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2025SE112A

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Rina observed 500 cells undergoing mitosis in her biology lab and recorded the number in each stage. If 200 cells were in interphase, 150 in prophase, 75 in metaphase, 50 in anaphase, and 25 in telophase, what percentage of the total time in the cell cycle is spent in metaphase?

a)

15%

b)

25%

c)

10%

d)

20%

2.

In a research lab, Nita is studying different types of human cells to understand their regenerative capabilities. She wonders which type of human cell would be expected to have the highest telomerase activity, as this could be crucial for her experiments on aging. Which type of cell should she focus on?

a)

Embryonic stem cells

b)

Skin epithelial cells

c)

Mature red blood cells

d)

Neurons

3.

In a biology class, the teacher explains the relationship between genes and proteins. She asks the students, Wahyu, Dian, and Dewi, to identify which statement about genes and proteins is correct.

a)

All genes code for proteins

b)

All proteins are coded by single genes

c)

Some genes code for functional RNA molecules that are not translated into proteins

d)

Gene mutations always result in non-functional proteins

4.

Dian is studying the composition of a DNA molecule in her biology class. She discovers that if 32% of the bases are guanine, what percentage would be thymine?

a)

68%

b)

18%

c)

36%

d)

32%

5.

A plant physiologist named Maya measured solute concentrations in three different tissues from various plants in her research garden. Sample X had high sucrose and amino acids but low minerals; Sample Y had balanced mineral concentrations similar to soil solution; Sample Z had very high potassium and organic acid concentrations. Which samples most likely came from xylem vessels?

a)

X only

b)

Y only

c)

X and Z

d)

Z only

6.

During a high-intensity workout, Sari notices that her muscles are not getting enough oxygen. She learns about the factors that contribute to the Bohr effect in hemoglobin, which helps her understand how her body responds to exercise.

a)

Decreased temperature and increased O2 concentration

b)

Increased temperature and decreased O2 concentration

c)

Decreased pH and increased CO2 concentration

d)

Increased pH and decreased CO2 concentration

7.

Rizky has a mutation in his hemoglobin that causes it to have a higher affinity for oxygen. How would this affect the oxygen dissociation curve and oxygen delivery to his tissues?

a)

Curve shifts left, reduced oxygen delivery

b)

Curve shifts right, improved oxygen delivery

c)

Curve shifts left, improved oxygen delivery

d)

Curve shifts right, reduced oxygen delivery

8.

During a visit to the doctor, Wawan learns about his asthma condition and the importance of managing it. The doctor explains that bronchodilators like salbutamol can help him breathe easier. Which mechanism explains how bronchodilators like salbutamol work to treat asthma?

a)

They stimulate mucus production to trap allergens

b)

They reduce inflammation of the airway lining

c)

They promote relaxation of smooth muscles in the airways

d)

They cause contraction of smooth muscles in the airways

9.

During a biology class, Maya and Indah are discussing the respiratory system. Maya asks Indah, "Which tissues are found in both the trachea and the smallest bronchioles?"

a)

Goblet cells and pseudostratified epithelium

b)

Cartilage and ciliated epithelium

c)

Alveoli and surfactant-producing cells

d)

Smooth muscle and elastic fibers

10.

During a biology class, Arif and Surya are discussing the human respiratory system. Surya asks Arif, "In the respiratory system, which structure is primarily responsible for gas exchange?"

a)

Bronchi

b)

Trachea

c)

Alveoli

d)

Bronchioles

11.

During a biology field trip, Nita observes a photomicrograph of lung tissue that shows numerous small air sacs surrounded by capillaries. Which respiratory structure is being viewed?

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchus

c)

Bronchiole

d)

Alveolus

12.

If insecticide-treated bed nets reduce malaria deaths in children under 5 by 20%, and there are 500,000 such deaths annually worldwide, how many lives would be saved each year?

a)

50,000

b)

100,000

c)

200,000

d)

150,000

13.

During a community health fair, a group of volunteers, including Nisa, Rahman, and Maya, is tasked with cleaning up the park and ensuring the safety of the environment. They notice that some harmful substances have been left behind, and they need to identify which group of volunteers is best suited to handle the cleanup and removal of these substances.

Which volunteers are primarily responsible for phagocytosis during the innate immune response?

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Plasma cells

d)

T lymphocytes

14.

In a lush garden, Faisal is curious about how plants transport essential nutrients. He observes a tall tree and wonders, which plant tissue primarily transports water and dissolved minerals from roots to leaves?

a)

Xylem vessels and tracheids

b)

Phloem sieve elements

c)

Cambium meristem cells

d)

Cortex parenchyma cells

15.

During a high-intensity workout, Adi notices that he is breathing harder and feels more fatigued. He learns that this is due to the Bohr effect, which influences how his hemoglobin carries oxygen in his blood. What is the Bohr effect in hemoglobin physiology?

a)

Reduced oxygen affinity at lower pH

b)

Increased oxygen affinity at lower pH

c)

Unchanged oxygen affinity with pH

d)

Complete denaturation at low pH

16.

During a yoga class, Dian is practicing deep breathing exercises. As she inhales deeply, which change occurs in her thoracic cavity?

a)

Diaphragm relaxes and domes

b)

Diaphragm contracts and flattens

c)

Lung volume decreases markedly

d)

Ribs move downward and inward

17.

During a biology class, Faisal learns about the respiratory system and its components. His teacher asks the class, "Which component of the respiratory system is the primary site of gas exchange?"

a)

Nasal conchae

b)

Tracheal cartilage

c)

Bronchial smooth muscle

d)

Alveolar air sacs

18.

Yuni is feeling unwell and goes to the doctor, who informs her that she has influenza. Yuni asks the doctor why antibiotics won't help her recover from the flu.

a)

Viruses use bacterial ribosomes

b)

Viruses lack antibiotic targets

c)

Viruses divide by mitosis

d)

Viruses have thick cell walls

19.

In a small town, a new virus has emerged, and the local health department is preparing the community's immune response. Which sequence correctly represents a typical primary immune response in the town's health strategy?

a)

Antibody production then antigen presentation then T-cell activation then B-cell activation

b)

B-cell activation then antigen presentation then T-cell activation then antibody production

c)

Antigen presentation then T-cell activation then B-cell activation then antibody production

d)

T-cell activation then antigen presentation then B-cell activation then antibody production

20.

In a vibrant garden, Rina notices that some plants are thriving under the sunlight, particularly those that seem to absorb light at 500 nm, even though the chlorophyll a and b in those plants show low absorption at that wavelength. What could explain the activity of these plants at 500 nm?

a)

Measurements of plant health were inaccurate

b)

Chlorophyll a peak occurs at 500 nm

c)

Chlorophyll b absorbs strongly at 500 nm

d)

Accessory pigments absorb and transfer energy

21.

In a controlled experiment, Dimas placed a group of seeds in a sealed container where they respired, consuming 25 cm³ of O2 and producing 20 cm³ of CO2. What is the respiratory quotient and substrate indicated?

a)

RQ 1.25 suggesting lipid metabolism

b)

RQ 0.8 suggesting carbohydrate metabolism

c)

RQ 0.8 suggesting lipid metabolism

d)

RQ 1.25 suggesting protein metabolism

22.

Ina and Dimas are studying two forests, each with 12 species of trees. Forest X has a Simpson's index of 0.9, indicating a high level of diversity, while Forest Y has a Simpson's index of 0.3, suggesting lower diversity. What does this difference indicate?

a)

Forest X has fewer individuals than Forest Y

b)

Forest X has lower richness but higher evenness

c)

Forest Y is dominated by few species while X is more even

d)

Forest Y is in an earlier successional stage than Forest X

23.

In a study conducted by Rina on butterflies in a local park, bright red marks were used to identify individuals. However, these bright red marks made the butterflies more visible to predators. How will estimates of the butterfly population be biased?

a)

Population underestimated due to higher mortality

b)

Population overestimated due to higher mortality

c)

Recapture easier giving better accuracy

d)

No effect because color vision is absent

24.

In a coastal research project, Lina is tasked with studying how vegetation changes from the shore to inland across the dunes. Which sampling method should she use to best track these changes?

a)

Line transect sampling along a gradient

b)

Stratified random sampling only

c)

Random quadrat sampling across area

d)

Mark–release–recapture of plants

25.

Surya is studying different forms of life and comes across a peculiar entity that doesn't fit into the three-domain classification system. He wonders why this entity, which he learns is a virus, is excluded from this classification. What could be the reason for its exclusion?

a)

They lack cells and independent metabolism

b)

They contain only RNA and never DNA

c)

They are too small for light microscopes

d)

They reproduce only inside host cells

26.

In a botanical study, researchers observed that a new invasive plant species, brought in from a distant land, began to thrive in a local ecosystem. They proposed the Novel Weapons Hypothesis to explain this phenomenon. According to this hypothesis, the invasive plants succeed primarily because they:

a)

Develop deeper root systems always

b)

Attract more pollinators consistently

c)

Have much higher photosynthetic rates

d)

Release unfamiliar allelochemicals to natives

27.

In a study conducted by Yuni, the Spearman rank correlation between soil pH and plant diversity was found to be rs = 0.75 with a critical value of 0.60 at α = 0.05. What conclusion is valid?

a)

Result invalid due to high value

b)

Significant negative correlation exists

c)

No significant correlation exists

d)

Significant positive correlation exists

28.

At a wildlife reserve, Rina is overseeing a captive breeding program for endangered species. Despite her careful management, the health of the animals declines over generations. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Inbreeding depression masked by apparent diversity

b)

Environment lacks natural selection pressures

c)

Genetic diversity is too high overall

d)

Adaptation to captivity is excessive

29.

In a village of 20,000 residents, the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (aa) among the local plant species is 0.36. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals of this plant species would be expected to be heterozygous (Aa)?

a)

4,800

b)

9,600

c)

12,800

d)

7,200

30.

In a small agricultural town, farmers noticed that a certain population of insects on their crops showed variation in pesticide resistance. After applying a new pesticide, the frequency of resistant individuals increased from 10% to 85% over three generations. Which evolutionary mechanism best explains this observation?

a)

All non-resistant insects died immediately after pesticide application

b)

The pesticide caused mutations that produced resistance

c)

Non-resistant insects developed resistance in response to the pesticide

d)

Resistant insects had higher survival and reproductive success in the presence of pesticide

31.

In a garden maintained by Ina, the allele for white flowers (w) is recessive to purple flowers (W). If the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.6, what percentage of the flowering plants in her garden would be expected to have white flowers under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

16%

b)

36%

c)

64%

d)

48%

32.

Rudi, a biologist, wants to compare the mean beak sizes of finches from two different islands. Which statistical test would be most appropriate?

a)

Simpson's diversity index

b)

Chi-squared test

c)

Spearman's rank correlation

d)

Student's t-test

33.

In a population of birds, individuals with very small beaks can efficiently eat small seeds, and individuals with very large beaks can crack large seeds. Birds with medium-sized beaks are inefficient at eating both types of seeds and have lower survival rates. What type of selection is occurring?

a)

Directional selection

b)

Stabilizing selection

c)

Disruptive selection

d)

Sexual selection

34.

On a remote island chain, Maya and her friends observe a group of birds that have become separated from their mainland relatives due to rising sea levels. Over time, these birds adapt to their new environment, leading to changes in their physical traits and behaviors. Eventually, they can no longer interbreed with their mainland counterparts. Which sequence correctly describes the process of allopatric speciation?

a)

Geographic isolation → Genetic divergence → Reproductive isolation

b)

Reproductive isolation → Geographic isolation → Genetic divergence

c)

Genetic drift → Mutation → Geographic isolation

d)

Natural selection → Reproductive isolation → Geographic isolation

35.

After a long day of hiking, Wahyu found his friend Nisa unresponsive at their campsite. Several hours later, he noticed that her body had become stiff. What causes rigor mortis to develop several hours after death?

a)

Calcium accumulation causes continuous muscle contraction

b)

Bacterial decomposition produces toxins that stiffen muscles

c)

ATP depletion prevents myosin heads from detaching from actin filaments

d)

Lysosomal enzymes digest muscle proteins

36.

Heri, a farmer, uses organophosphate pesticides to protect his crops. However, he notices that after applying the pesticide, the muscles of his farm animals seem to be continuously contracting. What effect would this have at neuromuscular junctions?

a)

Nerve impulses would fail to reach the muscles

b)

Muscles would experience continuous contraction due to acetylcholine accumulation

c)

Muscles would become paralyzed due to lack of acetylcholine

d)

Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum would be inhibited

37.

In a busy city, a delivery truck driven by Rudi is responsible for transporting goods across various neighborhoods. However, due to road construction, Rudi's route is altered, leading to delays in deliveries. Why does this slow down the delivery process?

a)

The delivery schedule becomes more complicated

b)

Fuel efficiency becomes less optimal

c)

The loss of direct routes increases travel time, requiring Rudi to navigate through more streets instead of taking shortcuts

d)

The weight of the truck increases due to additional cargo

38.

Dewi is conducting an experiment with barley seeds in her biology lab. She knows that gibberellin stimulates the production of amylase by binding to receptors on aleurone cells. However, she accidentally introduces a mutation that prevents gibberellin from binding to its receptor. What would be the effect on seed germination?

a)

Germination would be inhibited due to lack of amylase production

b)

Germination would be enhanced

c)

Germination would proceed normally

d)

Germination would be delayed but eventually occur

39.

In a vibrant garden, a population of butterflies has a variety of wing colors. Over time, the butterflies with colors that blend in with the flowers and leaves are more likely to survive and reproduce. Which process most directly changes allele frequencies within this butterfly population from one generation to the next?

a)

Learning and behavior modifying genetic sequences

b)

Environmental changes altering acquired traits

c)

Individual development during the organism’s life

d)

Natural selection acting on heritable variation

40.

In a small village, Titi is a farmer who wants to improve the quality of her corn crop. She decides to use selective breeding to enhance the traits of her plants. Selective breeding in crops primarily relies on which genetic principle?

a)

Mutation rates rising due to cultivation

b)

Gene flow introducing wild alleles unpredictably

c)

Random mating increasing heterozygosity

d)

Artificial selection favoring desired phenotypes

41.

Wawan, a farmer, is aware that conserving genetic diversity in wild crop relatives is important mainly because it can

a)

Replace the need for soil nutrients

b)

Prevent all pest outbreaks globally

c)

Guarantee higher yields every season

d)

Provide novel alleles for future breeding

42.

In a natural forest, Eko observes a population of butterflies over several generations. He notes that certain traits, such as wing color and size, change in frequency due to various factors. Which combination best describes three processes that can change allele frequencies in this butterfly population?

a)

Natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow

b)

Transcription, translation, replication

c)

Photosynthesis, respiration, fermentation

d)

Growth, differentiation, morphogenesis

43.

In a bustling city, Rani, Mega, and Eko are studying the human gas exchange system in their biology class. They learn that one structure in the lungs provides the largest surface area for diffusion. Which structure are they referring to?

a)

Larynx with vocal fold structures

b)

Trachea with C-shaped cartilage rings

c)

Alveoli with extensive capillary networks

d)

Bronchi with smooth muscle layers

44.

Imagine a small, bustling café in the heart of the city where customers are constantly coming and going. The café has a unique design that allows for quick service and a pleasant atmosphere. Which feature of the café's layout most enhances efficient customer service?

a)

Open seating and a friendly staff

b)

Cramped tables and long wait times

c)

High noise levels and distractions

d)

Limited menu and slow preparation

45.

During a high-altitude trek, Rudi notices that as he climbs higher, he feels more fatigued and breathes harder. He learns that this phenomenon is related to how

a)

Increased O2 raises blood buffering power

b)

Increased CO2 lowers hemoglobin affinity

c)

Decreased pH increases alveolar ventilation

d)

Decreased CO2 increases plasma viscosity

46.

During a marathon, Agus notices that his muscles are feeling fatigued. He remembers learning about the Bohr effect and how it benefits tissues during vigorous exercise.

a)

Promoting oxygen unloading where needed

b)

Preventing CO2 from entering red cells

c)

Reducing blood flow to active tissues

d)

Raising hemoglobin affinity in muscles

47.

Imagine a bustling factory where workers are responsible for assembling products. When a signal is sent to the factory, which event occurs immediately after the signal reaches the control room?

a)

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open

b)

Acetylcholine binds postsynaptic sites

c)

Acetylcholinesterase degrades transmitter

d)

Myosin heads undergo power stroke

48.

During a critical experiment in a laboratory, a researcher named Yuni is studying the effects of blocking presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction. She hypothesizes that this action would most directly

a)

Enhance acetylcholinesterase activity

b)

Trigger continuous muscle contraction

c)

Increase acetylcholine receptor density

d)

Prevent acetylcholine vesicle release

49.

In a small town, a local athlete named Tiara is experiencing sudden muscle weakness during her training sessions. After consulting with a doctor, she learns that her body is producing antibodies that block nicotinic receptors. Which immediate effect explains her muscle weakness?

a)

Greater summation producing stronger twitch

b)

Increased Ca2+ entry strengthening signal

c)

Excess acetylcholine causing tetanus

d)

Reduced end plate potentials below threshold

50.

During a medical conference, Dr. Agung discusses a suitable symptomatic treatment for myasthenia gravis. He explains that this treatment targets which mechanism?

a)

Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase to prolong action

b)

Blocking voltage-gated sodium channels

c)

Stimulating muscarinic receptors in glands

d)

Enhancing breakdown of acetylcholine faster

51.

Organophosphate inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at neuromuscular junctions would most likely cause

a)

Sustained depolarization and spasm

b)

Complete loss of presynaptic action potentials

c)

Immediate depletion of calcium stores

d)

Permanent receptor downregulation only

52.

Loss of myelin slows nerve conduction primarily because it

a)

Increases membrane capacitance along axon

b)

Greatly boosts Na+/K+ pump turnover

c)

Makes threshold potential highly negative

d)

Eliminates all voltage-gated channels

53.

The absolute refractory period ensures one-way propagation by

a)

Inactivating Na+ channels just opened

b)

Hyperpolarizing the soma permanently

c)

Blocking K+ channels from closing

d)

Depleting neurotransmitter stores fully

54.

Which mechanism best explains why conserving wild relatives aids future food security?

a)

Conversion of annuals to perennials

b)

Removal of all agricultural pests

c)

Guaranteed identical climate patterns

d)

Reservoirs of stress-tolerance alleles

55.

Which change would most increase the rate of diffusion of oxygen across the alveolar membrane?

a)

Increasing surface area and gradient

b)

Thickening the membrane barrier

c)

Decreasing temperature substantially

d)

Reducing capillary blood perfusion

56.

Gene flow between neighboring populations typically

a)

Causes speciation in a single generation

b)

Eliminates all recessive alleles quickly

c)

Reduces genetic differences between them

d)

Always increases local adaptation strongly

57.

A bottleneck event most strongly affects allele frequencies through

a)

Directional selection favoring extremes

b)

Stabilizing selection around the mean

c)

Genetic drift due to small population

d)

Balanced polymorphism by heterosis

58.

Which statement best describes xylem vessels in flowering plants?

a)

They transport water under negative pressure

b)

They have perforated end walls forming sieve plates

c)

They transport sucrose under positive pressure

d)

They are living cells with nuclei and cytoplasm

59.

What is the primary role of phloem sieve tubes?

a)

Support of stems with lignified thick walls

b)

Storage of starch granules in parenchyma

c)

Translocation of assimilates between sources and sinks

d)

Uptake of minerals by active transport

60.

Which adaptation enables efficient water transport in xylem?

a)

Thin cellulose walls with plasmodesmata

b)

Presence of many chloroplasts in cells

c)

Lignified walls and absence of end walls

d)

Large vacuoles maintaining high turgor

61.

In the pressure-flow hypothesis, what generates the pressure in source phloem?

a)

Transpiration pull from stomata opening

b)

Capillary action within narrow vessels

c)

Root pressure pushing solution upward

d)

Osmotic water influx following sucrose loading

62.

Which immune component provides immediate, non-specific defense?

a)

Plasma cells secreting specific antibodies

b)

Memory B cells producing rapid antibodies

c)

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes recognizing antigens

d)

Phagocytic neutrophils and macrophages

63.

Which statement distinguishes primary from secondary immune responses?

a)

Primary response is faster and stronger

b)

Secondary response lacks memory cells

c)

Secondary response is faster and stronger

d)

Both responses have identical kinetics

64.

Why are antibiotics generally ineffective against viruses?

a)

Viruses lack metabolic targets like cell walls

b)

Viruses have thicker peptidoglycan walls

c)

Viruses synthesize their own ribosomes

d)

Viruses replicate only by binary fission

65.

Cancer cells often evade immune detection primarily by

a)

Downregulating MHC class I presentation

b)

Producing highly immunogenic neoantigens

c)

Increasing antigen presentation on APCs

d)

Activating helper T cells directly

66.

Which immunotherapy pairs correctly with its mechanism?

a)

Antibiotics target viral polymerase directly

b)

Antihistamines activate cytotoxic lymphocytes

c)

Checkpoint inhibitors release T cell inhibition

d)

Live attenuated vaccines block mitosis in tumors

67.

Which structure is first to receive filtrate in a nephron?

a)

Bowman's capsule surrounding glomerulus

b)

Loop of Henle descending limb

c)

Distal tubule near vasa recta

d)

Proximal convoluted collecting duct

68.

What is the main site of selective reabsorption of glucose in the nephron?

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule with microvilli

b)

Bowman's capsule filtration space

c)

Descending limb of the loop of Henle

d)

Collecting duct under ADH influence

69.

How does the loop of Henle enable production of concentrated urine?

a)

Uniform osmolarity equalizes tubular and blood fluids

b)

Countercurrent multiplier establishes medullary gradient

c)

Water secretion into ascending limb lumen

d)

Active urea secretion in proximal segments

70.

ADH increases water reabsorption by

a)

Inhibiting aldosterone release from cortex

b)

Blocking Na+ channels in proximal tubule

c)

Decreasing medullary interstitial osmolarity

d)

Inserting aquaporins in collecting duct cells

71.

Which trend best describes temperature effects on enzyme-catalyzed respiration rate in yeast?

a)

Rate decreases steadily as temperature increases

b)

Rate is highest at the lowest temperature tested

c)

Rate rises with temperature to optimum then decreases

d)

Rate is constant across all temperatures tested

72.

Why does respiration rate fall above the optimum temperature?

a)

Glycolysis stops due to high oxygen levels

b)

Enzymes denature disrupting active sites

c)

Substrate concentration becomes infinite

d)

Mitochondria increase membrane surface area

73.

Why do the light-independent reactions stop in prolonged darkness?

a)

CO2 becomes unavailable without light energy

b)

Rubisco requires direct photon absorption

c)

Thylakoid membranes disintegrate in the dark

d)

ATP and NADPH supply from light reactions ceases

74.

In photosynthesis, which sequence correctly matches location and process?

a)

Thylakoid membranes: photophosphorylation; stroma: Calvin cycle

b)

Stroma: photolysis of water; grana: Calvin cycle

c)

Cytosol: Calvin cycle; thylakoid: glycolysis reactions

d)

Matrix: Krebs cycle; stroma: oxidative phosphorylation

75.

A heterozygous parent for Huntington's disease (Hh) mates with a homozygous recessive partner (hh). What is the probability their child has the disease?

a)

Fifty percent of offspring affected

b)

Twenty-five percent of offspring affected

c)

Seventy-five percent of offspring affected

d)

Zero percent of offspring affected

76.

Why are X-linked recessive disorders more common in males?

a)

Males express the single X allele unmasked

b)

Males carry two X alleles with dominance

c)

Females inherit Y-linked protective alleles

d)

Females lack any X-linked gene expression

77.

Which statement about gene expression is correct?

a)

All genes encode polypeptides for ribosomes

b)

Some genes code for functional RNAs not proteins

c)

Every allele produces identical phenotypic effects

d)

Only exons are transcribed into mRNA always

78.

Which oxygen-carrying metric is closest to normal arterial oxygen saturation in healthy adults at sea level?

a)

12% saturation in arterial blood

b)

18% saturation under resting conditions

c)

15% saturation in venous plasma

d)

21% saturation during light exercise

79.

Which cell type can differentiate into any cell type of the body but not extraembryonic tissues?

a)

Induced pluripotent fibroblast lines

b)

Embryonic stem cells derived from blastocyst

c)

Adult stem cells from bone marrow

d)

Totipotent cells from zygote stage

80.

Why do some genes not produce polypeptides yet remain functional?

a)

They are pseudogenes with silent mutations

b)

They code for functional RNA molecules only

c)

They are transcribed but never translated

d)

They regulate chromatin without transcription

81.

Which approximate proportion by volume describes oxygen in dry atmospheric air at sea level?

a)

18% of total gas mixture

b)

12% of total gas mixture

c)

24% of total gas mixture

d)

30% of total gas mixture

82.

Which chromosome is present in a human gamete carrying only the sex chromosome Y?

a)

Neither X nor Y present

b)

Both X and Y together

c)

Y only without an X chromosome

d)

X only without any autosomes

83.

In plants, which process moves products of photosynthesis from leaves toward non-photosynthetic tissues?

a)

Diffusion through intercellular spaces

b)

Photosynthate transport from leaves to roots

c)

Translocation through phloem loading

d)

Transpiration via xylem tension

84.

Which change favors oxygen unloading from hemoglobin in active tissues?

a)

Decreased CO2 and lower 2,3-BPG

b)

Higher pH and lower partial pressure O2

c)

Increased pH and decreased temperature

d)

Decreased pH and increased CO2 concentration

85.

A leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve most likely leads to which outcome?

a)

Greater CO2 transport in plasma

b)

Unaffected oxygen binding capacity

c)

Reduced oxygen delivery to tissues

d)

Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues

86.

Why are beta-2 agonists used in asthma management?

a)

They increase alveolar macrophage activity

b)

They constrict bronchial smooth muscle strongly

c)

They stimulate mucus secretion to trap allergens

d)

They promote relaxation of smooth muscles in the airways

87.

Which lung components primarily allow airway recoil and compliance during breathing?

a)

Cartilaginous rings of bronchi

b)

Ciliated epithelium with goblet cells

c)

Alveolar surfactant phospholipids

d)

Smooth muscle and elastic fibers

88.

Gas exchange with blood occurs mainly across which structures in the lungs?

a)

Bronchioles with thick smooth muscle

b)

Trachea lined with ciliated cells

c)

Alveoli with thin epithelial walls

d)

Pleural membranes of thorax

89.

Which structure is the singular, functional gas-exchange unit in the lung?

a)

Terminal bronchiole without cartilage

b)

Alveolus with surrounding capillaries

c)

Pleural cavity surrounding lungs

d)

Bronchus supplying lobular segments

90.

Approximately how many human genes code for proteins?

a)

10,000 coding loci total

b)

100,000 coding loci total

c)

9,600 coding loci total

d)

20,000 coding loci total

91.

Which innate immune cells most directly engulf and digest extracellular bacteria?

a)

Natural killer lymphocytes

b)

T cells and dendritic cells

c)

Basophils and eosinophils

d)

Macrophages and neutrophils

92.

Why are antibiotics generally ineffective against viruses?

a)

Viruses rapidly evolve thicker cell walls

b)

Viruses lack the cellular structures that antibiotics target

c)

Viruses neutralize drugs using plasmids

d)

Viruses divide by mitosis like host cells

93.

Which sequence best represents activation leading to antibody production in adaptive immunity?

a)

Antibody production → T-cell activation → B-cell activation → Antigen presentation

b)

Antigen binding → Complement cascade → Antibody production → T-cell activation

c)

Antigen presentation → T-cell activation → B-cell activation → Antibody production

d)

B-cell activation → Antigen presentation → T-cell activation → Antibody production

94.

A fall in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion will cause what renal effect?

a)

Greater urea reabsorption in tubules

b)

Less water reabsorption in collecting ducts

c)

No change in urine osmolality overall

d)

More water reabsorption in collecting ducts

95.

An action potential from a stretch receptor produced 80 microamperes on a recording device. Which current magnitude matches this measurement?

a)

120 μA during refractory period

b)

40 μA during peak depolarization

c)

8 μA during baseline noise

d)

80 μA during stimulus response

96.

Which statement describes the primary role of accessory pigments in photosynthesis?

a)

They reflect all wavelengths except far-red

b)

They absorb at 500 nm and transfer energy to chlorophyll

c)

They block light energy from reaching photosystems

d)

They reduce photon capture near 700 nm

97.

A respiratory quotient (RQ) of 0.8 in a fasting individual most strongly indicates metabolism of which substrate?

a)

Carbohydrates as the main fuel

b)

Alcohols metabolized for ATP

c)

Proteins exclusively supplying ATP

d)

Lipids predominating during energy production

98.

Which process directly changes allele frequencies due to random sampling in small populations?

a)

Natural selection acting on phenotypes

b)

Mutation producing new alleles

c)

Genetic drift causing random changes

d)

Gene flow via migrant interbreeding

e)

Non-random mating by assortative choice

99.

A conservation program crosses domesticated crops with wild relatives. What is the main genetic benefit?

a)

Lowered mutation rate in seedlings

b)

Restored MHC expression in leaves

c)

Reduced recombination across loci

d)

Increased genetic diversity for breeding

e)

Enhanced lignification of phloem walls

100.

Artificial selection differs from natural selection primarily because

a)

It reduces allele heritability drastically

b)

It prevents genetic variation entirely

c)

It operates only in small populations

d)

It uses human choice of breeding traits

e)

It eliminates mutation over time

101.

Identify structures in the airway pathway: trachea → bronchus → alveolus. Which option lists them in order from largest to smallest?

a)

Bronchus, trachea, alveolus

b)

Alveolus, bronchus, trachea

c)

Bronchus, alveolus, trachea

d)

Alveolus, trachea, bronchus

e)

Trachea, bronchus, alveolus

102.

Which adaptation most increases gas exchange efficiency in alveoli?

a)

Large surface area with thin walls

b)

Thick walls with rigid collagen

c)

Dry surface with poor perfusion

d)

Ciliated lining with mucus traps

e)

Small area with elastic cartilage

103.

During intense exercise, the oxygen dissociation curve shifts right mainly because

a)

Reduced blood flow to muscles

b)

Higher hemoglobin concentration

c)

Lower temperature in tissues

d)

Increased CO2 and decreased pH

e)

Decreased CO2 and increased pH

104.

Which list correctly identifies the basic parts of a chemical synapse?

a)

Dendrite spine, soma, axon initial segment

b)

Nucleus, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Axon hillock, node of Ranvier, myelin

d)

Presynaptic terminal, synaptic cleft, postsynaptic membrane

e)

Sarcomere, T-tubule, myofibril

105.

What is the correct sequence at a cholinergic synapse after an action potential arrives?

a)

Depolarization → receptor binding → action potential

b)

Vesicle fusion → calcium influx → depolarization

c)

Calcium influx → vesicle fusion → neurotransmitter release

d)

Receptor binding → action potential → calcium influx

e)

Neurotransmitter release → vesicle fusion → binding

106.

Myasthenia gravis causes fewer functional acetylcholine receptors. The immediate effect at the neuromuscular junction is

a)

Higher calcium influx at axon

b)

Increased synaptic vesicle release

c)

Weaker end-plate potentials

d)

Longer action potential duration

e)

Stronger depolarization of muscle

107.

Which treatment best increases acetylcholine availability at synapses in myasthenia gravis?

a)

Voltage-gated sodium blockers

b)

Nicotinic receptor antagonists

c)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

d)

Calcium channel antagonists

e)

Adrenergic beta blockers

108.

Which statement correctly contrasts xylem and phloem structure and function?

a)

Phloem forms continuous hollow dead tubes

b)

Xylem has lignified walls for upward water transport

c)

Xylem transports organics bidirectionally

d)

Phloem uses dead cells for mineral flow

e)

Xylem uses living cells for sugar flow

109.

A plant stem section labeled X shows thick lignified walls and empty lumens. X most likely represents

a)

Guard cells in epidermis

b)

Phloem sieve tubes

c)

Meristematic tissues

d)

Companion cells

e)

Xylem vessel elements

110.

Which structural adaptation helps xylem resist collapse under tension during transpiration?

a)

Cellulose-rich thin walls

b)

Lignified thickened walls

c)

Pits sealed by suberin

d)

Active proton pumping

e)

Starch-packed lumens

111.

Why are antibiotics ineffective against viruses such as influenza?

a)

Viruses replicate by binary fission

b)

Viruses produce peptidoglycan enzymes

c)

Viruses lack ribosomes and cell walls

d)

Viruses hide in xylem conduits

e)

Viruses have thicker cell walls

112.

Which description best distinguishes primary from secondary immune response to the same antigen?

a)

Primary shows rightward Bohr shift always

b)

Primary is rapid with high IgG; secondary is slow with IgM

c)

Primary uses cytotoxic T cells; secondary does not

d)

Primary is slow with low IgM; secondary is rapid with high IgG

e)

Primary uses memory cells; secondary lacks memory cells

113.

A tumor downregulates MHC molecules. Which immune evasion outcome is most likely?

a)

Reduced recognition by cytotoxic T cells

b)

Increased antibody neutralization efficiency

c)

Greater activation of complement proteins

d)

Improved vaccine memory generation

e)

Enhanced antigen presentation to T cells

114.

Checkpoint inhibitors as cancer therapy primarily act by

a)

Blocking antibody production permanently

b)

Inhibiting angiogenesis in tumors

c)

Releasing brakes on T‑cell activation

d)

Replacing mutated MHC genes

e)

Destroying tumor ribosomes directly

115.

ADH primarily acts on which nephron segment to reduce urine volume?

a)

Collecting duct epithelium

b)

Glomerular capillary tuft

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Descending limb of Henle

e)

Bowman’s capsule lumen

116.

Which mechanism best explains how the kidney produces highly concentrated urine?

a)

Countercurrent multiplier with ADH-regulated permeability

b)

Uniform medullary solute with constant water reabsorption

c)

Active sodium pumping in Bowman’s capsule

d)

Filtration barrier secreting urea to cortex

e)

High flow rate through proximal tubule

117.

A temperature–rate graph for an enzyme shows a peak near 40°C. What is the best explanation for the decline above this temperature?

a)

Substrate concentration becomes zero

b)

Active site denaturation reduces activity

c)

Activation energy increases with heat

d)

More collisions raise catalytic efficiency

e)

pH rises and increases binding strength

118.

During the Calvin cycle, which molecules from the light reactions are directly required?

a)

Rubisco and glucose

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

CO2 and O2

d)

FADH2 and NADH

e)

Water and oxygen

119.

In a cross Hh × hh for an autosomal dominant disorder, the probability the child is affected equals

a)

0% or 0

b)

100% or 1.0

c)

25% or 0.25

d)

50% or 0.5

e)

75% or 0.75

120.

Why are X‑linked recessive disorders more common in males than females?

a)

Males have two X chromosomes

b)

Females lack Y-linked modifiers

c)

Males express a single recessive allele

d)

Females express heterozygous advantage

e)

Males undergo higher crossing over