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Martha Rogers: Unitary Human Beings Theory

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best reflects the theory’s view of nursing and the unitary human being?

a)

Nursing measures isolated body parts only

b)

Nursing is both science and art of wholeness

c)

Nursing focuses on discrete disease entities

d)

Nursing separates person from environment

2.

In Rogers’ model, what are energy fields considered to be?

a)

Temporary physiological byproducts

b)

Fundamental unit of living and nonliving

c)

Random environmental fluctuations

d)

Measurable anatomical structures

3.

Which principle explains that human and environmental fields are in mutual continuous process?

a)

Integrality

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Dualism

d)

Mechanism

4.

Which description aligns with pandimensionality in Rogers’ theory?

a)

Finite three-dimensional spatial domain

b)

Infinite domain without limit

c)

Linear time-bound continuum only

d)

Two-dimensional energy plane

5.

Which option best captures pattern in the human field?

a)

Static characteristics fixed across time

b)

Unique wave-like manifestation

c)

Discrete symptoms independent of context

d)

Uniform rhythms identical in all people

6.

What does helicy primarily describe in homeodynamic principles?

a)

Predictable linear change

b)

Continuous nonlinear evolution

c)

Periodic return to baseline

d)

Reversible cycles of equilibrium

7.

Which example illustrates resonance within human-environmental energy fields?

a)

Stable heart rate regardless of stimuli

b)

Shift from lower to higher frequency patterns

c)

Constant hormonal levels across contexts

d)

Complete absence of emotional variability

8.

Which statement reflects wholeness as a basic assumption?

a)

Person equals sum of parts

b)

Person is more than sum of parts

c)

Environment defines the person entirely

d)

Parts determine identity exclusively

9.

According to the open systems view, how do human and environmental fields interact?

a)

They constantly exchange energy and information

b)

They remain isolated to preserve integrity

c)

They are integral and affect each other’s functioning

d)

They interact only during illness

10.

Which nursing intervention aligns with Rogers’ homeodynamics?

a)

Group therapy acknowledging unique fields

b)

Music therapy to modulate resonance

c)

Strict symptom checklists only

d)

Healing garden as environmental field

11.

Which statement best captures the core premise of Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory?

a)

People inherently depend on nurses for daily care

b)

Patients have innate ability and responsibility for self-care

c)

Illness always prevents any form of self-care actions

d)

Nursing is limited to physical task performance only

12.

Which pair correctly matches one of Orem’s four related theories to its focus?

a)

Theory of self-care — how families provide dependent-care

b)

Theory of nursing systems — why people care for themselves

c)

Theory of dependent-care — care by family or friends

d)

Theory of self-care deficit — relationships needed for nursing

13.

Self-care is defined as actions maturing and mature persons initiate and perform to maintain which outcomes?

a)

Life maintenance

b)

Healthful functioning

c)

Continuing personal development

d)

Professional competence

14.

Dependent-care is best described as care provided when a person is unable to perform self-care needed for which outcomes?

a)

Maintaining life

b)

Healthful functioning

c)

Continuing personal development

d)

Achieving employment

15.

Which items are universal self-care requisites?

a)

Air

b)

Food

c)

Water

d)

Elimination processes

16.

Which are additional universal self-care requisites listed in the material?

a)

Balance activity and rest

b)

Balance solitude and social interaction

c)

Prevention of hazards to life

d)

Promotion of functioning and development

17.

Developmental self-care requisites primarily concern which aim?

a)

Curing disease rapidly

b)

Supporting growth and development throughout life

c)

Maximizing athletic performance during youth

d)

Preventing all psychological stressors

18.

Which set belongs to the developmental self-care requisites description sets?

a)

Provision of conditions that promote development

b)

Engagement in self-development

c)

Overcoming effects of adverse life situations

d)

Elimination of all medical diagnoses

19.

Health deviation self-care requisites exist for which group?

a)

Persons who are healthy and undiagnosed

b)

Persons who are ill, injured, or have disorders

c)

Persons with only social disadvantages

d)

Persons requiring solely psychological counseling

20.

Therapeutic self-care demand consists of what key element?

a)

Single emergency action at the time of illness

b)

Summation of care measures over specific times

c)

Occasional advice from a caregiver only

d)

Automatic self-care fulfilled by basic conditioning factors

21.

Which statement about self-care agency is accurate?

a)

It is the caregiver’s acquired ability to meet dependent needs

b)

It is the human’s power to engage in self-care affected by conditioning factors

c)

It is solely determined by health system factors and resources

d)

It is only present in mature adults without limitations

22.

Which example illustrates self-care deficit?

a)

Individual meets all self-care without support

b)

Individual cannot meet self-care due to physical or mental limitations

c)

Caregiver meets dependent’s needs fully without training

d)

Family encourages wellness through social interaction

23.

Nursing agency comprises which capabilities?

a)

Developed capabilities of persons educated as nurses

b)

Helping persons meet therapeutic self-care demands

c)

Regulating development of dependent-care agency

d)

Mandating all patients become fully independent immediately

24.

Which helping methods are included in Orem’s framework?

a)

Acting or doing for another

b)

Guiding and directing

c)

Providing physical or psychological support

d)

Teaching and maintaining a supportive environment

25.

Which factors are basic conditioning factors influencing self-care agency and therapeutic demand?

a)

Age and gender

b)

Health state and developmental state

c)

Pattern of living and family system factors

d)

Availability of resources and external environment

26.

In the wholly compensatory nursing system, the individual is best characterized as

a)

Able to engage all self-care actions independently

b)

Unable to engage required self-directed actions and depends on others

c)

Able to learn but cannot perform without assistance

d)

Primarily requiring guidance for manipulative tasks only

27.

Which description fits the partly compensatory nursing system?

a)

Nurse performs all care measures alone

b)

Both nurse and patient perform care measures; role may vary

c)

Patient performs care independently after teaching

d)

Family provides dependent-care without nurse involvement

28.

Which statement defines the supportive-educative system?

a)

Person can perform required measures but cannot do so without assistance

b)

Nurse wholly compensates for all patient actions

c)

Caregiver meets all dependent-care demands continuously

d)

Patient cannot learn required measures under any condition

29.

Which statement best captures the core of Goal Attainment in King’s theory?

a)

Nurses set goals independently without patient input

b)

Nurses and patients set goals together and act

c)

Organizations define goals for all patient care

d)

Patients achieve goals through self-care only

30.

In King’s framework, which level includes concepts like body image, growth and development, perception, self, space, and time?

a)

Personal systems

b)

Interpersonal systems

c)

Social systems

d)

Therapeutic systems

31.

Which elements define interpersonal systems in King’s theory?

a)

Communication processes

b)

Dyads and triads

c)

Group norms of society

d)

Observable mutual interactions

32.

Which example best illustrates a transaction in nurse–patient interaction?

a)

Nurse documents vital signs without discussion

b)

Patient reads an educational pamphlet silently

c)

Nurse and patient agree on a pain-control plan

d)

Manager assigns tasks to the nursing staff

33.

Which condition increases the likelihood that a transaction will occur in nurse–patient interactions?

a)

Perceptual interaction accuracy is present

b)

The nurse avoids discussing role expectations

c)

The patient defers all decisions to family

d)

The nurse prioritizes organizational power

34.

Which outcome is expected when the nurse and patient make a transaction?

a)

Goals are achieved

b)

Satisfaction occurs

c)

Effective nursing care occurs

d)

Stress increases immediately

35.

Which statement reflects the concept of power within social systems in King’s theory?

a)

Capacity to use resources to achieve goals

b)

Position an individual holds in a group

c)

Reciprocity between giver and taker roles

d)

Groups that make up society at large

36.

What does status refer to in King’s social systems?

a)

Capacity to use resources

b)

Position of an individual in a group

c)

Mutual exchange over time

d)

Formal organizational rules

37.

Which scenario most likely leads to stress in the nurse–patient interaction under King’s theory?

a)

Congruent role expectations and performance

b)

Accurate perception of the patient’s needs

c)

Conflict in role expectations by either party

d)

Clear agreement on shared goals

38.

Which description best defines nursing in King’s model?

a)

Static documentation of patient status

b)

Process of action, reaction, and interaction

c)

Independent execution of medical orders

d)

Exclusive focus on self-care agency

39.

Which statement best captures the aim of Myra Levine’s Conservation Theory in nursing care?

a)

Promote adaptation while maintaining wholeness

b)

Eliminate illness through rapid intervention

c)

Standardize care for all individuals equally

d)

Prioritize technology over human responses

40.

Energy conservation in a hospitalized patient primarily involves which nursing focus?

a)

Balancing energy input with tolerated expenditure

b)

Increasing caloric intake regardless of activity

c)

Maximizing activity to prevent deconditioning

d)

Eliminating rest periods to improve sleep

41.

Which nursing order best exemplifies conserving a patient’s energy?

a)

Activity as tolerated with clustered care

b)

Hourly ambulation without assistance

c)

Full daily physical therapy schedule

d)

Unrestricted visitors throughout day

42.

Structural integrity in Levine’s framework is best preserved by which approach?

a)

Maintaining or restoring body structure to prevent breakdown

b)

Focusing solely on emotional coping strategies

c)

Encouraging fasting to enhance healing speed

d)

Avoiding all surgical procedures regardless of need

43.

Which example aligns with conserving structural integrity?

a)

Turning patient every two hours in bed

b)

Withholding hygiene to limit movement

c)

Skipping range of motion to save energy

d)

Removing pressure devices for comfort

44.

Personal integrity conservation emphasizes which patient right most directly?

a)

Respecting autonomy through consent to treatment

b)

Prioritizing staff routines over patient choices

c)

Limiting information to reduce anxiety

d)

Restricting participation to avoid confusion

45.

Social integrity is reflected primarily in which context?

a)

Dynamic relationships within family and community

b)

Physiological stability of internal organs

c)

Individual’s caloric consumption and output

d)

Isolation to minimize infection risk

46.

Healing as the defense of wholeness is best described as the

a)

Return to daily activities compromised by illness

b)

Cure achieved only by medication therapy

c)

Repair of a single affected body part only

d)

Absence of stressors in the environment

47.

According to Levine, adaptation is most effective when it achieves

a)

Compatibility with life and environment

b)

Elimination of all environmental change

c)

Uniform responses across all individuals

d)

Maximal energy expenditure daily

48.

Which characteristic of adaptation refers to patterned responses passed through genetics?

a)

Historicity

b)

Specificity

c)

Redundancy

d)

Plasticity

49.

Specificity within adaptation is best illustrated by

a)

Unique responses to particular challenges

b)

Identical reactions in all situations

c)

Complete absence of stress hormones

d)

Random changes unrelated to stimuli

50.

Which internal environment description aligns with Levine’s view?

a)

Tightly regulated solutions essential for well-being

b)

Uncontrolled fluid shifts tolerated by the body

c)

Constant exposure to external microorganisms

d)

Cultural symbols shaping social behavior

51.

Which external environment domain involves cultural patterns and spirituality mediated by language and history?

a)

Conceptual

b)

Perceptual

c)

Operational

d)

Physiological

52.

The organismic response labeled fight-or-flight is primarily characterized by

a)

Adrenocortical and sympathetic reactions

b)

Parasympathetic digestive activation

c)

Reduced awareness and slow response

d)

Complete absence of hormonal changes

53.

In nursing, a conservative function means actively supporting the patient’s adaptive efforts to achieve

a)

The best available environmental fit

b)

Complete independence from environment

c)

Total elimination of all stressors

d)

Uniform care protocols for all

54.

In Neuman’s Systems Model, what best describes the client system?

a)

A closed unit with fixed boundaries

b)

An open system exchanging energy

c)

A static structure resisting change

d)

A linear process without feedback

55.

Which statement best captures the role of stressors in the model?

a)

They are neutral events without impact

b)

They are tension-producing stimuli

c)

They are only interpersonal conflicts

d)

They are purely biological exposures

56.

The flexible line of defense is primarily understood as

a)

A permanent barrier preventing all stressors

b)

The outer broken ring offering short-term protection

c)

A solid circle representing usual wellness

d)

The central core of basic survival factors

57.

When the flexible line of defense expands, the system

a)

Gains temporary increased protection

b)

Loses all resistance to invasion

c)

Becomes permanently stable and balanced

d)

Stops exchanging input and output

58.

The normal line of defense is best defined as

a)

A baseline of usual wellness over time

b)

A rapid emergency reaction ring

c)

An inner core of genetic features

d)

A post-treatment reconstitution level

59.

Lines of resistance are activated when

a)

Stressors remain outside the system

b)

The flexible line permanently expands

c)

Stressors penetrate the normal line

d)

Tertiary prevention is initiated

60.

Match each level of prevention with its primary focus.

a)

Primary: reduce encounter with stressor

b)

Secondary: treat reactions to stressor

c)

Tertiary: prevent recurrence or regression

d)

Primary: readjustment after treatment

e)

Secondary: enhance flexible line only

61.

Which combination exemplifies input and output in an open client system?

a)

Only matter flowing inward

b)

Only information leaving outward

c)

Matter, energy, and information exchanged

d)

No exchange to maintain stability

62.

Entropy within the client system refers to

a)

Energy depletion leading to illness

b)

Energy conservation increasing order

c)

A stable state of optimal health

d)

Random feedback improving control

63.

Negentropy in the model is most closely associated with

a)

Increasing organization and wellness

b)

Complete absence of stressors

c)

Total closure from the environment

d)

Progressive disorganization and death

64.

Which nursing action aligns with primary prevention?

a)

Crisis counseling after a panic attack

b)

Teaching coping skills before a known exam

c)

Rehabilitation to prevent relapse post-therapy

d)

Adjusting medications to reduce acute symptoms

65.

Secondary prevention primarily involves

a)

Screening and early interventions to reduce reaction

b)

Community education to avoid potential exposures

c)

Long-term support to prevent regression

d)

Environmental redesign to remove all stressors

66.

Tertiary prevention focuses on

a)

Avoiding first contact with stressors

b)

Treating acute symptoms at onset

c)

Readjustment to maintain optimal stability

d)

Strengthening the flexible line temporarily

67.

Which example best represents intrapersonal stressors?

a)

Peer pressure and social rejection

b)

Anxiety and negative self-talk within self

c)

Job insecurity and financial problems

d)

Conflict between coworkers at shift change

68.

A client shows insomnia and irritability after stressor invasion. In Neuman’s terms, this indicates

a)

Reconstitution at higher wellness

b)

Degree of reaction with instability

c)

Absence of lines of resistance

d)

Return to normal line of defense

69.

Which statement best captures the nurse’s role within Roy’s Adaptation Model?

a)

Assess adaptation and support adaptive responses

b)

Diagnose disease and prescribe medical treatments

c)

Provide comfort without assessing adaptation

d)

Focus solely on physical symptoms and labs

70.

In Roy’s model, which two subsystems describe coping mechanisms that mediate adaptation?

a)

Regulator and cognator subsystems

b)

Self-concept and role function

c)

Physiologic and interdependence

d)

Contextual and residual stimuli

71.

The regulator subsystem primarily involves which processes?

a)

Neurochemical and endocrine regulation

b)

Cognitive appraisal and decision making

c)

Interpersonal communication patterns

d)

Cultural and spiritual meaning making

72.

The cognator subsystem is best described as a person’s

a)

Mental coping mechanism using cognition

b)

Automatic physiologic feedback loops

c)

Innate immune and inflammatory system

d)

Social role set within a group

73.

Which are the four adaptive modes in Roy’s model?

a)

Physiological-physical

b)

Self-concept–group identity

c)

Role function

d)

Interdependence

e)

Perception–regulation

74.

Match each adaptive mode with its primary focus.

a)

Physiological-physical: body processes and needs

b)

Self-concept–group identity: oxygenation and nutrition

c)

Role function: spiritual and psychic integrity

d)

Interdependence: individual body image only

75.

Which list shows the five basic needs of physiological integrity identified in the model?

a)

Oxygenation, nutrition, elimination, activity-rest, protection

b)

Sleep, safety, love, esteem, self-actualization

c)

Hydration, mobility, cognition, comfort, thermoregulation

d)

Airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure

76.

In the self-concept–group identity mode, the basic needs include

a)

Psychic and spiritual integrity, unity, meaning

b)

Adequate oxygenation and elimination

c)

Clear role expectations at work

d)

Balanced electrolytes and fluids

77.

Role function mode primarily concerns

a)

The roles a person occupies and expectations

b)

Automatic body regulation and homeostasis

c)

Interpretation of sensory stimuli

d)

Spiritual meaning and life purpose

78.

Interdependence mode focuses on

a)

Close relationships and social support

b)

Regulation of acid-base balance

c)

Group identity within organizations

d)

Cognitive appraisal of stimuli

79.

Identify focal, contextual, and residual stimuli in Roy’s framework.

a)

Focal: immediate confronting stimulus

b)

Contextual: other stimuli that affect focal stimulus

c)

Residual: vague factors with unclear effects

d)

Focal: underlying beliefs not fully understood

e)

Contextual: primary cause of disease

80.

Which sequence correctly describes adaptation level processes?

a)

Integrated, compensatory, compromised

b)

Compensated, integrated, decompensated

c)

Primary, secondary, tertiary

d)

Alarm, resistance, exhaustion

81.

Perception in Roy’s model serves to

a)

Link regulator and cognator with adaptive modes

b)

Trigger only innate coping mechanisms

c)

Replace physiologic feedback processes

d)

Isolate the person from environmental input

82.

Which statements about coping mechanisms are accurate?

a)

Innate mechanisms are generally automatic

b)

Acquired mechanisms develop through learning

c)

Cognator uses brain to cope in adaptive modes

d)

Regulator is a social role expectation

83.

According to Roy, environment encompasses

a)

All conditions influencing behavior, including focal, contextual, residual stimuli

b)

Only physical surroundings like temperature and noise

c)

Internal psychological states but not social factors

d)

Biological pathogens that directly cause disease

84.

Which statement best describes the goal of regulation and feedback in Johnson’s Behavioral System Model?

a)

Maintain subsystem stability by detecting deviations

b)

Increase patient autonomy without monitoring behavior

c)

Prioritize biological needs over social interactions

d)

Eliminate variability to achieve rigid uniform behavior

85.

In the attachment–affiliative subsystem, which nursing action most directly supports its function?

a)

Facilitating family contact for emotional connectedness

b)

Scheduling strength training for motor recovery

c)

Teaching fluid intake for bowel regularity

d)

Monitoring wound site for signs of infection

86.

A patient frequently seeks reassurance about recovery and asks for instructions on self‑care. Which subsystem is most involved?

a)

Dependency subsystem

b)

Achievement subsystem

c)

Aggressive‑protective subsystem

d)

Sexual subsystem

87.

The ingestive subsystem concerns the broad function of appetite satisfaction. Which factor is NOT central to this subsystem in the model?

a)

Social influences on eating patterns

b)

Psychological influences on appetite

c)

Biological considerations of hunger

d)

Financial investments in food markets

88.

Which nursing intervention best aligns with the eliminative subsystem after abdominal surgery?

a)

Assess bowel habits and promote high‑fiber diet

b)

Limit fluids to prevent urinary frequency

c)

Encourage strict bed rest for wound healing

d)

Focus only on pain control without diet review

89.

The achievement subsystem primarily involves which function?

a)

Control or mastery toward a standard of excellence

b)

Seeking approval through dependence on others

c)

Regulation of eating under cultural constraints

d)

Protection and preservation of personal safety

90.

Which combined interventions best support achievement goals during stroke rehabilitation?

a)

Modify the home with handrails and furniture

b)

Engage in occupational therapy for motor skills

c)

Restrict social contact to reduce distractions

d)

Avoid challenging tasks to prevent frustration

91.

The sexual subsystem in Johnson’s model encompasses which dual functions?

a)

Procreation and gratification in role‑guided behavior

b)

Attachment and approval within family bonds

c)

Protection and preservation of bodily integrity

d)

Mastery and control over environmental tasks

92.

A patient anticipates pain during a procedure and begins pulling away and raising their voice. Which subsystem is activated?

a)

Aggressive‑protective subsystem

b)

Ingestive subsystem

c)

Eliminative subsystem

d)

Attachment‑affiliative subsystem

93.

How does Johnson conceptualize health within the Behavioral System Model?

a)

A dynamic state shaped by biological, psychological, and social factors

b)

A fixed absence of disease defined by laboratory results

c)

Primarily a biological equilibrium independent of context

d)

A personal choice unrelated to environmental interaction

94.

What is the primary focus of nursing within the Theory of Nursing as Caring?

a)

Nurturing persons living and growing in caring

b)

Restoring physiological homeostasis through procedures

c)

Maximizing efficiency of clinical interventions

d)

Standardizing evidence-based protocols for safety

95.

Which statement best reflects the intention of nursing in this theory?

a)

Knowing persons as caring and sustaining them in living caring

b)

Diagnosing problems and prescribing appropriate treatments

c)

Collecting objective data to drive clinical decision pathways

d)

Ensuring adherence to institutional policies and protocols

96.

According to the perspective of persons as caring, which is true?

a)

All persons are caring, fundamentally and actually

b)

Only trained professionals can reliably express caring

c)

Caring emerges only during illness or dependence

d)

Caring is optional and situationally developed

97.

What best describes a nursing situation in this theory?

a)

Expression of values, intentions, and actions in a chosen relationship

b)

A series of tasks performed according to care plans

c)

A one-way transfer of knowledge from nurse to client

d)

A standardized interaction defined by clinical algorithms

98.

Which phrase captures the meaning of direct invitation in a nursing situation?

a)

Opening the relationship to true caring between nurse and nursed

b)

Mandating adherence to the nurse’s plan of care

c)

Requesting consent for invasive procedures only

d)

Scheduling routine assessments for efficiency

99.

Calls for nursing are best understood as

a)

Nurturance perceived in the nurse’s mind in the moment

b)

Explicit verbal requests documented in the chart

c)

Institutional alerts for staffing and assignments

d)

Family demands for additional clinical services

100.

Caring between arises when the nurse

a)

Enters the other’s world intending to know the person as caring

b)

Maintains emotional distance to preserve objectivity

c)

Focuses on completing tasks with minimal conversation

d)

Prioritizes documentation over interpersonal connection

101.

In this theory, what does authentic presence plus intentionality enable?

a)

Openness to hear unique calls for nursing

b)

Rapid identification of pathophysiologic disease

c)

Strict boundary setting to ensure neutrality

d)

Delegation of caring interactions to others

102.

Which option identifies a key assumption about persons?

a)

Persons are caring by virtue of their humanness

b)

Persons become caring only through socialization

c)

Persons are incomplete until needs are met

d)

Persons are caring only when observed helping

103.

Being complete in the moment signifies that a person

a)

Has no insufficiency, no brokenness, no absence

b)

Is free from all disease and disability

c)

Meets all developmental milestones precisely

d)

Conforms fully to societal expectations

104.

Which statement aligns with persons living caring moment to moment?

a)

Caring is a lifetime process continually unfolding

b)

Caring is episodic and limited to crises

c)

Caring concludes once goals are achieved

d)

Caring occurs only during formal caregiving

105.

Personhood is nurtured in the context of caring between because

a)

Each expresses self and recognizes the other as caring

b)

The nurse directs activities for efficient outcomes

c)

Reciprocity is minimized to reduce dependency

d)

Objective measures replace subjective experiences

106.

Story as a method for knowing nursing primarily serves to

a)

Preserve and communicate the lived meaning of situations

b)

Provide legal documentation for risk management

c)

Standardize protocols across diverse settings

d)

Train nurses in purely technical procedures

107.

Which MSQ options best represent features of the Dance of Caring Persons metaphor?

a)

Visual representation of lived caring relationships

b)

Each dancer’s contributions are honored as valuable

c)

Movement occurs only with synchronized uniform steps

d)

Knowing self and other supports connectedness in the circle

e)

Only the nurse leads while others follow passively

108.

Within this theoretical view, what most accurately differentiates nursing from unidirectional activity?

a)

Caring between nurse and nursed in reciprocal relationship

b)

Completing tasks without engaging the person’s world

c)

Delivering instructions with limited emotional involvement

d)

Recording outcomes according to preset metrics

109.

Which scenario best illustrates a developmental transition in Meleis’ Transitions Theory?

a)

A woman starting menopause at age fifty

b)

A patient discharged home after surgery

c)

A nurse promoted to unit manager

d)

A hospital adopting a new charting system

110.

Which is a situational transition example under Meleis’ framework?

a)

Learning to use a new charting system

b)

Recovering from acute appendicitis

c)

Experiencing adolescence milestones

d)

Organization downsizing departments

111.

In Transitions Theory, organizational transitions primarily involve which focus?

a)

Changing environmental conditions for clients and staff

b)

Personal role changes within a family unit

c)

Diagnosis and management of chronic illness

d)

Grief after the death of a loved one

112.

Which pair correctly matches transition type with example?

a)

Health/illness — diagnosis of chronic illness

b)

Situational — birth of a first child

c)

Developmental — hospital discharge home

d)

Organizational — leaving an abusive relationship

113.

Awareness in Transitions Theory refers to which aspect?

a)

Perception, knowledge, and recognition of transition

b)

Degree of involvement in the transition process

c)

Length from beginning to a new stability

d)

Markers such as birth or cessation of menses

114.

What does engagement represent within transition properties?

a)

Degree of a person’s involvement in the process

b)

Recognition that a transition has begun

c)

Presence of instability and distress over time

d)

Cultural beliefs that shape the experience

115.

Which statement about change and difference in transitions is most accurate?

a)

All transitions associate changes but not all changes are transitions

b)

All changes are transitions and lead to engagement

c)

Differences are unrelated to perspective shifts

d)

Change is unnecessary for developmental transitions

116.

Time span in transitions is best described as:

a)

From starting instability through an ending with new stability

b)

A brief moment around the critical event only

c)

The time before awareness but after engagement

d)

The hours immediately after a hospital discharge

117.

Which is a critical point or event within transitions?

a)

Birth, death, or diagnosis of illness

b)

Self-esteem or personal competence

c)

Cultural beliefs and attitudes

d)

Adding contacts with friends and family

118.

Which combination lists transition patterns identified by Meleis?

a)

Multiple and simultaneous

b)

Sequential and related

c)

Single and unrelated

d)

Cyclical and episodic

119.

Which process indicator suggests a healthy transition?

a)

Feeling connected and developing coping

b)

Experiencing prolonged isolation and fear

c)

Ignoring new social supports entirely

d)

Only recognizing the critical event date

120.

Outcome indicators of a healthy transition most directly include:

a)

Mastery and fluid integrative identities

b)

Increased awareness without involvement

c)

Longer time span and greater distress

d)

Higher frequency of critical events

121.

Which nursing therapeutic is primarily about preparing the client using education?

a)

Preparation for transition

b)

Assessment of readiness

c)

Role supplementation

d)

Interpersonal influences

122.

Assessment of readiness as a nursing therapeutic requires what?

a)

Understanding each transition condition for the client

b)

Scheduling a fixed time span for the transition

c)

Minimizing personal and community factors

d)

Focusing only on the critical point or event

123.

Role supplementation in transition-focused care mainly involves:

a)

Conveying information to provide support

b)

Assigning new organizational roles to staff

c)

Reducing time span through medication

d)

Avoiding engagement to limit distress

124.

Personal conditions that shape transition experiences include which set?

a)

Beliefs, socioeconomic status, preparation, knowledge

b)

Hospital length of stay and discharge date

c)

Organizational staffing and policy changes

d)

Community norms and immigration patterns

125.

Community or societal conditions in transitions can act as:

a)

Facilitators or inhibitors such as marginalization

b)

Outcome indicators like mastery and identity

c)

Process indicators like connectedness alone

d)

Strictly personal beliefs without social context

126.

Which statement best applies to lack of awareness in transitions?

a)

Lack of awareness does not mean transition has not begun

b)

Lack of awareness prevents any engagement forever

c)

Lack of awareness shortens the time span dramatically

d)

Lack of awareness eliminates all change and difference

127.

Which statement best defines culturally congruent care in Leininger’s theory?

a)

Care tailored to biomedical norms across settings

b)

Care based on economic status and access to services

c)

Care that fits clients’ cultural values, beliefs, and lifeways

d)

Care standardized to ensure equal procedures for all

128.

Generic (emic) care is best described as

a)

Learned lay and local knowledge used to assist others

b)

Formal knowledge obtained through professional education

c)

Policies mandated by legal and political systems

d)

Technology-driven protocols standardized by hospitals

129.

Professional care, in Leininger’s framework, refers to

a)

Community customs transmitted orally over generations

b)

Formally learned knowledge and practices from institutions

c)

Religious beliefs guiding daily lifeways in families

d)

Economic strategies that allocate scarce health resources

130.

Which pair correctly matches perspective with its focus?

a)

Emic – outsider view using institutional categories

b)

Etic – insider view of local cultural meanings

c)

Emic – insider cultural knowledge of phenomena

d)

Etic – participant explanations of rituals and cures

131.

Culture care diversity refers to

a)

Commonly shared patterns guiding empathy in illness

b)

Differences in beliefs, meanings, and lifeways across groups

c)

Legal and political structures shaping health institutions

d)

Technological change producing new care expressions

132.

Culture care universality emphasizes

a)

Shared phenomena with recurrent meanings and values

b)

Unique lifeways that vary by subgroup and setting

c)

Institutional policies that standardize interventions

d)

Technological factors that replace traditional practices

133.

Which domain is NOT explicitly listed as a cultural and social structure dimension in Leininger’s model?

a)

Religious and philosophical factors affecting values

b)

Economic factors shaping access and decisions

c)

Kinship and social factors within communities

d)

Genetic mutations determining inherited diseases

134.

Ethnohistory contributes to assessment by focusing on

a)

Randomized trials of current treatment efficacy

b)

Sequences of past events explaining present lifeways

c)

Laboratory measures of biomarkers and pathogens

d)

Solely political changes unrelated to health patterns

135.

Culture care preservation/maintenance primarily involves

a)

Helping clients retain meaningful beliefs and values

b)

Negotiating to adapt practices conflicting with safety

c)

Reordering lifeways to achieve healthier outcomes

d)

Replacing traditions with standardized protocols

136.

An example of culture care accommodation/negotiation is

a)

Ensuring access to kosher meals and spiritual support

b)

Implementing a smoking cessation restructuring program

c)

Mandating hospital diets without family involvement

d)

Discontinuing all traditional remedies immediately

137.

Culture care repatterning/restructuring aims to

a)

Maintain existing lifeways without alteration

b)

Adapt practices through mutual negotiation

c)

Reorder lifeways for beneficial health outcomes

d)

Eliminate cultural beliefs to avoid conflicts

138.

Which statement about worldview best aligns with Leininger’s usage?

a)

A holistic stance shaping how people see life and health

b)

A narrow biomedical lens excluding alternative remedies

c)

A political ideology determining public policy choices

d)

A temporary opinion formed during acute illness

139.

Select all that represent emic and etic distinctions correctly.

a)

Emic reflects local insider meanings and practices

b)

Etic provides external, often professional viewpoints

c)

Emic emphasizes objective measurements over narratives

d)

Etic arises solely from family traditions and rituals

140.

Transcultural nursing as a major area focuses on

a)

Comparative study of diverse cultures and caring values

b)

Exclusive promotion of universal standardized interventions

c)

Technological replacement of lay care with devices

d)

Reduction of cultural considerations to language only

141.

Which mixture best represents cultural and social structure dimensions nurses should assess?

a)

Technology, religious beliefs, kinship, and language

b)

Only economic status and employment conditions

c)

Genetics, pathogens, and drug side-effect profiles

d)

Media preferences and entertainment consumption

142.

Which statement best captures health within Health as Expanding Consciousness?

a)

Health equals absence of disease entirely

b)

Health is a fusion of disease and non-disease

c)

Health is a static state of perfect balance

d)

Health is gained or lost through curing disease

143.

In this theory, consciousness is primarily defined as

a)

Affective feelings only within the person

b)

Informational capacity and system–environment interaction

c)

Cognitive memory processes isolated from body

d)

Social awareness of cultural expectations alone

144.

Pattern, in Newman's view, most accurately refers to

a)

Discrete symptoms observed during illness

b)

Information depicting the whole relationships at once

c)

Random behaviors without consistent meaning

d)

Physiological parameters measured numerically

145.

Being aware of your pattern leads to which outcome?

a)

Immediate elimination of disease processes

b)

Identification, prevention, and adaptation within the pattern

c)

Detachment from environment to avoid stress

d)

Universal routines that fit all individuals

146.

Which statement about wholeness is consistent with the theory?

a)

Wholeness can be lost when illness occurs

b)

Wholeness diminishes as symptoms intensify

c)

Wholeness persists but takes a different form

d)

Wholeness is measurable only by lab values

147.

What task is crucial for nursing within this framework?

a)

Prioritizing cure over meaning in care

b)

Recognizing movement–space–time patterns together

c)

Separating physical and emotional assessments

d)

Focusing solely on disease management protocols

148.

Movement-space-time are considered the three correlates of consciousness because they

a)

Operate independently without interaction

b)

Represent states unrelated to pattern

c)

Reflect how the system relates and evolves

d)

Measure only physical mobility limitations

149.

Which scenario illustrates movement affecting time and space in this theory?

a)

Increased social mobility extends life space and compresses felt time

b)

Restricted movement decreases life space and increases perceived time

c)

High activity expands time while contracting life space

d)

Complete rest eliminates the experience of space and time

150.

Choose the statements that align with the theory’s view of health and disease.

a)

Disease manifests through an individual’s pattern

b)

Health requires the absence of all disability

c)

Health includes all persons regardless of disease presence

d)

Becoming ill removes wholeness from the person