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Worksheets

Pre AICE Sem 1 Review HCPS

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following apparatus is used to measure temperature in a laboratory?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Burette

c)

Measuring cylinder

d)

Gas syringe

2.

Which apparatus would you use to accurately measure the volume of a liquid?

a)

Volumetric pipette

b)

Stop-watch

c)

Thermometer

d)

Balance

3.

What is the main difference between physical and chemical changes?

a)

Physical changes do not alter the chemical composition, while chemical changes do.

b)

Physical changes always produce heat, while chemical changes do not.

c)

Chemical changes are always reversible, while physical changes are not.

d)

Physical changes only occur at high temperatures.

4.

Which of the following best describes a compound?

a)

A substance made of two or more elements chemically combined

b)

A mixture of two or more substances physically combined

c)

A pure element in its natural state

d)

A solution of gases

5.

Which method would you use to separate a mixture of soluble coloured substances?

a)

Chromatography

b)

Filtration

c)

Simple distillation

d)

Crystallization

6.

In paper chromatography, what does the Rf value represent?

a)

The ratio of the distance travelled by the substance to the distance travelled by the solvent

b)

The time taken for the solvent to evaporate

c)

The mass of the substance separated

d)

The temperature at which separation occurs

7.

Which separation technique is most suitable for obtaining pure water from salt water?

a)

Simple distillation

b)

Filtration

c)

Chromatography

d)

Crystallization

8.

A student wants to separate sand from a mixture of sand and water. Which method should they use?

a)

Filtration

b)

Chromatography

c)

Fractional distillation

d)

Crystallization

9.

Why is it important to use a suitable solvent in paper chromatography?

a)

To ensure the substances dissolve and move up the paper for separation

b)

To increase the temperature of the experiment

c)

To measure the mass of the substances

d)

To prevent evaporation of the solvent

10.

Which of the following is NOT an apparatus used for measuring volume?

a)

Stop-watch

b)

Volumetric pipette

c)

Measuring cylinder

d)

Burette

11.

Which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Electrons and neutrons

b)

Protons and neutrons

c)

Protons and electrons

d)

Neutrons and photons

12.

What is the relative charge of a proton?

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

+2

13.

How is the atomic number of an element defined?

a)

The total number of neutrons in the nucleus

b)

The total number of electrons in the atom

c)

The number of protons in the nucleus

d)

The sum of protons and neutrons

14.

What does the mass number (nucleon number) of an atom represent?

a)

The number of electrons in the atom

b)

The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

c)

The number of neutrons only

d)

The number of protons only

15.

Which electron configuration corresponds to an element with proton number 11?

a)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1

b)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

c)

1s2, 2s2, 3s1

d)

[Ne] 3s1

16.

Group VIII noble gases have which of the following characteristics?

a)

One electron in their outer shell

b)

A full outer shell

c)

Two electrons in their outer shell

d)

No electrons in their outer shell

17.

How is the number of occupied electron shells in an atom related to its position in the periodic table?

a)

It is equal to the group number

b)

It is equal to the atomic number

c)

It is equal to the period number

d)

It is equal to the mass number

18.

What is an isotope?

a)

An atom with a different number of electrons

b)

An atom with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons

c)

An atom with a different number of protons

d)

An atom with the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons

19.

Why do isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties?

a)

Because they have different numbers of neutrons

b)

Because they have the same number of electrons and the same electronic configuration

c)

Because they have different numbers of protons

d)

Because they have different atomic masses

20.

Which cation can be identified using a flame test?

a)

Chloride, Cl-

b)

Lithium, Li+

c)

Sulfate, SO42−SO4^{2-}

d)

Nitrate, NO3-

21.

A student is given two samples of the same element. One sample has a mass number of 35 and the other has a mass number of 37. What can the student conclude about these samples?

a)

They are different elements.

b)

They are isotopes of the same element.

c)

They have different numbers of protons.

d)

They have different chemical properties.

22.

If an element is in Group V of the periodic table, how many outer shell electrons does it have?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

7

d)

8

23.

A scientist calculates the relative atomic mass of an element using the masses and abundances of its isotopes. Which skill is the scientist applying?

a)

Recalling the definition of atomic number

b)

Interpreting and using symbols for atoms

c)

Calculating using data and evidence

d)

Identifying cations using flame tests

24.

Which of the following ions can be identified using a flame test?

a)

Sodium, Na+

b)

Chloride, Cl-

c)

Sulfate, SO42−SO4^{2-}

d)

Nitrate, NO3-

25.

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of elements in the Periodic Table?

a)

Elements are arranged in alphabetical order.

b)

Elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic mass.

c)

Elements are arranged in periods and groups in order of increasing proton number/atomic number.

d)

Elements are arranged based on their color.

26.

What general trend is observed in Group I alkali metals as you move down the group?

a)

Decreasing density

b)

Decreasing reactivity

c)

Decreasing melting point

d)

Decreasing atomic number

27.

Which of the following is a property of transition elements?

a)

They are always colorless.

b)

They have low melting points.

c)

They often act as catalysts in compounds.

d)

They are always gases at room temperature.

28.

Which statement correctly describes the change in character across a period in the Periodic Table?

a)

Elements change from non-metallic to metallic character.

b)

Elements change from metallic to non-metallic character.

c)

Elements remain the same throughout the period.

d)

Elements become less reactive.

29.

Which of the following best describes Group VII noble gases?

a)

Highly reactive, diatomic gases

b)

Unreactive, monatomic gases

c)

Reactive, colored solids

d)

Unreactive, diatomic gases

30.

Which of the following is the correct appearance of chlorine at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.)?

a)

A grey-black solid

b)

A red-brown liquid

c)

A pale yellow-green gas

d)

A colorless gas

31.

What is the term for positive ions?

a)

Anions

b)

Cations

c)

Neutrons

d)

Protons

32.

Given information about elements in a group, what can you predict using the Periodic Table?

a)

The boiling point of water

b)

The properties of other elements in the group

c)

The number of neutrons in an atom

d)

The color of all metals

33.

Which of the following is NOT a general trend observed in Group VII halogens as you go down the group?

a)

Increasing density

b)

Decreasing reactivity

c)

Increasing reactivity

d)

Change in physical state

34.

Transition elements can have ions with variable oxidation numbers. Which of the following is an example?

a)

Sodium (Na+)

b)

Iron(II) and iron(III)

c)

Chloride (Cl-)

d)

Potassium (K+)

35.

Which of the following best describes an ionic bond?

a)

A strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions

b)

A sharing of electrons between two atoms

c)

A weak force between molecules

d)

A metallic attraction between atoms

36.

What is a property of ionic compounds?

a)

High melting points and boiling points

b)

Low melting points and boiling points

c)

High electrical conductivity when solid

d)

Poor electrical conductivity when aqueous

37.

Describe the electrical conductivity of ionic compounds when they are solid.

a)

Poor electrical conductivity

b)

Good electrical conductivity

c)

Excellent electrical conductivity

d)

Moderate electrical conductivity

38.

What is the arrangement in the giant lattice structure of ionic compounds?

a)

Regular arrangement of alternating positive and negative ions

b)

Random arrangement of atoms

c)

Layers of covalent bonds

d)

Sea of delocalized electrons

39.

Which statement best describes a covalent bond?

a)

A pair of electrons is shared between two atoms leading to noble gas electronic configurations

b)

A strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions

c)

A force between metal atoms

d)

A weak attraction between molecules

40.

Which of the following is a property of simple molecular compounds?

a)

Low melting points and boiling points

b)

High melting points and boiling points

c)

Good electrical conductivity

d)

Malleability and ductility

41.

Why do simple molecular compounds have low melting and boiling points?

a)

Due to weak intermolecular forces

b)

Due to strong ionic bonds

c)

Due to metallic bonding

d)

Due to giant covalent structures

42.

What is a use of graphite based on its structure?

a)

As a lubricant and as an electrode

b)

In cutting tools

c)

As a food additive

d)

As a building material

43.

Diamond is commonly used in which application due to its structure?

a)

Cutting tools

b)

Lubricants

c)

Electrodes

d)

Insulation

44.

What is metallic bonding?

a)

Electrostatic attraction between positive ions in a giant metallic lattice and a ‘sea’ of delocalized electrons

b)

Sharing of electrons between two atoms

c)

Attraction between molecules

d)

Electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions

45.

Which property is associated with metals due to their structure and bonding?

a)

Good electrical conductivity

b)

Poor electrical conductivity

c)

Low melting points

d)

Brittle nature

46.

What property of metals allows them to be shaped without breaking?

a)

Malleability and ductility

b)

High melting points

c)

Poor electrical conductivity

d)

Weak intermolecular forces

47.

What does the molecular formula of a compound represent?

a)

The number and type of different atoms in one molecule.

b)

The arrangement of atoms in a crystal lattice.

c)

The total mass of the compound.

d)

The color and state of the compound.

48.

How is the empirical formula of a compound defined?

a)

As the simplest whole number ratio of the different atoms or ions in a compound.

b)

As the total number of atoms in a molecule.

c)

As the arrangement of atoms in a molecule.

d)

As the number of electrons in a compound.

49.

Which of the following is required to deduce the formula of an ionic compound?

a)

The relative numbers of the ions present in a model or diagrammatic representation, or the charges on the ions.

b)

The melting point of the compound.

c)

The color of the compound.

d)

The boiling point of the compound.

50.

If you were given a diagram showing the relative numbers of atoms in a simple compound, what can you deduce from it?

a)

The formula of the compound.

b)

The boiling point of the compound.

c)

The color of the compound.

d)

The density of the compound.

51.

If you are given the charges on the ions in an ionic compound, what can you determine?

a)

The formula of the ionic compound.

b)

The melting point of the compound.

c)

The solubility of the compound.

d)

The color of the compound.

52.

Which of the following is a distinguishing property of solids, liquids, and gases?

a)

Their color

b)

Their particle separation, arrangement, and motion

c)

Their taste

d)

Their electrical charge

53.

What happens to a substance during boiling?

a)

It turns from a gas to a solid

b)

It turns from a liquid to a gas

c)

It turns from a solid to a liquid

d)

It turns from a gas to a liquid

54.

How does increasing temperature generally affect the volume of a gas, according to kinetic particle theory?

a)

The volume decreases

b)

The volume remains the same

c)

The volume increases

d)

The volume turns into a solid

55.

Which of the following is NOT a type of chemical reaction mentioned in the material?

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Redox

56.

What is the purpose of constructing word equations and symbol equations in chemistry?

a)

To show how reactants form products, including state symbols

b)

To measure temperature changes

c)

To identify colors of chemicals

d)

To calculate electrical conductivity

57.

Relative atomic mass is described as:

a)

The sum of all atomic numbers in a molecule

b)

The average mass of the isotopes of an element

c)

The total number of electrons in an atom

d)

The mass of a single proton

58.

Which property is common to metals but not to non-metals?

a)

High electrical conductivity

b)

Low melting points

c)

Poor thermal conductivity

d)

Brittle structure

59.

If you are given a chemical reaction and its symbol equation, what skill is required to deduce the symbol equation with state symbols for the reaction?

a)

Recall

b)

Application of concepts

c)

Guessing

d)

Memorization only

60.

Why is relative formula mass (Mr) used for ionic compounds?

a)

Because ionic compounds have no mass

b)

Because ionic compounds are made of molecules

c)

Because ionic compounds consist of ions, not discrete molecules

d)

Because ionic compounds are always gases

61.

A student is given the relative atomic masses of elements in a compound. What should they do to calculate the relative molecular mass (Mr)?

a)

Add up the relative atomic masses of all atoms in the molecule

b)

Multiply the atomic number by the mass number

c)

Subtract the smallest atomic mass from the largest

d)

Divide the total mass by the number of atoms

62.

Which property makes aluminum suitable for use in the manufacture of aircraft?

a)

High density

b)

Low density

c)

Poor electrical conductivity

d)

High reactivity

63.

Brass is an alloy made from which two metals?

a)

Iron and carbon

b)

Copper and zinc

c)

Iron and nickel

d)

Zinc and silver

64.

Why are alloys generally harder and stronger than pure metals?

a)

Because alloys are always lighter

b)

Because different sized atoms in alloys prevent layers from sliding easily

c)

Because alloys are always magnetic

d)

Because alloys contain only one type of atom

65.

Which metal is commonly used in food containers due to its resistance to corrosion?

a)

Iron

b)

Copper

c)

Aluminum

d)

Zinc

66.

Arrange the following metals in order of reactivity from most reactive to least reactive: potassium, copper, gold, magnesium.

a)

Gold, copper, magnesium, potassium

b)

Potassium, magnesium, copper, gold

c)

Magnesium, potassium, copper, gold

d)

Copper, gold, potassium, magnesium

67.

Which of the following is a common barrier method to prevent rusting?

a)

Heating

b)

Painting

c)

Freezing

d)

Electrolysis

68.

How does galvanizing with zinc protect iron from rusting?

a)

By making iron heavier

b)

By acting as a sacrificial metal that corrodes instead of iron

c)

By making iron magnetic

d)

By increasing the iron’s density

69.

Which reaction occurs in the blast furnace to extract iron from hematite?

a)

Reduction of iron(III) oxide by carbon monoxide

b)

Oxidation of iron by oxygen

c)

Electrolysis of iron ore

d)

Dissolving iron ore in water

70.

Explain, using evidence from the reactivity series, why magnesium reacts with steam but not with cold water.

a)

Magnesium is less reactive than potassium and sodium, so it needs more energy to react

b)

Magnesium is more reactive than gold, so it reacts with everything

c)

Magnesium is a non-metal and does not react with water

d)

Magnesium reacts with cold water but not with steam

71.

Why does aluminum appear unreactive despite being high in the reactivity series?

a)

It is always covered by a protective oxide layer

b)

It is a non-metal

c)

It is very dense

d)

It is magnetic

72.

Which of the following is the main ore of aluminum?

a)

Hematite

b)

Bauxite

c)

Galena

d)

Magnetite

73.

Which of the following is a correct symbol equation for the extraction of iron from hematite?

a)

Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2

b)

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

c)

C + O2 → CO2

d)

CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3

74.

What is the role of cryolite in the extraction of aluminum from purified bauxite?

a)

Acts as a reducing agent

b)

Lowers the melting point of aluminum oxide

c)

Provides oxygen for the reaction

d)

Acts as a catalyst

75.

Why do the carbon anodes need to be regularly replaced during the extraction of aluminum?

a)

They evaporate during the process

b)

They react with oxygen and get consumed

c)

They dissolve in the electrolyte

d)

They become magnetic

76.

Which chemical is used to test for the presence of water?

a)

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

Potassium iodide

d)

Silver nitrate

77.

What is one reason distilled water is used in practical chemistry rather than tap water?

a)

Distilled water is cheaper

b)

Distilled water contains fewer chemical impurities

c)

Distilled water tastes better

d)

Distilled water is more acidic

78.

Which of the following substances found in natural water sources is beneficial for aquatic life?

a)

Dissolved oxygen

b)

Plastics

c)

Nitrates from fertilizers

d)

Sewage

79.

Which of the following substances in water is potentially harmful to aquatic life?

a)

Dissolved oxygen

b)

Some metal compounds

c)

Nitrates and phosphates

d)

Essential minerals

80.

Which process is used to remove solids from domestic water supply?

a)

Chlorination

b)

Sedimentation and filtration

c)

Boiling

d)

Distillation

81.

What is the approximate composition of clean, dry air by volume?

a)

50% nitrogen, 30% oxygen, 20% other gases

b)

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, remainder noble gases and carbon dioxide

c)

60% oxygen, 30% nitrogen, 10% carbon dioxide

d)

90% nitrogen, 5% oxygen, 5% other gases

82.

What is the main source of carbon dioxide as an air pollutant?

a)

Photosynthesis in plants

b)

Complete combustion of carbon-containing fuels

c)

Evaporation of water

d)

Decomposition of plastics

83.

Which of the following is a source of methane as an air pollutant?

a)

From the decomposition of vegetation and waste gases from digestion in animals

b)

From the combustion of fossil fuels containing sulfur compounds

c)

From the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels

d)

From car engines

84.

What is a major adverse effect of carbon monoxide as an air pollutant?

a)

Toxic gas

b)

Acid rain

c)

Photochemical smog

d)

Global warming

85.

Which strategy can help reduce climate change?

a)

Planting trees

b)

Increasing livestock farming

c)

Burning more fossil fuels

d)

Using high-sulfur fuels

86.

What is the word equation for photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide + water -> glucose + oxygen

b)

Oxygen + glucose -> carbon dioxide + water

c)

Carbon dioxide + oxygen -> glucose + water

d)

Glucose + water -> carbon dioxide + oxygen

87.

How do greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide and methane contribute to global warming?

a)

By absorbing, reflecting, and emitting thermal energy

b)

By increasing acid rain

c)

By causing photochemical smog

d)

By directly producing oxygen

88.

Which of the following is a method to reduce acid rain?

a)

Use of catalytic converters in vehicles

b)

Increasing the use of high-sulfur fuels

c)

Planting more crops

d)

Increasing livestock farming

89.

Describe the process of photosynthesis.

a)

It is the reaction between carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen in the presence of chlorophyll and using energy from light.

b)

It is the breakdown of glucose to produce energy.

c)

It is the absorption of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide.

d)

It is the reaction of nitrogen and oxygen to form oxides of nitrogen.

90.

What is the symbol equation for photosynthesis?

a)

6CO2 + 6H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6O2 -> C6H12O6 + 6H2O

d)

6H2O + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + C6H12O6

91.

How do oxides of nitrogen form in car engines?

a)

By the reaction of carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxide

b)

By the reaction of carbon dioxide and water

c)

By the reaction of methane and oxygen

d)

By the reaction of sulfur dioxide and oxygen

92.

Which pollutant is responsible for acid rain?

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Methane

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Glucose

93.

Calculate the molar mass of Ba(C2H3O2)2

a)

255.3 g/mol

b)

237.3 g/mol

c)

228.3 g/mol

d)

196.3 g/mol

94.

What is the molar mass of the diatomic element nitrogen?

a)

7 g/mol

b)

14 g/mol

c)

28 g/mol

95.

Calculate the molar mass of NH4NO2

a)

50 g/mol

b)

60 g/mol

c)

64 g/mol

d)

78 g/mol

96.
Two or more substances that are mixed together but not chemically combined is a ___
a)
compound
b)
mixture
c)
keratin
d)
chromatography
97.
Two or more substances that are chemically combined is a ___
a)
compound
b)
mixture
c)
solvent
d)
solute
98.

Ink can be separated by a method of -----------------------------------------------

a)

distillation

b)

filtration

c)

chromatography

d)

sedimentation

99.
A student extracts the colour from some green smarties and uses paper chromatography to separate components colours. She finds blue has a Rf =0.38 and yellow Rf =0.75 this suggests 
a)
the yellow is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is less solublein the mobile phase.
b)
the yellow is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is more soluble in the mobile phase.
c)
the blue is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is less solublein the mobile phase.
d)
the blue is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is less solublein the mobile phase.
100.
The Rf value  for the blue component is 
a)
0.3
b)
0.7
c)
10
d)
3
101.
The electrons that are on the outer most region of the atom
a)
Shell Electrons
b)
Violent Electrons
c)
Valence Electrons
102.
The smallest possible unit matter can be divided into while still maintaining its properties.
a)
Proton
b)
Atom
c)
Element
103.
What does the C represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
104.
Electric charges that are alike _______ each other.
a)
Attract
b)
Repel
105.
If a substance has a higher number of electrons than protons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?
a)
A positive charge.
b)
A negative charge.
c)
A neutral charge
d)
No charge at all
106.

An element has the following configuration: 1s22s22p5


How many total electrons does this element have?

a)

5

b)

9

c)

14

d)

20

107.

An element has three isotopes. Given the abundances and relative masses, calculate the average atomic mass and determine (from the periodic table) which element it is.


Abundances | Relative masses

0.005% | 234.04 amu

0.720% | 235.04 amu

99.275% | 238.05 amu

a)

Uranium (#92, Atomic Mass: 238.03 amu)

b)

Fluorine (#9, Atomic Mass: 19.00 amu)

c)

Mercury (#89, Atomic Mass: 200.59 amu)

d)

Polonium (#84 209 amu)

108.

Rubidium has two naturally occurring isotopes, 85Rb (relative mass 84.9118 amu) and 87Rb (relative mass 86.9092 amu). The abundance of 87Rb is 27.8%, If rubidium has an average atomic mass of 85.47 amu, what is the % abundance of 85Rb (in percent)?

a)

27.9%

b)

72.1%

c)

74.63%

d)

34.29%

109.

How many neutrons are in an atom of carbon-14?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

10

d)

14

110.

How many protons does this isotope of titanium have?

a)

22

b)

26

c)

48

d)

70

111.
The atom with the largest atomic radius in Group 18 is - 
a)
Ar
b)
He
c)
Kr
d)
Rn
112.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
113.

Which of the following halogens has the greatest electronegativity?

a)

Chlorine (Cl)

b)

Bromine (Br)

c)

Iodine (I)

d)

Astatine (At)

114.

What is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom?

a)

atomic energy

b)

ionization energy

c)

ionic energy

d)

electron energy

115.

What is a vertical (up and down) column in the periodic table?

a)

group or family

b)

period

c)

periodic law

d)

octet rule

116.
The atom with the largest atomic radius in Group 18 is - 
a)
Ar
b)
He
c)
Kr
d)
Rn
117.

The name of FeCl₂ is

a)

iron chloride

b)

iron (II) chloride

c)

iron (I) chloride

d)

iron dichloride

118.

Which of these combinations is an ionic compound made of?

a)

Metal and Metal

b)

Nonmetal and Nonmetal

c)

Metal and Nonmetal

d)

Cation and Cation

119.

When naming ionic compounds with transition metals you need to include roman numerals to show the _____ of the metal..

a)

atomic number

b)

mass number

c)

charge

d)

ionization energy

120.

When naming a compound, which of these is written first?

a)

Metal

b)

Nonmetal

c)

Anion

d)

Cation

121.

The name of the compound Ca3(PO4)2

a)

calcium phosphate

b)

tricalcium diphosphate

c)

calcium phosphorus oxide

d)

calcium phosphide

122.
MgS 
a)
Magnesium sulfide
b)
Monomagnesium monosulfide
c)
Magnesium monosulfide
123.
What is the name of N2O3
a)
Nitrogen trioxide
b)
Dinitrogen oxide
c)
Dinitrogen trioxide
d)
Nitrogen oxide
124.
What is the chemical formula for Tetrasulfur pentoxide?
a)
SO
b)
S4O
c)
S4O5
d)
S5O4
125.
What is the formula for Hexaboron Monosilicide
a)
B6Si
b)
BSi
c)
BSi6
d)
B6Si6
126.
What is the OFFICIAL name for H2O
a)
Hydrogen Oxide
b)
Oxygen Dinitride
c)
Agua
d)
Dihydrogen Monoxide
127.

Which following is a covalent compound?

a)
SO2
b)
K2O
c)
CaO
d)
BeO
128.

Which of the following would have 2 valence electrons

a)

Alkali metals

b)

Alkaline earth metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Noble Gasses

129.

Correct diagram for HF

a)
b)
c)
d)
130.
Nonmetals form ____ by ____ electrons.
a)
Cations, gaining
b)
Cations, losing
c)
Anions, gaining
d)
Anions, losing
131.

Which statements compare ionic compounds and covalent compounds correctly?

a)

ionic compounds are made up of ions while covalent compounds are made up of molecules

b)

ionic compounds contains strong intermolecular forces while covalent compounds contain weak electrostatic forces.

c)

ionic compounds conducts electricity when solid state while covalent compounds cannot conduct electricity.

d)

ionic compounds transfer electrons while covalent compounds share electrons.

132.
Magnesium bromide is an ionic compound with the chemical formula MgBr₂.  What does the "2" tell you?
a)
There are 2 bromide ions for every magnesium ion
b)
Bromide has a 2- charge
c)
Bromide has a 2+ charge
d)
There are 2 magnesium ions to every bromide ion
133.

Where are the transition metals located on the periodic table?

a)

blue square

b)

red square

c)

yellow square

134.
2 Na + Cl₂ →       2 NaCl
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Synthesis
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Decomposition
135.

C7H14 + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O

a)

Decomposition

b)

Single Replacement

c)

Double Replacement

d)

Combustion

e)

Neutralization

136.
2Pb(NO3)2 →  2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
a)
Decomposition
b)
Double Replacement
c)
Neutralization
d)
Synthesis
137.
2H2 + O2 →  2H2O 
a)
Single Replacement
b)
Decomposition
c)
Combustion
d)
Synthesis
138.
BaCl2 + Na2SO4 →  BaSO4 + 2NaCl
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Neutralization
c)
Decomposition
d)
Single Replacement
139.
2 KClO3 ------>  2 KCl  +  3 O2 
a)
Single Replacement
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Decomposition
140.

Cl2 + 2 SnI4 → I2 + SnCl4

a)

Single Replacement

b)

Decomposition

c)

Double Replacement

d)

Synthesis

e)

Combustion

141.

The metal ions in two compounds switch.

a)

Synthesis

b)

Combustion

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

142.
Always starts with a Hydrocarbon that reacts with oxygen and produces carbon dioxide and water. 
a)
Decomposition
b)
Synthesis
c)
Combustion
d)
Single Replacement
143.

The Law of Conservation of Mass states that the total mass of the reactants should be

a)

More than the mass of the products

b)

Equal to the mass of the products

c)

Ignored during the reaction

d)

Less than the mass of the products

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