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MICR210 - Final

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What component of some viruses is made of up phospholipids and make organisms more susceptible to drying?

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Protein Coat

c)

Envelope

d)

Enzymes

2.

What are viruses that have a tube-like structure surrounding their spiral nucleic acids called?

a)

Helical

b)

Icosahedral

c)

Bacteriophage

d)

Spherical

3.

Why are viruses rarely grown in labs anymore?

a)

Live cell culture is slow and costly

b)

Viruses rarely survive transport

c)

All viruses can be visualized with direct microscopy

d)

All viruses are self-limiting so testing is unnecessary

4.

Tamiflu is used to treat which virus?

a)

HIV

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Influenzae B

d)

RSV

5.

What is the most common specimen collected for parasitology?

a)

Stool in Cary Blair Transport Media

b)

Pinworm paddles

c)

Stool in Sodium Acetate Formalin

d)

Urine

6.

True or false. The infective stage of a protozoan is called a trophozoite.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Which of the following is not routinely screened for on a parasitology screen in Canada?

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Entamoeba coli

c)

Giardia duodenalis

d)

Cryptosporidium sp.

8.

ID this trophozoite.

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Giardia duodenalis

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Schistosoma haematobium

9.

Name this parasite

a)

Entamoeba coli

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Enterobius vermicularis

d)

Cryptosporidium sp.

10.

What antimicrobial is commonly used to treat parasitic infections?

a)

Nitrofurantoin

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Penicillin

d)

Clindamycin

11.

What microorganism exhibits falling leaf motility?

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Giardia duodenalis

d)

Treponema pallidum

12.

Which term best described the motility of Trichomonas vaginalis?

a)

Corkscrew

b)

Tumbling

c)

Quivering

d)

Gliding

13.

When performing a germ tube, the presence of at least how many germ tubes must be seen to call it positive?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

25

14.

What microorganism can be identified using this structure?

a)

Blastomyces sp.

b)

Candida albicans

c)

Cryptococcus neoformans

d)

Coccidioides sp.

15.

What does calcofluor white have an affinity for?

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Chitin

c)

Lipids

d)

Lipopolysaccharides

16.

Which of the following tests would NOT be useful in the identification of Cryptococcus neoformans?

a)

Urea

b)

Caffeic acid

c)

India Ink

d)

Citrate

17.

Identify the fungus.

a)

Aspergillus sp.

b)

Microsporum sp.

c)

Epidermophyton sp.

d)

Histoplasma sp.

18.

Identify the fungus.

a)

Microsporum sp.

b)

Trichophyton sp.

c)

Penicillium sp.

d)

Pneumocystic jirovecii

19.

Identify the fungus.

a)

Aspergillus sp.

b)

Penicillium sp.

c)

Epidermophyton sp.

d)

Paracoccidioides sp.

20.

Identify the dimorphic fungus.

a)

Blastomyces sp.

b)

Histoplasma sp.

c)

Paracoccidioides sp.

d)

Coccidioides sp.

21.

Identify the dimorphic fungus.

a)

Blastomyces sp.

b)

Histoplasma sp.

c)

Paracoccidioides sp.

d)

Coccidioides sp.

22.

Identify the dimorphic fungus.

a)

Blastomyces sp.

b)

Histoplasma sp.

c)

Paracoccidioides sp.

d)

Coccidioides sp.

23.

Identify the dimorphic fungus.

a)

Blastomyces sp.

b)

Histoplasma sp.

c)

Paracoccidioides sp.

d)

Coccidioides sp.

24.

Which of the following is a common antifungal agent used for dermatophyte infections?

a)

Flucytosine

b)

Amphotericin B

c)

Caspofungin

d)

Ketoconazole cream

25.

What is the primary function of the beta-lactam ring in beta-lactam antibiotics?

a)

Inhibits DNA replication

b)

Inhibits penicillin-binding proteins

c)

Disrupts protein synthesis

d)

Inhibits cell membrane synthesis

26.

Which antibiotic is particularly useful in treating penicillin-resistant Gram-positive bacteria?

a)

Aztreonam

b)

Cefepime

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Meropenem

27.

Why should patients taking aminoglycosides have their drug levels closely monitored?

a)

To prevent toxicity due to potential kidney and auditory damage

b)

To ensure the drug is not causing liver failure

c)

To avoid gastrointestinal upset

d)

To prevent allergic reactions

28.

A bacterium possesses the enzyme carbapenemase. Which antibiotic will be ineffective at treatment?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Meropenem

c)

Colistin

d)

Cefazolin

29.

True or false. Beta-lactamase prevents Vancomycin from being an effective treatment option.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

What antimicrobial would best be used to treat a parasitic infection caused by Giardia lamblia?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Cephalosporin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Aztreonam

31.

True or false. If you use a 0.3 McFarland equivalent suspension to make a susceptibility, the zone sizes will be falsely enlarged.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What susceptibility medium is used for S. pneumoniae that is an approved CLSI modification?

a)

MH

b)

MH with blood

c)

HTM

d)

GC agar

33.

Name that organism

a)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

b)

Corynebacterium sp.

c)

Micrococcus sp.

d)

Enterococcus sp.

34.

Name that organism.

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

35.

Name that organism.

a)

Viridans group Streptococcus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Streptococcus bovis

36.

Name that organism.

a)

Streptococcus agalactiae

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Viridans group Streptococcus

d)

Enterococcus sp.

37.

Review the following work sheet. What identification test should be performed next?

BA: (M) small grey AH, mucoid

Gram: Gram positive cocci in pairs

Catalase: negative

Bile Solubility: soluble

a)

Bile Esculin

b)

Optochin

c)

PathoDX

d)

Staphaurex

38.

What confirmation test should be performed for this isolate?

BA: (A) small grey BH

Gram: Gram positive cocci in chains

Catalase: negative

PathoDX: A: negative

B: positive

a)

Bile Solubility

b)

Bile Esculin

c)

PYR

d)

CAMP

39.

What mechanism of resistance is responsible for a positive D-zone?

a)

mecA gene

b)

vanB gene

c)

erm gene

d)

beta-lactamase

40.

True or false. A large presence of squamous epithelial cells (SECs) in a direct Gram is suggestive of severe infection.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

A direct Gram of a wound swab showed abudant Gram positive cocci in clusters. What would you expect the growth on the BA to look like?

a)

white opaque

b)

small grey

c)

grey glistening

d)

dull white

42.

Which test result does not correlate?

BA: (A) small grey BH

Gram: Gram positive cocci in pairs

Catalase: positive

PathoDX: A: Positive

B:Negative

PYR: positive

(a)  

43.

The ELEK test is used to confirm the identification of what bacterial organism?

a)

VRE

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

Abiotrophia sp.

d)

Globulicatella sp.

44.

Which of the following tests is most appropriate to differentiate Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci?

a)

Optochin sensitivity

b)

Indole test

c)

Coagulase test

d)

Novobiocin sensitivity

45.

What bacteria is this test used to identify?

a)

Campylobacter jejuni

b)

Vibrio cholerae

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

Aeromonas hydrophila

46.

A key symptom associate with this disease is 'rice water stool'.

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

Yersinia enterocolitica

c)

Plesiomonas shigelloides

d)

Shigella sonnei

47.

What can you determine from this triple sugar iron slant?

a)

The organism produced H2S gas

b)

The organism fermented glucose

c)

The organism fermented sucrose or lactose

d)

The organism produced gas

48.

A technologist reported Escherichia coli based on the following test results.
Gram: gnb

Oxidase: negative

TSI: A/A gas

Motility = pos

Indole = pos

Lysine = pos

Urea = pos

Citrate = neg

What test needs to be repeated for this ID to be valid?

a)

Indole

b)

Lysine

c)

Urea

d)

Citrate

49.

Which of the following colonial morphologies is suggestive of Proteus mirabilis?

a)

b)

c)

d)

50.

Interpret this nitrate reductase test.

Note; Sulfanilic acid, a-napthylamine and zinc dust were added to the tube)

a)

Nitrate negative

b)

Nitrate positive

c)

Nitrite positive

d)

Invalid

51.

A shiny grey BH bacteria is growing on the BA and has a grape-like odor. What is the expected oxidase result?

a)

positive

b)

negative

52.

What is the treatment of choice for Stenotrophomonas maltophilia?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Metrodidazole

c)

Nitrofurantoin

d)

Sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim

53.

Which Gram stain most closely resemble Acinetobacter baumannii?

a)

b)

c)

54.

What test is used to differentiate between Haemophilus influenzae and Haemophilus parainfluenzae?

a)

BA with staph streak

b)

Oxidase

c)

Porphyrin

d)

Cefinase

55.

An anaerobic bacteria growing on the VITK fluoresces chartreuse. What is the most likely identification of this organism?

a)

Prevotella sp.

b)

Porphyromonas sp.

c)

Bacteroides fragilis group

d)

Fusobacterium sp.

56.

Interpret the following aerotolerance test:
CHOC: sm grey

VITK: sm grey

Gram: Gram positive cocci

a)

Strict aerobe

b)

Strict anaerobe

c)

Facultative anaerobe

d)

Capnophile

57.

A Gram-negative cocci organism is Butyrate esterase positive. What is the likely identification.

a)

Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c)

Moraxella catarrhalis

d)

Pasteurella multocida

58.

Interpret the MIL

a)

Motility: pos

Indole: pos

Lysine: neg

b)

Motility: neg

Indole: neg

Lysine: neg

c)

Motility: pos

Indole: neg

Lysine: pos

d)

Motility: neg

Indole: neg

Lysine: pos

59.

An organism growing on VITK after 10 days shows white colonies that resemble a molar tooth. Sulfur granules were noted in the aspirate that was submitted.

What is the Gram stain of this organism?

a)

Gram-positive bacilli, branching

b)

Gram-positive bacilli, large

c)

Gram-negative coccobacilli

d)

Gram-negative diplococci

60.

Name the organism that was isolated from a urine sample:

BA: grey glistening NH, mucoid

MAC: LF mucoid

Oxidase: negative

TSI: A/A gas

Motility: nonmotile

Indole: positive

Lysine: positive

VP: positive

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Klebsiella oxytoca

c)

Enterobacter cloacae

d)

Citrobacter freundii

61.

What is the presumptive organism ID?

BA: grey NH, lavender-green hue

Gram: gnb

Oxidase: negative

OF: Oxidizer

Nitrate: variable

Motility: motile

MAC: NLF

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Acinetobacter baumanii

c)

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

d)

Achromobacter xylosoxidans

62.

A mannitol fermenter is seen on the Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin agar. What biochemical test would help differentiate the stool pathogen from NF?

a)

Motility

b)

Citrate

c)

Rhamnose

d)

Oxidase

63.

What biochemical test can help differentiate Peptostreptococcus anaerobius from other anaerobic Gram-positive cocci?

a)

KVC disks

b)

SPS disk

c)

reverse CAMP

d)

Indole

64.

What bacteria appears as Gram ghosts when stained with the Gram stain?

a)

Cryptococcus neoformans

b)

Mycoplasma hominis

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex

d)

Nocardia asteroides

65.

A bacteria has a fried-egg appearance on media and is arginine hydrolysis positive. What is the name of the organism?

a)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

b)

Mycoplasma hominis

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Legionella pneumophilia

66.

What environmental Gram negative bacillus grows on BCYE agar as mottled ground glass?

a)

Burkholderia cepacia

b)

Nocardia asteroides

c)

Bordetella pertussis

d)

Legionella pneumophila

67.

Which member of the AACEK group pits the agar and has a bleach-like odor?

a)

Kingella kingae

b)

Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

c)

Eikenella corrodens

d)

Cardiobacterium hominis

68.

Which of the following are considered Risk Group 3 pathogens?

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Bordetella pertussis

c)

Francisella tularensis

d)

Brucella melitensis

e)

Burkholderia mallei

69.

Which spirochete causes acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

a)

Borrelia recurrentis

b)

Brachyspira sp.

c)

Treponema vincentii

d)

Leptospira sp.

70.

The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for causing what disease?

a)

Lyme disease

b)

Glanders disease

c)

Bang's disease

d)

Pelvic Inflammatory disease