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Anne Yr11 Nov Bio Test

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fungi and plant cells both have cell walls

a)

true

b)

false

2.

Fungi can turn sunlight into stored energy

a)

true

b)

false

3.

All Prokaryote cells have a nucleus

a)

true

b)

false

4.

This organism is a pathogen that causes Malaria

a)

Euglena

b)

Amoeba

c)

Plasmodium

d)

Paramecium

5.

This is a virus that infects tobacco and tomato plants

a)

HIV

b)

TMV

c)

RNA

d)

DNA

6.

This is a multicellular fungus

a)

Yeast

b)

Mucor

c)

Plasmodium

d)

Maize

7.

These are both legumes

a)

Maize and Peas

b)

Peas and beans

c)

Rice and Maize

d)

Beans and rice

8.

These are the three examples of animals on your spec.

a)

Humans, rats mosquitoes

b)

House flies, mosquitoes, Mucor

c)

Humans, Mosquitoes, House flies

d)

Chlorella, Chickens, Maize

9.
The whiplike tail on some bacteria that help them move
a)
Nucleoid
b)
Pili
c)
Flagella
d)
Cilia
10.

This bacterium is used in making yoghurt

a)

Lactobacillus bulgaricus

b)

Pneumococcus

c)

E-Coli

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

11.

Which of the following statements about yeast is correct?

a)

it is a eukaryote and has a cell wall made of cellulose

b)

it is a eukaryote and has a cell wall made of chitin

c)

it is a prokaryote and has a cell wall made of cellulose

d)

it is a prokaryote and has a cell wall made of chitin

12.

Below are some statements about fungi.


-fungal hyphae release enzymes to digest food

-the network of hyphae is called a mycelium

-many fungi use saprophytic nutrition

-examples of fungi include yeast and Mucor


How many of the statements are correct?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

13.

Which of the following statements about viruses is correct?

a)

viruses are made of cells

b)

viruses can reproduce outside the body

c)

viruses carry DNA or RNA

d)

viruses release energy by respiration

14.

Which one of the following can store carbohydrates as glycogen?

a)

Fungi

b)

Plants

c)

Bacteria

d)

Virus

15.

Choose the Eukaryotic Organism

a)

Yeast

b)

Cow

c)

Algae

d)

Tuberculosis Bacteria

e)

Bamboo Tree

16.
Fungi are 'saprophytic' feeders. What does this mean?
a)
They digest dead organic matter
b)
They digest dead inorganic matter
c)
They digest dead organic matter using extracellular enzymes
d)
They ingest dead organisms
17.
The underground body of a fungus is made of a network of feeding threads called hyphae. What is the correct name for this hyphae network?
a)
Hyphae
b)
Root system
c)
Mycelium
d)
Mycorrhiza
18.
Which of these are three structures you would find in a plant cell but not an animal cell?
a)
Nucleus, Chloroplast, Ribosome
b)
Chloroplast, Cell Wall, Vacuole
c)
Cell Wall, Chloroplast, Mesophyll
19.
Are viruses generally regarded as living or non-living?
a)
Living
b)
Non-living
20.
What cells in the body does HIV infect?
a)
Red blood cells
b)
White blood cells
c)
Epithelial cells
d)
Sperm and egg cells
21.
In which type of living thing would you find a plasmid?
a)
Bacterium
b)
Protoctistan
c)
Plant
d)
Virus
22.
What is a plasmid?
a)
A small additional loop of DNA
b)
A section of DNA that codes for one protein
c)
The liquid part of a cell
d)
An organism that causes malaria
23.
Which types of organisms can store carbohydrates as glycogen?
a)
Animals
b)
Plants
c)
Fungi
d)
Animals and Fungi
24.
How do plants store excess carbohydrates?
a)
In their vacuole
b)
As starch grains
c)
As glucose
d)
As sap
25.
Malaria is caused by an organism from which kingdom?
a)
Animal
b)
Bacteria
c)
Protoctista
d)
Fungi
26.
Some bacteria can photosynthesise.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
Pneumococcus is ...
a)
A virus that causes lung disease
b)
A bacterium that causes pneumonia
c)
A bacterium that causes pneumothorax
d)
A virus that causes pneumonic plague
28.
Chlorella is not a plant because....
a)
It doesn't photosynthesise
b)
It respires
c)
It is single celled
d)
It lives in the sea
29.
Chlorella belongs to the kingdom...
a)
Animals
b)
Plants
c)
Bacteria
d)
Protoctista
30.
Which part of the fungal hypha is made of chitin?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
31.

Where would the nerve impulse start in this reflex arc?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

32.

_____ neurons carry messages away from the central nervous system and out to muscles or glands. The RED neuron in diagram.

a)

sensory

b)

motor

c)

inter

d)

central

33.

Which way does an impulse travel

a)

From dendrite to axon and out axon terminal

b)

From axon to axon and out dendrite terminal

c)

From axon to dendrite and out axon terminal

d)

From cell body to dendrite and out axon terminal

34.
When you react to catch a dropped ruler your body reacts in this order:
a)
1) muscles contract 2) eyes sense ruler move 3) message sent to brain 4) message sent to the muscles
b)
1) message sent to muscles 2) muscles contract 3) message sent to brain 4) eyes sense ruler move
c)
1) eyes contract 2) muscles sent to brain 3) message sense moves 4) ruler is sent to muscles
d)
1) eyes sense ruler move 2) message sent to brain 3) message sent to muscles 4) muscles contract
35.

What part of the neuron receives incoming messages from other cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

cell body

c)

dendrites

d)

synaptic terminals

36.
The tiny gap between neurons where nerve impulses are sent from one neuron to another.  It is where communication occurs between an axon and dendrite
a)
synapse
b)
axon terminal
c)
impulse
d)
myelin
37.
The part of the neuron that insulates the axon and increases the speed of the neural message within the neuron.
a)
Synapse
b)
Dendrite
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Axon Terminal Button
38.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
39.

Select two examples of effectors.

a)

Neuron

b)

Gland

c)

Muscle

d)

Receptor

40.

Which type of neuron causes a muscle to contract in a reflex arc?

a)

Motor Neuron

b)

Sensory Neuron

c)

Interneuron

d)

Effector

41.
What is the neuron found only in the spinal cord?
a)
Relay
b)
Sensory
c)
Motor
d)
Reflex
42.

What type of neuron is A?

a)

Sensory

b)

Inter

c)

Motor

43.

Which is the correct order of neurons in a reflex arc?

a)

Sensory neuron, motor neuron, relay neuron

b)

Relay neuron, sensory neuron, motor neuron

c)

Sensory neuron, relay neuron, motor neuron

44.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
45.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
46.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
47.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
48.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
49.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
50.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
51.
What is the location in the cell for transcription?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
d)
mitochondria
52.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
53.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
54.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
55.
What type of RNA carries the DNA message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
RNA
d)
DNA
56.

The tRNA binds to specific codons. What part of the tRNA binds with a specific codon?

a)

anti-codon

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

antisense

57.
Which RNA bases would pair with TAC  in transcription? 
a)
AUG
b)
ATG
c)
GCA
d)
GCA
58.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

59.
How many base pairs would be needed to chain together 3 amino acids?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
9
d)
12
60.

How many amino acids are found on one tRNA?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

61.
The diagram shows the process of
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
62.
Which amino acid is coded from the mRNA codon:
G G C
a)
Arginine
b)
Serine
c)
Leucine
d)
Glycine
63.
What does Letter C indicate?
a)
Polypeptide Chain
b)
Anticodon
c)
Codon
d)
Amino Acid
64.
What does Letter E Indicate?
a)
Codons
b)
Amino Acids
c)
An Anticodon
d)
Ribosome
65.
What does Letter A indicate?
a)
amino acids being brought to the ribosome by tRNA
b)
ribosomes translating DNA
c)
A growing polypeptide chain
d)
new mRNA being formed
66.

If a codon read "AGC", what would the anticodon read?

a)

TCT

b)

UAG

c)

UCG

d)

AUG

e)

CGA

67.

What base in RNA replaces Thymine?

a)

thymine

b)

uracil

c)

guanine

d)

adenine

68.

Identify.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

69.
RNA has how many strands?
a)
one
b)
two
70.
What is the product of transcription?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
71.
What does it mean if a plant has a POSITIVE phototropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
72.
What does it mean if a plant has a NEGATIVE gravitropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
73.

Which part of the plant shows positive geotropism?

a)

Stem

b)

Leaves

c)

Roots

d)

Seed

74.

Which part of the plant shows negative geotropism?

a)

The roots

b)

The leaves and stem

75.

Where are auxins made in the plant?

a)

In the growing tip of a stem or root

b)

In the older part of a stem or root

c)

All plant cells can make auxins

76.

Which side of a stem contains more auxin?

a)

The shaded side

b)

The side in the light

c)

Both sides (shaded and non-shaded) contain the same amount of auxin

77.

Which statement about plant stems is correct?

a)

They are positively phototropic and positively geotropic

b)

They are negatively phototropic but positively geotropic

c)

They are positively phototropic but negatively geotropic

78.

Which statement about plant roots is correct?

a)

They are negatively phototropic and negatively geotropic

b)

They are negatively phototropic but positively geotropic

c)

They are positively phototropic but negatively geotropic

79.

Stem cells are ____________________.

a)

cells that grow uncontrollably

b)

undifferentiated cells that can turn into other types of cells

c)

the first cells of a new living organism (fertilized egg)

d)

specialized cells that do one job

80.
Stem cells can be obtained from _________.
a)
embryos
b)
some adult tissues
c)
umbilical cord blood
d)
all of the above
81.
What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
a)
Embryonic can differentiate into more cell types than adult
b)
Adult only turn into blood, while embryonic turn into many things.
c)
Adult can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic
d)
Adult grow bigger than embryonic
82.
Which is true about embryonic stem cells?
a)
They no longer divide; their cell type is set and cannot change.
b)
They can develop into only one type of cell.
c)
They can become any cell type in the body.
d)
They are found in adults.
83.

What does it mean for Stem Cells to be undifferentiated?

a)

They are specific types of cells.

b)

They don't have a specific job yet.

c)

They don't matter.

84.
a)

Insect-pollinated

b)

Wind-pollinated

85.
a)

Insect-pollinated

b)

Wind-pollinated

86.
a)

Insect-pollinated

b)

Wind-pollinated

87.

A plant with smooth and light pollen grains is…

a)

Insect-pollinated

b)

Wind-pollinated

88.

A plant containing nectar is…

a)

Insect-pollinated

b)

Wind-pollinated

89.

A plant with anthers outside the flower that are loosely attached to long filaments is…

a)

Insect-pollinated

b)

Wind-pollinated

90.

A plant with a sticky stigma inside the flower is…

a)

Insect-pollinated

b)

Wind-pollinated

91.

Insect-pollinated flowers typically have

a)

Small, inconspicuous flowers

b)

No scent

c)

Light, powdery pollen grains

d)

Relatively large, and often sticky grains of pollen

92.

What produces pollen?

a)

Anther

b)

Filament

c)

Stigma

d)

Petal

93.

The part of the flower which receives the pollen grains during pollination.

a)

pistil

b)

stamen

c)

style

d)

stigma

94.

TRUE/FALSE? Wind-pollinated flowers often have long, feathery stigmas

a)

True

b)

False

95.
a)

stamen

b)

stigma

c)

style

d)

ovary

96.
a)

sepal

b)

stigma

c)

filament

d)

anther

97.

The process of the nucleus of the pollen fusing with the nucleus of the ovule is called ________________.

a)

Pollination

b)

Fertilisation

c)

Germination

d)

reproduction

98.

When fertilization has occurred the fertilized ovule changes and so does the ovary.

What do they turn into?

a)

The fertilised ovule turns into honey and the ovary turns into nectar.

b)

The fertilised ovule turns into the fruit and the ovary turns into the seed.

c)

The fertilised ovule turns into a seed and the ovary turns into the fruit or pod.

d)

The ovule grows bigger and the ovary withers.

99.

The pollen grain is transferred from the anther to the ______.

a)

style

b)

stigma

c)

ovary

d)

ovule

100.

The pollen grain lands on the (a) _____​ , germinates to form a pollen tube which grows down the ​(b) _____ towards the (c) _____​ .

a)

stigma, ovule, style

b)

style, stigma, ovule

c)

stigma, style, ovule

101.

The pollen tube extends till it reaches the ovule inside the ovary through the _______.

a)

Zygote

b)

Male nuclei

c)

Micropyle

d)

Style

102.

Pollination is

a)

the process by which seeds are spread

b)

the process by which the pollen is moved from the anther to the stigma

c)

when the pollen grows a tube down the style and into an ovule

d)

when the anther makes pollen

103.

What is another name for a fertilized ovule?

a)

A pistil

b)

A stamen

c)

An anther

d)

A seed

104.

What do the arrows in a food chain represent?

a)

The flow of energy

b)

Which organism eats which

c)

Producers

d)

Consumers

105.

What percentage of energy from one organism is passed onto the next organism in a food chain?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

106.

Which letter represents the producer?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

107.

An arctic food web is shown. Suppose that the lemming population is removed from the web. Which of the following would be a likely short-term effect of this change?

a)

The arctic fox population will increase.

b)

The polar bear population will increase.

c)

The caribou population will decrease.

d)

The snowy owl population will decrease.

108.

In the food web provided, which organism is considered an omnivore?

a)

Grasshopper

b)

Frog

c)

Mouse

d)

Hawk

109.

What happens to the biomass at higher trophic levels?

a)

It decreases

b)

It fluctuates unpredictably

c)

It remains constant

d)

It increases exponentially

110.

Identify the skunk's location in this food chain.

a)

Producer

b)

Primary Consumer

c)

Secondary Consumer

d)

Tertiary Consumer

111.

What is an ecosystem?

a)

all organisms and abiotic components in a particular area

b)

all organisms living in a particular area

c)

all abiotic components of a particular area

d)

all organisms and abiotic components in many areas

112.
The place where an organism lives is its _________.
a)
habitat
b)
abiotic
c)
ecosystem
d)
community
113.
A relationship where one organism benefits and one organism is harmed is called __________.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
114.


Use the food web. What would be the food chain that begins with plankton and ends with leopard seals in trophic level 4.

a)

Plankton, Krill, Antarctic Cod, Leopard seal

b)

Krill, Plankton, Antarctic Cod, Leopard Seal

c)

Plankton, Antarctic Cod, Krill Leopard Seal

115.

What is the best way to place a quadrat?

a)

Place it where you like

b)

Divide the sample area into a grid and use a random number generator to choose a square.

c)

Throw the quadrat so it's random

d)

Divide the sample area into a grid and choose a square.

116.

For this species it would be best to

a)

count individuals

b)

estimate percentage cover

c)

none of the above

117.

For this species it would be best to

a)

count individuals

b)

estimate percentage cover

c)

none of the above

118.

Match the quadrat with the correct estimated species cover

a)

6%

b)

13%

c)

21%

d)

16%

119.

Match the quadrat with the correct estimated species cover

a)

3%

b)

11%

c)

8%

d)

2%

120.
Which terms best describe heterotrophs?
a)
Plants; producers
b)
Animals; producers
c)
Plants; consumers
d)
Animals; consumers
121.

If you were to place the bear into the energy pyramid, the bear would go on level _____ and have ____ amount of energy available to it.

a)

C, the most

b)

A, the greatest

c)

A, the least

d)

C, the least

122.

Earthworm not an example of a detritivore.

a)

true

b)

false

123.

Fungi is an example of a decomposer

a)

true

b)

false

124.
What is letter B
a)
Optic nerve
b)
Lens
c)
Cornea
d)
Retina
125.
What is letter E?
a)
Vitreous humor
b)
Retina
c)
Cornea
d)
Optic nerve
126.
What is letter F?
a)
Retina
b)
Pupil
c)
Vitreous humor
d)
Iris
127.
What is letter G?
a)
Sclera
b)
Retina
c)
Lens
d)
Vitreous humor
128.
What is letter H?
a)
Cornea
b)
Optic nerve
c)
Iris
d)
Retina
129.
What is letter I?
a)
Cornea
b)
Lens
c)
Vitreous humor
d)
Optic nerve
130.
Why does your pupil increase in size when you enter a dark room?
a)
To protect the eye
b)
to allow more light to enter the  eye
c)
to allow less light to enter the eye
d)
to look like a  pirate
131.
What part of the eye are the cones located
a)
Iris
b)
lens
c)
retina
d)
pupil
132.
This part of the eye changes shape to control the amount of light that enters the eye.  It is also known as the colored part of the eye.  What is it called?
a)
pupil
b)
lens
c)
iris
d)
retina
133.
Photoreceptors that detect Color
a)
Cones
b)
Rods
134.
Photoreceptors that detect gray tones in low light
a)
Rods
b)
Cones
135.

Specifically where would you find the most cone cells?

(a)  

136.

By which structures are the ciliary muscles connected to the lens?

a)

Ciliary ligaments

b)

Suspensory ligaments

c)

Taut ligaments

d)

Sensory ligaments

137.

What is the tough, white outer layer of the eye called?

a)

Choroid

b)

Retina

c)

Sclera

d)

Cornea

138.

Name the the type of muscle that is antagonistic to a circular muscle in the iris.

(a)  

139.

To focus on a near object – the lens becomes (a)   , this allows the light rays to refract (bend) more strongly.

140.

Identify the term for short-sightedness

a)

Cataracts

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Accommodation

d)

Myopia

141.

What shape of lens could be used to correct hyperopia?

(a)  

142.

What happens when the ciliary muscles contract?

a)

The suspensory ligements Slacken/loosen

b)

The shape of the lens becomes thin

c)

The suspensory ligaments stretch/tighten

d)

Light is only refracted slightly

143.

What is hyperopia

a)

Long sightedness - things which are close up to appear blurred.

b)

Short sightedness - distant objects will appear blurred.

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