one strand turns anti-clockwise

b)

the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

c)

the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)

d)

one strand turns clockwise

34.

Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?

a)

Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines

b)

Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines

c)

Guanine, Adenine - Purines

d)

Adenine, Thymine - Purines

35.

What does the given diagram represent?

a)

Nucleosome

b)

Spliceosome

c)

Histone complex

d)

Both Aand B

36.

If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

30%

d)

60%

37.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ‘beads-on-string’ structure.

b)

Nucleosomes consist of acidic DNA wrapped around basic histone proteins.

c)

Histone proteins are rich in amino acids, lysine and arginine.

d)

Euchromatin is a densely packed and transcriptionally inactive region of chromatin.

38.

RNA and DNA are similar in terms that both

a)

Are double stranded

b)

Have similar sugars

c)

Have similar pyrimidines

d)

Are polymers of nucleotides

39.

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Two nucleotides are linked through 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide.

Statement II: An adenosine nucleoside consists of pentose sugar, phosphate group and nitrogenous base adenine.

a)

Both the statements are true

b)

Both the statements are false

c)

Only statement II is true

d)

Only statement I is true

40.

Choose the incorrect statement:

a)

5-methyl uracil is present in DNA

b)

N-glycosidic linkage between nitrogenous base and sugar forms a nucleoside

c)

The ratio of A+T/G+C is variable for each cell of an individual

d)

In RNA, every nucleotide residue has additional –OH group.

41.

W.r.t the organization of eukaryotic chromosome choose the correct sequence of steps

a)

DNA → Solenoid→ Nucleosome

b)

Nucleosome → Solenoid → Nuclear scaffold proteins

c)

Chromatin → Solenoid → Nucleosome

d)

Solenoid → Nucleosome → Chromatid

42.

Length of DNA will be........ , if it consists of 10,000 base pairs.

a)

3400 nm

b)

340 nm

c)

34000 nm

d)

0.034 nm

43.

What is the approximate number of base pairs present in a DNA molecule with length 34 nm?

a)

340

b)

100

c)

68

d)

34

44.

Read the following statements

Statement I: 5-methyl uracil is present in RNA molecule.

Statement II: The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of proteins that collectively are referred to as histone proteins.

a)

Only statement I is correct

b)

Only statement II is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

45.

The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

a)

Deletion of non-essential genes

b)

Super-coiling in nucleosomes

c)

DNAse digestion

d)

Through elimination of repetitive DNA

46.

What is central dogma

a)

Formation of RNA from DNA and formation of proteins from RNA

b)

Formation of protein from DNA and formation of RNA from protein

c)

Formation of DNA from RNA and formation of protein from DNA

d)

None of the above

47.

State chargaff’s rule

a)

Adenine=cytosine and guanine=thyamine

b)

Adenine=thyamine and cytosine=guanine

c)

Adenine=guanine and thyamine=cytosine

48.

What is the function of tRNA

a)

To synthesize protein

b)

To help in replication

c)

a binding site for RNA polymerase

d)

To carry amino acids to ribosome

49.

Who proposed the semiconservative nature of DNA

a)

Fredrick griffith

b)

Francis crick and watson

c)

Darwin

d)

Meselson and stahl

50.

what is the full form of VNTR

a)

Variable nucleus transfer repeat

b)

valuable of number technology repeat

c)

Variable number tandem repeats

d)

none of the above

51.

where translation takeplace

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

52.

What is the function of primer

a)

to help DNA polymerase for initiation

b)

To help RNA polymerase for initiation

c)

To help DNA polymerase for termination

d)

To help RNA polymerase for termination

53.

What is the function of lactose in lac operon

a)

to bind with repressor protein

b)

To initiate the transcription

c)

To synthesize structural genes

d)

All of the above

54.

What methionine code for

a)

UGA

b)

AUG

c)

UAA

d)

CGA

55.

How introns are removed in eukaryotic cells

a)

Silencing

b)

Capping

c)

Tailing

d)

Splicing

56.

What does DNA have that RNA doesn't

a)

Presence of thymine

b)

Presence of deoxyribose

c)

Presence of ribose

d)

Both a and b

57.

The steps (rungs) of the DNA ladder are made up of __________.

a)

phosphate groups

b)

sugars

c)

nitrogen bases

d)

amino acids

58.

Which of the following is true of DNA but not of RNA?

a)

It is made up of a single strand of nucleotides.

b)

It contains the sugar deoxyribose.

c)

It leaves the nucleus to translate protein.

d)

It contains the nitrogen base uracil.

59.

What is the nature of the strands of the DNA duplex?

a)

Anti-parallel and complementary

b)

Identical and complementary

c)

Anti-parallel and non-complementary

d)

Dissimilar and non-complementary

60.

DNA is a polymer made of ______

a)

sugars

b)

amino acids

c)

fats

d)

nucleotides

61.

State chargaff’s rule

a)

Adenine=cytosine and guanine=thyamine

b)

Adenine=thyamine and cytosine=guanine

c)

Adenine=guanine and thyamine=cytosine

62.

What is the function of tRNA

a)

To synthesize protein

b)

To help in replication

c)

a binding site for RNA polymerase

d)

To carry amino acids to ribosome

63.

Who proposed the semiconservative nature of DNA

a)

Fredrick griffith

b)

Francis crick and watson

c)

Darwin

d)

Meselson and stahl

64.

where translation takeplace

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

65.

What is the function of primer

a)

to help DNA polymerase for initiation

b)

To help RNA polymerase for initiation

c)

To help DNA polymerase for termination

d)

To help RNA polymerase for termination

66.

What is the function of lactose in lac operon

a)

to bind with repressor protein

b)

To initiate the transcription

c)

To synthesize structural genes

d)

All of the above

67.
In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by:
a)
glycosidic bonds
b)
phosphodiester bonds
c)
peptide bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
68.
A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the:
a)
base
b)
sugar
c)
phosphate group
d)
hydroxyl group
69.
The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at:
a)
3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
b)
5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
c)
the 5' (upstream) end
d)
the 3' (downstream) end
70.
The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively:
a)
Chromosome 21 and Y
b)
Chromosome 1 and X
c)
Chromosome 1 and Y
d)
Chromosome X and Y
71.

If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

30%

d)

60%

72.

If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand?

a)

ATGCATGCA

b)

AUGCAUGCA

c)

TACTACGT

d)

UACGUACGU

73.

Which of the following phenomena was experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl?

a)

Transformation

b)

Transduction

c)

Semi conversative DNA replication

d)

Central dogma

74.

Which non radioactive isotope was used by Meselson and Stahl in their experiments?

a)

32 P

b)

35 S

c)

15 N

d)

None

75.

Which one of the following condition can cause pneumonia in mice?

a)

Injection of R strain into mice.

b)

Injection of heat killed R strain into mice along with heat killed S strain.

c)

Injection of heat killed S strain into mice.

d)

Injection of live S strain into mice or heat killed S strain along with live R strain.

76.

Who discovered the process of transformation and on which species was it done?

a)

Frederich Miescher, Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Frederick Griffith, Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Alfred Hershey, T2 Bacteriophage

d)

Martha Chase, T2 bacteriophage

77.

The isotopes used by Hershey and Chase to prove that DNA is the genetic material R

a)

P32 and S35

b)

P35 and S32

c)

N15 and N15

d)

N14 and N15

78.

During biochemical characterization of transforming principle, the digestion with _______ did inhibit transformation suggesting that DNA caused the transformation.

a)

DNAase

b)

Protease

c)

RNAase

d)

DNA polymerase

79.

The main differences between RNA and DNA in its structure are

a)

The pentose sugar in RNA is ribose and it contains thymine.

b)

The pentose sugar in RNA is deoxyribose and it contains cytosine.

c)

The pentose sugar in RNA is deoxyribose and it contains uracil.

d)

The pentose sugar in RNA is ribose and it contains uracil.

80.

Which of the following region(s) does not code for any proteins?

(i) Introns

(ii) Exons

(iii) VNTRs

a)

Only i and iii

b)

Only ii and iii

c)

Only i

d)

All i, ii and iii

81.

tRNA is present corresponding to each of the following specified codons, except the codon

a)

UUU

b)

UGG

c)

AUG

d)

UGA

82.

Splicing is one of the steps of post-transcriptional modifications which occurs in

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

ER

d)

Ribosomes

83.

If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

a)

11

b)

33

c)

333

d)

1

84.

What is the function of primer

a)

To help DNA polymerase for initiation

b)

To help RNA polymerase for initiation

c)

To help DNA polymerase for termination

d)

To help RNA polymerase for termination

85.

During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate

a)

the lagging strand towards replication fork

b)

the leading strand away from replication fork

c)

the lagging strand away from the replication fork

d)

he leading strand towards replication fork.

86.

In the lactose operon system in E. coli, the repressor is –

a)

a product of a structural gene locus

b)

bound to the promoter sequence

c)

lactose

d)

a protein

87.

Which of the following statements concerning the regulator gene (R) associated with the lac operon is correct?

a)

mRNA is transcribed from the R gene whether lactose is present or not

b)

mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when lactose is present

c)

mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when lactose is not present

d)

Lactose inhibits the translation of R gene to mRNA

88.

According to the Jacob-Monod (lac operon) model of gene regulation, inducer substances in bacterial cells probably

a)

combine with operator regions, activating the associated operons

b)

combine with structural genes, stimulating them to synthesize messenger RNA

c)

combine with repressor proteins, inactivating them

d)

combine with promoter regions, activating RNA polymerase

89.

The regulator gene of a bacterial operon

a)

codes for inducer substances

b)

codes for repressor proteins

c)

acts as an on-off switch for the structural genes

d)

is a binding site for RNA polymerase

90.

The sugar lactose induces synthesis of the enzyme lactase. What happens when an E.coli (bacterial) cell runs out of lactose?

a)

Repressor protein binds to the operator

b)

Repressor protein binds to the promoter

c)

RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter

d)

RNA polymerase attaches to the repressor

91.

In bacteria, the structural genes can be turned on when –

a)

the end product of a reaction combines with the repressor protein and activates it

b)

the substrate combines with a repressor protein and inactivates it

c)

the substrate combines with the promoter

d)

the substrate combines with its enzyme and produces a repressor molecule

92.

Which of the following criteria must be fulfilled by a genetic material?

a)

Replication and Mutation

b)

Stability

c)

Express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Characters’

d)

All of the above

93.

The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in the eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accomodated?

a)

Super coiling in nucleosomes

b)

DNase digestion

c)

Through elimination of repetitive DNA

d)

Deletion of non-essential genes

94.

The sequence of structural gene in lac operon is

a)

Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z

b)

Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y

c)

Lac Y, Lac Z, Lac A

d)

Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A

95.

The length of DNA has 45000 base pairs. How many complete turns will the DNA molecule take?

a)

45000

b)

450

c)

4500

d)

45

96.

In the Watson-Crick model of DNA, the two strands are held together by:

a)

Covalent bonds between purines and pyrimidines

b)

Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases

c)

Van der Waals forces between sugar molecules

d)

Ionic bonds between phosphate groups

97.

Which experiment provided unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material?

a)

Griffith's transformation experiment

b)

Avery, MacLeod and McCarty's experiment

c)

Hershey-Chase experiment

d)

Meselson-Stahl experiment

98.

In a double-stranded DNA molecule, if one strand has the sequence 5'-ATGCGT-3', the complementary strand will have:

a)

5'-TACGCA-3'

b)

3'-TACGCA-5'

c)

5'-ACGCAT-3'

d)

3'-ACGCAT-5'

99.

The enzyme that joins Okazaki fragments during DNA replication is:

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

DNA helicase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

DNA primase

100.

In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, after one generation of growth in ¹⁴N medium, the DNA showed:

a)

Only heavy density

b)

Only light density

c)

Hybrid density

d)

Equal amounts of heavy and light density

101.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the lac operon structural genes?

a)

β-galactosidase gene (z)

b)

Permease gene (y)

c)

Transacetylase gene (a)

d)

Repressor gene (i)

102.

The genetic code is said to be degenerate because:

a)

Some codons do not code for any amino acid

b)

Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon

c)

Some codons code for more than one amino acid

d)

The code varies from one organism to another

103.

In eukaryotic transcription, RNA polymerase II is responsible for transcribing:

a)

rRNA genes

b)

tRNA genes

c)

mRNA precursor (hnRNA)

d)

All types of RNA

104.

The process of splicing in eukaryotes involves:

a)

Removal of exons and joining of introns

b)

Removal of introns and joining of exons

c)

Addition of methyl cap to 5' end

d)

Addition of poly-A tail to 3' end

105.

Which of the following codons acts as both start codon and codes for methionine?

a)

UUG

b)

AUG

c)

GUG

d)

UAA

106.

The Human Genome Project revealed that approximately what percentage of the human genome codes for proteins?

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

Less than 2%

d)

10%

107.

DNA fingerprinting is based on:

a)

Differences in coding sequences

b)

Variations in repetitive DNA sequences

c)

Different protein compositions

d)

Chromosome number variations

108.

In prokaryotes, the region where DNA is organized is called:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleosome

c)

Nucleoid

d)

Chromatin

109.

A frameshift mutation is caused by:

a)

Substitution of one base for another

b)

Insertion or deletion of one or two bases

c)

Insertion or deletion of three bases

d)

Duplication of a chromosome segment

110.

The anticodon of tRNA is complementary to:

a)

The template strand of DNA

b)

The coding strand of DNA

c)

The codon on mRNA

d)

Another tRNA molecule

111.

THE EQUIVALENT OF STRUCTURAL GENE IS

a)

MUTON

b)

CISTRON

c)

OPERON

d)

RECON

112.

During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate

a)

the lagging strand towards replication fork

b)

the leading strand away from replication fork

c)

the lagging strand away from the replication fork

d)

he leading strand towards replication fork.

113.

The nitrogenous base is linked to the sugar by (a)   bond

114.

Who proposed the semiconservative nature of DNA

a)

Fredrick griffith

b)

Francis crick

c)

Darwin

d)

Meselson and stahl

115.

What is the function of tRNA

a)

To synthesize protein

b)

To help in replication

c)

a binding site for RNA polymerase

d)

To carry amino acids to ribosome

116.

What is the full form of VNTR

a)

Variable nucleus transfer repeat

b)

valuable of number technology repeat

c)

Variable number tandem repeats

d)

none of the above

117.

The enzyme that restores the phosphodiester linkage between adjacent fragments in the lagging strand during DNA replication is

a)

DNA ligase

b)

primase

c)

reverse transcriptase

d)

helicase

118.

Which of the following types of bacteria were used in Griffith’s transformation experiment?

a)

Diplococcus, R-III and S-II type

b)

Pneumococcus, T2 phage

c)

Streptococcus, R-II and S-III type

d)

Diplococcus, E. coli

119.

The Hershey-Chase experiment

a)

Proved semiconservative replication is the mode for DNA replication

b)

used 32P to label protein

c)

used 35S to label DNA

d)

helped to prove DNA was the genetic molecule

120.

Which of the following is required as inducer for the expression of lac operon?

a)

Lactose

b)

Galactose and Lactose

c)

Glucose

d)

Galactose

121.

The association of histone H 1 with a nucleosome indicates that

a)

DNA replication is occurring

b)

the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre

c)

DNA double helix is exposed

d)

transcription is occurring.

122.

Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest

a)

Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

b)

Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene

c)

Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide

d)

Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene

123.

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

a)

Transcription ­ Writing information from DNA to tRNA

b)

Translation ­ -Using information in mRNA to make protein.

c)

Repressor protein- ­ Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis.

d)

Operon ­- Structural genes, operator and promoter,regulator

124.

Which of the following is not required in translation

a)

UTRs

b)

Ribosome

c)

AUG

d)

Sigma factor

125.

ASSERTION-The nitrogenous base of two chains of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds


Reason-Both chains of DNA are antiparallel

a)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion

b)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c)

Assertion is true reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false

126.

What is central dogma

a)

Formation of RNA from DNA and formation of proteins from RNA

b)

Formation of protein from DNA and formation of RNA from protein

c)

Formation of DNA from RNA and formation of protein from DNA

d)

None of the above

127.

State chargaff’s rule

a)

Adenine=cytosine and guanine=thyamine

b)

Adenine=thyamine and cytosine=guanine

c)

Adenine=guanine and thyamine=cytosine

128.

What is the function of tRNA

a)

To synthesize protein

b)

To help in replication

c)

a binding site for RNA polymerase

d)

To carry amino acids to ribosome

129.

Who proposed the semiconservative nature of DNA

a)

Fredrick griffith

b)

Francis crick and watson

c)

Darwin

d)

Meselson and stahl

130.

what is the full form of VNTR

a)

Variable nucleus transfer repeat

b)

valuable of number technology repeat

c)

Variable number tandem repeats

d)

none of the above

131.

where translation takeplace

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

132.

What is the function of primer

a)

to help DNA polymerase for initiation

b)

To help RNA polymerase for initiation

c)

To help DNA polymerase for termination

d)

To help RNA polymerase for termination

133.

What is the function of lactose in lac operon

a)

to bind with repressor protein

b)

To initiate the transcription

c)

To synthesize structural genes

d)

All of the above

134.

What methionine code for

a)

UGA

b)

AUG

c)

UAA

d)

CGA

135.

How introns are removed in eukaryotic cells

a)

Silencing

b)

Capping

c)

Tailing

d)

Splicing

136.

DNA replication takes place at _________ phase of the cell

cyle.

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

137.

The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA to RNA is termed as _________ .

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

reverse transcription

138.

The enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation reaction in ___________direction.

a)

only 5’ → 3’

b)

only 3’ → 5’

c)

both (a) and (b)

d)

none of these

139.

If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in mRNA will be

a)

TAAGCTAC

b)

UAAGCUAC

c)

ATTCGATG

d)

AUUCGAUG.

140.

If the sequence of bases in DNA is GCTTAGGCAA then the sequence of bases in its transcript will be

a)

GCTTAGGCAA

b)

CGAATCCGTT

c)

CGAAUCCGUU

d)

AACGGAUUCG.

141.

Transcription unit

a)

starts with TATA box

b)

starts with pallendrous regions and ends with rho factor.

c)

starts with promoter region and ends in terminator region

d)

starts with CAAT region.

142.

During transcription, the site of DNA molecule at which RNA polymerase binds is called

a)

promoter

b)

regulator

c)

receptor

d)

enhancer.

143.

Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA) usually occurs in

a)

bacteria

b)

prokaryotes

c)

eukaryotes

d)

both (a) and (b)

144.

In transcription in eukaryotes, heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is tmascribed by

a)

RNA polymerase I

b)

RNA polymerase II

c)

RNA polymerase III

d)

all of these.

145.

Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in a process of

a)

splicing

b)

capping

c)

tailing

d)

none of these

146.

In eukaryotes, the process of processing of primary transcript involves

a)

removal of introns

b)

capping at 5’end

c)

tailing (polyadenlation) at 3’ end

d)

all of these.

147.

In a n/RNA molecule, untranslated regions (UTRs) are present at

a)

5’ – end (before start codon)

b)

3’ – end (after stop codon)

c)

both (a) and (b)

d)

3’- end only.

148.

UTRs are the untranslated regions present on

a)

rRNA

b)

hnRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

/RNA

149.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding ribosomes ?

a)

Most of a cell’s DNA molecule are stored there.

b)

Complete polypeptide is released from there.

c)

mRNAs are produced there.

d)

DNA replication takes place there.

150.

Regulation of gene expression occurs at the level of

a)

transcription

b)

processing/splicing

c)

translation

d)

all of these.

151.

During expression of an operon, RNA polymerase binds to

a)

structural gene

b)

regulator gene

c)

operator

d)

promoter.

152.

The sequence of structural genes in lac operon is

a)

Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z

b)

Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y

c)

Lac Y, Lac A, Lac A

d)

Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A

153.

Which of the following cannot act as inducer ?

a)

Glucose

b)

Lactose

c)

Galactos

d)

Both (a) and (c)

154.

Human genome consists of approximately

a)

3 × 109 bP

b)

6 × 109 bp

c)

20,000 – 25,000 bp

d)

2.2 × 104 bp.

155.

Estimated number of genes in human beings is

a)

3,000

b)

80,000

c)

20,500

d)

3 × 109

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