wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Semester 1 Makeup activity AICE MS

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 2hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the difference between continental crust and oceanic crust?

a)

Continental crust is denser and thinner than oceanic crust.

b)

Continental crust is thicker and less dense than oceanic crust.

c)

Oceanic crust is thicker and less dense than continental crust.

d)

Oceanic crust and continental crust have the same density and thickness.

2.

What is the main function of the Earth's mantle in plate tectonics?

a)

It forms the Earth's magnetic field.

b)

It provides a rigid surface for plates to rest on.

c)

It allows plates to move due to convection currents.

d)

It is the source of all ocean water.

3.

Which of the following statements best explains the process of weathering?

a)

The movement of rock particles from one place to another.

b)

The breaking down of rocks into smaller pieces by physical or chemical means.

c)

The settling of particles in a new location.

d)

The formation of new rocks from magma.

4.

Which feature is most likely to form at a divergent plate boundary on the ocean floor?

a)

Ocean trench

b)

Mid-ocean ridge

c)

Volcanic island arc

d)

Fold mountain

5.

What is the primary difference between weathering and erosion?

a)

Weathering involves movement, erosion does not.

b)

Erosion involves breaking down rocks, weathering does not.

c)

Weathering breaks down rocks, erosion moves the particles.

d)

Both processes are identical.

6.

Which factor most directly affects the rate at which sediment is transported by water?

a)

The color of the sediment

b)

The speed of the water

c)

The temperature of the air

d)

The amount of sunlight

7.

Which of the following best describes sedimentation?

a)

The process of rocks breaking down into smaller pieces.

b)

The movement of particles from one place to another.

c)

The settling of particles out of water onto a surface.

d)

The melting of rocks due to heat.

8.

Which of the following is an example of a littoral zone?

a)

Deep ocean trench

b)

Sandy beach

c)

Mid-ocean ridge

d)

Abyssal plain

9.

Which of the following best explains why tidal ranges vary in different locations?

a)

The amount of rainfall in the area

b)

The shape of the coastline and ocean floor

c)

The color of the water

d)

The presence of marine animals

10.

What is the main cause of upwelling in the ocean?

a)

The sinking of warm water

b)

The movement of surface water away from the coast

c)

The melting of polar ice

d)

The evaporation of seawater

11.

Which process is most responsible for the creation of hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor?

a)

Erosion by ocean currents

b)

Seafloor spreading at mid-ocean ridges

c)

Deposition of sediments

d)

Weathering of rocks by wind

12.

Which of the following is a direct result of the global ocean conveyor belt?

a)

Formation of new continents

b)

Distribution of heat and nutrients around the world

c)

Creation of mountain ranges

d)

Increase in volcanic eruptions

13.

Which of the following best describes the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO)?

a)

A cycle of volcanic eruptions in the Pacific Ocean

b)

A periodic change in ocean currents and weather patterns in the Pacific

c)

The movement of tectonic plates in the Atlantic Ocean

d)

The formation of new ocean basins

14.

Which of the following is most likely to increase the rate of erosion along a shoreline?

a)

Decreased wave action

b)

Increased vegetation

c)

Stronger ocean currents

d)

Lower wind speeds

15.

Which statement best explains how particle size affects sediment transport?

a)

Larger particles are transported more easily than smaller ones.

b)

Smaller particles are transported more easily than larger ones.

c)

Particle size has no effect on transport.

d)

Only particles of the same size can be transported together.

16.

Which of the following is an example of hydraulic action, a type of erosion?

a)

Water dissolving minerals in rocks

b)

Water forcing air into cracks in rocks, causing them to break apart

c)

Rocks rubbing against each other and wearing down

d)

Plants breaking apart rocks with their roots

17.

Which type of erosion involves the removal of rock particles by wind, water, or ice carrying them away?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Attrition

c)

Solution

d)

Transportation

18.

Which of the following best describes attrition as a type of erosion?

a)

The dissolving of rocks by acidic water

b)

The breaking down of rocks as they collide with each other

c)

The scraping of rocks by particles carried by water

d)

The freezing and thawing of water in cracks

19.

Which type of erosion is primarily responsible for the chemical breakdown of rocks in coastal environments?

a)

Hydraulic action

b)

Abrasion

c)

Solution

d)

Attrition

20.

Given a coastline with high wave energy and little vegetation, predict the dominant process shaping the littoral zone and justify your answer.

a)

Sedimentation, because waves deposit large amounts of material.

b)

Erosion, because strong waves remove material from the shore.

c)

Weathering, because plants break down rocks.

d)

Deposition, because vegetation traps sediments.

21.

A river carries both sand and clay particles toward the ocean. If the river's speed decreases suddenly, which particles will settle first and why?

a)

Sand, because larger particles settle faster in slower water.

b)

Clay, because smaller particles settle faster.

c)

Both settle at the same rate.

d)

Neither will settle.

22.

Analyze how the processes of weathering, erosion, and sedimentation interact to create a sandy beach ecosystem.

a)

Weathering breaks down rocks, erosion moves particles, and sedimentation deposits sand to form the beach.

b)

Erosion forms rocks, weathering moves them, and sedimentation breaks them down.

c)

Sedimentation breaks down rocks, weathering moves them, and erosion deposits them.

d)

Weathering and erosion both deposit sand directly.

23.

Given a tide table showing two high tides and two low tides of different heights in a 24-hour period, what type of tide is this and what physical factors could cause it?

a)

Diurnal tide; caused by the Earth's tilt.

b)

Mixed semidiurnal tide; caused by the interaction of lunar and solar gravitational forces.

c)

Spring tide; caused by the full moon.

d)

Neap tide; caused by the new moon.

24.

A section of the ocean floor is found to have many hydrothermal vents and a high rate of seafloor spreading. What can you infer about the tectonic activity in this area?

a)

It is a convergent boundary with little volcanic activity.

b)

It is a divergent boundary with significant volcanic and hydrothermal activity.

c)

It is a transform boundary with no hydrothermal vents.

d)

It is a passive margin with no tectonic activity.

25.

If the global ocean conveyor belt were to slow down significantly, what would be a likely consequence for global climate?

a)

Increased volcanic activity worldwide

b)

Disruption of heat distribution, leading to climate changes in various regions

c)

Formation of new ocean basins

d)

No effect on climate

26.

Compare the formation of a rocky shore and a sandy shore in terms of the dominant earth processes involved.

a)

Rocky shores form mainly by sedimentation, sandy shores by weathering.

b)

Rocky shores form by erosion of resistant rocks, sandy shores by deposition of sediments.

c)

Both form by volcanic activity.

d)

Both form by glacial movement.

27.

A coastal area experiences frequent upwelling. Predict the impact on marine life and explain your reasoning.

a)

Decreased marine productivity due to lack of nutrients.

b)

Increased marine productivity due to nutrient-rich waters.

c)

No change in marine life.

d)

Decreased oxygen levels causing fish kills.

28.

Given a graph showing a sudden increase in sea surface temperature in the Pacific Ocean, what global phenomenon might this indicate and what are its possible effects?

a)

El Niño; can cause altered weather patterns worldwide.

b)

Upwelling; can cause decreased fish populations.

c)

Spring tide; can cause flooding.

d)

Seafloor spreading; can cause earthquakes.

29.

A student observes that a river delta is growing rapidly. Which combination of earth processes is most likely responsible for this observation?

a)

High rates of erosion upstream and high rates of sedimentation at the river mouth.

b)

Low rates of weathering and high rates of erosion.

c)

High rates of weathering and low rates of sedimentation.

d)

Low rates of erosion and sedimentation.

30.

If a coastline is protected by a barrier island, how might this affect the processes of erosion and sedimentation on the mainland shore?

a)

Erosion increases and sedimentation decreases.

b)

Erosion decreases and sedimentation increases.

c)

Both erosion and sedimentation increase.

d)

Both erosion and sedimentation decrease.

31.

A tide table shows unusually high high tides and unusually low low tides. What type of tide is this and what causes it?

a)

Neap tide; caused by the sun and moon at right angles.

b)

Spring tide; caused by the sun and moon aligned.

c)

Mixed tide; caused by irregular coastlines.

d)

Diurnal tide; caused by Earth's rotation.

32.

Explain how abiotic factors such as wind and temperature can influence the creation of ocean currents.

a)

Wind and temperature have no effect on ocean currents.

b)

Wind drives surface currents, and temperature differences cause density-driven deep currents.

c)

Only wind affects ocean currents.

d)

Only temperature affects ocean currents.

33.

A region experiences frequent landslides along its coast. Which combination of earth processes is most likely contributing to this phenomenon?

a)

High rates of weathering and erosion

b)

High rates of sedimentation and low erosion

c)

Low weathering and high sedimentation

d)

Low erosion and low weathering

34.

Interpret a tide graph that shows two nearly equal high tides and two nearly equal low tides each day. What type of tide is this and what does it suggest about the location?

a)

Diurnal tide; likely near the equator.

b)

Semidiurnal tide; common on the Atlantic coasts.

c)

Mixed tide; common in the Pacific.

d)

Neap tide; occurs during quarter moons.

35-43.

Answer the questions below after watching the video

35.

What global weather phenomenon is characterized by warmer ocean temperatures influencing weather patterns?

a)

La Niña

b)

El Niño

c)

Monsoon

d)

Polar Vortex

36.

What typically happens to trade winds during El Niño events?

a)

They remain constant

b)

They reverse direction

c)

They strengthen

d)

They weaken

37.

What is the primary direction of trade winds during normal conditions?

a)

East to west

b)

West to east

c)

South to north

d)

North to south

38.

Which region in the US typically experiences flooding during El Niño?

a)

Northeast

b)

Southern United States

c)

Midwest

d)

Rocky Mountains

39.

During which season are the climate impacts of El Niño most noticeable in North America?

a)

Spring

b)

Autumn

c)

Summer

d)

Winter

40.

What is a common effect of La Niña on the Pacific Northwest?

a)

Snowstorms

b)

Drought

c)

Heatwaves

d)

Heavy rains and flooding

41.

What is the effect of stronger trade winds associated with La Niña?

a)

No change in water upwelling

b)

Increased upwelling of cold water

c)

Decreased upwelling of cold water

d)

Increased upwelling of warm water

42.

What does La Niña typically cause in the southern US?

a)

Flooding

b)

Drought

c)

Snowstorms

d)

Cooler temperatures

43.

How do El Niño and La Niña impact global food production?

a)

They can disrupt production

b)

No impact

c)

Decrease production

d)

Increase production

44.
Cold ocean currents create ___________.
Warm ocean currents create ___________.
a)
Dry Conditions, Wet Conditions
b)
Wet Conditions, Dry Conditions
c)
High temperatures, Low Temperatures
d)
Low Temperatures, High Temperatures 
45.

Which is the #1 Agent of Erosion in NYS?

a)

Gravity

b)

Rivers

c)

Glaciers

d)

Wind

46.

Which is the force responsible for all of the Agents of Erosion?

a)

Gravity

b)

Rivers

c)

Glaciers

d)

Wind

47.

What is the shape of the particles that are found at the bottom of a cliff?

a)

Round

b)

Angular

c)

Square

d)

Triangular

48.

What is the shape of the particles found in a river?

a)

Round

b)

Angular

c)

Square

d)

Triangular

49.

What location would you be likely to see erosion by a Glacier?

a)

Low Latitude

b)

High Altitude

c)

Equator

d)

Florida

50.

What is the name of the elongated hills that are left behind by a glacier?

a)

Moraines

b)

Erratics

c)

Drumlins

d)

Kettle Lakes

51.

What location is Wind Erosion most dominant?

a)

Arctic

b)

Antarctic

c)

Oceans

d)

Deserts

52.

What is the most common depositional feature found in a desert?

a)

Drumlin

b)

Moraine

c)

Erratic

d)

Sand Dune

53.

What is the name of the triangular shaped mound of sediment that is deposited at the mouth of the river?

a)

Delta

b)

Beach

c)

Barrier Reef

d)

Sand Dune

54.

In a stream bed where does the greatest amount of erosion take place?

a)

Inside Curve

b)

Outside Curve

c)

Middle

55.
If the Earth did not rotate on its axis, there would be no
a)
Greenhouse effect
b)
Coriolis effect
c)
Global warming
d)
Convection
56.

This Image represents...

a)

Downwelling

b)

Upwelling

c)

Thermohaline circulation

d)

Rip Current

57.
Movements of ocean water in a continuous flow are called?
a)
ocean currents
b)
global winds
c)
air mass
d)
front
58.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
59.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
60.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the southern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter-clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
61.
What is represented at point 2?
a)
wave height
b)
wavelength
c)
crest
d)
trough
62.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both A and B
63.
Deep Ocean currents are a result of
a)
Global Wind Patterns
b)
Earth's Rotation
c)
Density
d)
All of the above
64.

______ causes surface currents.

a)

The Coriolis Effect

b)

gravity

c)

density differences

d)

wind

65.

The more scientific name of the Global Conveyor Belt is _____.

a)

halinethermal circulation

b)

thermohaline circulation

c)

thermodensity circulation

66.
As you go deeper in the ocean, the water is colder and less salty.
a)
True
b)
False
67.
The large, circular surface-current pattern found in each ocean.
a)
California Current
b)
Surface Current
c)
Gyre
d)
Global Conveyor Belt
68.

The __________ is a surface current that flows along the eastern US and brings warm water to Europe.

a)

California Current

b)

Gulf Current

c)

North American Gyre

d)

Arctic Current

69.
What causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to curve to the right?
a)
Earth's orbit around the Sun
b)
Earth's spinning on its axis
c)
Earth's magnetic field
d)
Earth's force of gravity
70.

Two types of ocean currents are

a)

local and global

b)

sea and land

c)

surface and deep

d)

warm and cold

71.

Temperature and salinity differences in ocean water cause:

a)

Mid-ocean ridges

b)

Deep Currents

c)

Surface Currents

d)

High tide and low tide

72.
What do ocean currents move around the world?
a)
Gases
b)
Nutrients
c)
Heat Energy
d)
All of these
73.
What is represented at point 3?
a)
wave height
b)
wavelength
c)
crest
d)
trough
74.
Water does not move, _____________ moves.
a)
Water
b)
Energy
c)
Waves
d)
Fish
75.

Which of the following is not a symbiotic relationship?

a)

Mutualistic

b)

Mantalism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitic

76.

Mutualism occurs when:

a)

two organisms in a relationship were neither benefit

b)

One is not affected, one benefits

c)

one benefits, one is negatively affected

d)

Both organisms benefit from each other

77.

Commensalism occurs when:

a)

two organisms in a relationship were neither benefit

b)

One is not affected, one benefits

c)

one benefits, one is negatively affected

d)

Both organisms benefit from each other

78.

Parasitism occurs when:

a)

two organisms in a relationship were neither benefit

b)

One is not affected, one benefits

c)

one benefits, one is negatively affected

d)

Both organisms benefit from each other

79.

Puffer fish love to eat snails - if puff mcguff was introduced to a river with lots of snails...

a)

he'd eat them all, he'd be invasive

b)

he'd eat one per hour

c)

he'd eat one snail per day

d)

he would be nice to the snails and not eat them

80.

A bar jack following a stingray and feeding on left over scraps...

a)

is a mutualistic relationship

b)

is a parasitic relationship

c)

is a commensalistic relationship

d)

it is not a relationship at all

81.

A decorator crab picks up anemones, and places them on its back and they feed when the crab feeds (he's a messy eater)

a)

it's both parasitic and commensalistic

b)

is a parasitic relationship

c)

is a commensalistic relationship

d)

is a mutualistic relationship

82.

An example of an inherited variation that could increase survival:

a)

highly advanced vision and hearing

b)

staying in the shad during low tide

c)

swimming together as a school

d)

feeding on prey at the oceans surface

83.

An example of an abiotic factor in the ocean is:

a)

amount of fish in the school

b)

temperature

c)

type of food preyed upon

d)

symbiotic relationships

84.

An example of a biotic factor in the ocean is:

a)

type of rocks / sand in the ecosystem

b)

temperature

c)

ocean currents

d)

symbiotic relationships

85.

Blue whale love to eat krill. What type of symbiotic relationship is this?

a)

It's NOT! It's predator-prey!

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitism

86.

The angelfish eat brine shrimp. What type of symbiotic relationship is this?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

It's NOT! It's predator-prey!

d)

Parasitism

87.

Reef cleaner gobies eat parasites off of groupers gills. What type of symbiotic relationship is this?

a)

Commensalistic

b)

Parasitic

c)

It's NOT! It's a predator-prey relationship!

d)

Mutualism

88.

The leafy sea dragon hides in seaweed since it looks like the seaweed. The seaweed is not harmed. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Parasitism

89.

Dolphins work together to successfully eat a shoal of sardines. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Parasitism

90.

Pilot fish follow oceanic white tip sharks and feed on small bits of food the shark leaves behind when it consumes its prey. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Parasitism

91.

A grouper hides inside of a barrel sponge to avoid detection by sharks. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Mutualistic

d)

Parasitistic

92.

The watchman goby and reef shrimp work together to survive on sandy areas near coral reefs. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Mutualistic

d)

Parasitistic

93.

Sea urchins eat algae that if not eaten would cover and kill corals. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Mutualistic

d)

Parasitistic

94.

The cookie cutter shark jams its sharp teeth into the sides of whales, twists, then swims off with a cook-bite of flesh from the whale. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Mutualistic

d)

Parasitistic

95.

Parasitic relationships are different from predator-prey since:

a)

They are the same thing, duh?

b)

Parasitic relationships are more common

c)

The parasite does not always kill the host, it uses it

d)

Predatory-prey relationships are long-term, while parasitic is short-term

96.

An isopod attaches with hooks to a fishes tongue and steals nutrients from the fishes food. This type of relationship is called:

a)

Predator-prey

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Mutualistic

d)

Parasitistic

97.

Invasive species:

a)

have no natural predators in the ecosystem

b)

are parasites

c)

are beneficial to biodiversity

d)

are typically benthic but not sessile

98.

Invasive species have this impact on biodiversity of an ecosystem:

a)

increase it

b)

decrease it

c)

have no impact

99.

Another word for a plant that makes its own food using energy from sunlight…

a)

photosynthesis

b)

producer

c)

heterotroph

d)

carnivore

e)

herbivore

100.

Where does the energy start for all living things & in this food chain?

a)

Plant

b)

Sun

c)

Deer

d)

Wolf

101.
An organism that needs to eat other organisms to obtain energy is known as a:
a)
Autotroph
b)
Producer
c)
Consumer
d)
Mutualist
102.

What is the definition of - Herbivore

a)

An organism that obtains energy by eating both plants and animals

b)

The rate at which organic matter is created by producers in an ecosystem

c)

An organism that obtains energy by eating only plants

d)

An organism that obtains energy by eating only animals

103.

What is the definition of - Carnivore

a)

An organism that obtains energy by eating both plants and animals

b)

An organism that feeds on plant and animal remains and other dead matter

c)

An organism that obtains energy by eating only plants

d)

An organism that obtains energy by eating only animals

104.

What is the definition of - Omnivore

a)

An organism that obtains energy by eating both plants and animals

b)

An organism that feeds on plant and animal remains and other dead matter

c)

An organism that obtains energy by eating only plants

d)

Series of steps in an ecosystem in which organisms transfer energy by eating and being eaten.

105.

What is the definition of - Decomposer

a)

An organism that obtains energy by eating both plants and animals

b)

An organism that obtains energy by eating only plants

c)

An organism that breaks down the remains of dead organisms and returns the nutrients back into the soil

d)

Series of steps in an ecosystem in which organisms transfer energy by eating and being eaten.

106.
Organisms that relies on other organisms for food; consumer
a)
herbivore
b)
decomposer
c)
heterotroph
d)
species
107.

What do fungi, mushrooms & bacteria do to dead plants and animals?

a)

Leave them there

b)

Decompose them

c)

Wait for other animals to eat them

d)

Move away

108.

What is a scavenger?

a)

A consumer that eats dead animals that have already been killed by other animals; does not recycle nutrients

b)

A carnivore that eats what it kills

c)

Eats plants and meat

d)

Eats plants only

109.

Which is an example of a scavenger?

a)

Mushroom

b)

Fungi

c)

Vulture

d)

Pelican

110.

When the ringed seal is feeding on krill (zooplankton), it is a __________ consumer.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

111.

How can the orca be a 5th level consumer?

a)

phytoplankton --> krill --> ringed seal --> polar bear--> orca

b)

phytoplankton --> krill --> arctic cod --> orca

c)

phytoplankton --> krill --> arctic cod --> ringed seal --> polar bear--> orca

d)

phytoplankton --> krill --> arctic cod --> polar bear--> orca

112.

Which organism can be considered an herbivore?

a)

phytoplankton

b)

zooplankton

c)

arctic cod

d)

ringed seal

113.

Which organisms in the food web compete with each other for food sources?

a)

krill and arctic cod

b)

polar bear and orca

c)

krill and ringed seal

d)

phytoplankton and zooplankton

114.
What does a food chain contain? Choose ALL correct answers.
a)
consumer
b)
producer
c)
decomposer
d)
all of the above
115.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
116.
The largest group of organisms found in a food web would be:
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Producers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
117.
What is a producer? 
a)
Organism that creates their own food.
b)
Organism that eat other organisms for energy
c)
Organism that eat other dead organisms
118.
What is a consumer? 
a)
Organism that creates their own food.
b)
Organism that eat other organisms for energy
c)
Organism that eat other dead organisms
119.
What do Omnivores eat? 
a)
Plants ONLY 
b)
Animals ONLY
c)
Plants AND Animals
120.
What do Herbivores eat? 
a)
Plants ONLY 
b)
Animals ONLY
c)
Plants AND Animals
121.
What do Carnivores eat? 
a)
Plants ONLY 
b)
Animals ONLY
c)
Plants AND Animals
122.
Who does the owl get energy from? 
a)
Grass
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Mouse
d)
Ow
123.
Who is the producer in this food chain? 
a)
Grass
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Mouse
d)
Ow
124.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
125.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
126.
What does a Primary Consumer eat?
a)
Tertiary Consumers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Producers
127.
In a food web, arrows point at:
a)
who gets energy.
b)
who gets eaten.
128.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a ecosystem.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
129.
Which of the following is a herbivore?
a)
cricket
b)
frog
c)
hawk
d)
shrew
130.
Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Lilypad
d)
Mouse
131.
In this energy pyramid, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
132.
All food webs and food chains begin with _________________.
a)
primary consumer
b)
producers
c)
secondary consumers
d)
predators
133.
This diagram shows the amount of energy that moves from one feeding level to another.
a)
Energy Pyramid
b)
Food Web
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Food Chain
134.
The diagram represents a pyramid of energy in an ecosystem.  Which level would most likely contain organisms that do photosynthesis?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
135.
A tertiary consumer has to be which type?
a)
Carnivore.
b)
Decomposer.
c)
Producer.
d)
Herbivore.
136.
The number of organisms _________ with each successive (higher) trophic level. 
a)
increases
b)
decreases
137.
What organisms are at the bottom of an energy pyramid?
a)
Producer
b)
Consumer
c)
Decomposer
d)
Scavenger
138.
How much energy is passed on to each trophic level in an energy pyramid?
a)
10%
b)
90%
c)
50%
d)
80%
139.
Which organisms have the most available energy in an energy pyramid?
a)
Producer
b)
Consumer
c)
Decomposer
d)
Scavenger
140.

If the producer level starts with 8500 calories, how many would make it to the tertiary level?

a)

850 calories

b)

85 calories

c)

8.5 calories

d)

.85 calories

141.

In this food pyramid, the phytoplankton start with 500 calories of energy. How many calories make it to the shark?

a)

50 calories

b)

5 calories

c)

.5 calories

d)

.05 calories

142.

Tertiary consumers end with 10 calories of energy. How many calories did the producers begin with?

a)

100,000 calories

b)

10,000 calories

c)

1,000 calories

d)

100 calories

143.

The primary consumer receives 400 KJ of energy from the producer. How much energy will the secondary consumer receive?

a)

40 KJ

b)

4000 KJ

c)

400 KJ

d)

4 KJ

144.

The primary consumer receives 400 KJ of energy from the producer. How much energy will the tertiary consumer receive?

a)

40 KJ

b)

4000 KJ

c)

400 KJ

d)

4 KJ

145.

If there is 1000 Kcal available at the producers level, how much energy is available in the primary consumer level?

a)

100 Kcal

b)

10 Kcal

c)

1 Kcal

d)

1000 Kcal

146.

If a secondary consumer receives 145 calories, how much energy was available at the producer level?

a)

145 calories

b)

1,450 calories

c)

14,500 calories

d)

145,000 calories