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Lesson 24 – Ecology and Species Interactions

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Ecology?

a)

Study of interactions among organisms and their environment

b)

Study of physical factors only

c)

Study of chemical reactions

d)

Study of weather patterns

2.

Fill in the blank: Biotic interactions are interactions among ________ things.

a)

living

b)

non-living

c)

artificial

d)

imaginary

3.

Fill in the blank: Abiotic interactions are between organisms and their ________ environment.

a)

nonliving

b)

living

c)

social

d)

internal

4.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the scientific method?

a)

B) Hypothesis formation

b)

E) Experimentation

c)

D) Guessing

d)

C) Data analysis

e)

A) Observations

5.

Fill in the blank: Physical factors such as ________ regulate physiological processes, dictating species survival and geographic distribution based on growth conditions.

a)

Temperature

b)

Humidity

c)

Altitude

d)

Salinity

6.

Which physical factor shapes vegetation structures and influences seed dispersal?

a)

Temperature

b)

Wind

c)

Water

d)

Light

7.

Water determines species aggregation, vegetation, and biodiversity.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Fill in the blank: High salinity reduces plant growth; affects ________ in marine and freshwater environments.

a)

osmosis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

respiration

d)

transpiration

9.

In polar areas, the Sun’s rays strike the Earth at an oblique angle and deliver ________ less energy than at tropical locations.

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

40%

d)

60%

10.

In tropical areas, the Sun’s energy is concentrated over a smaller surface area and travels a shorter distance through the atmosphere.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Fill in the blank: Majority of heat radiated from Earth is redirected back to Earth by ________ gases.

a)

greenhouse

b)

oxygen

c)

nitrogen

d)

argon

12.

What type of interaction is described by the following: Both species benefit from the interaction?

a)

A) Mutualism

b)

B) Predation

c)

C) Commensalism

d)

D) Amensalism

13.

According to the competitive exclusion principle, can two different species occupy the same exact ecological niche at the same time?

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is resource partitioning? Fill in the blank: Resource partitioning is the differentiation of ______ in space and time that enables similar species to coexist.

a)

niches

b)

habitats

c)

populations

d)

ecosystems

15.

Based on the graph of lynx and hare populations, what is the relationship between lynx predation and hare population density?

a)

A) Lynx predation increases hare population

b)

B) Lynx predation decreases hare population

c)

C) Lynx predation has no effect on hare population

d)

D) Lynx predation causes hare population to oscillate

16.

What is the main idea of the bottom-up control model in ecology?

a)

A) Predators control population dynamics

b)

B) Resources such as nutrients and food control population dynamics

c)

C) Both predators and resources control population dynamics

d)

D) None of the above

17.

In the top-down control model, what regulates the population of lower trophic levels? Fill in the blank: In the top-down control model, ______ regulate the population of lower trophic levels by their feeding interactions.

a)

predators

b)

plants

c)

decomposers

d)

nutrients

18.

Refer to the table of species interactions. Which type of interaction is described as '+/+'?

a)

A) Mutualism

b)

B) Predation

c)

C) Commensalism

d)

D) Amensalism

19.

According to the competitive exclusion principle, can two different species occupy the same exact ecological niche at the same time?

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What is resource partitioning?

a)

Resource partitioning is the differentiation of niches in space and time that enables similar species to coexist.

b)

Resource partitioning is the process by which organisms compete for the same resources until one is eliminated.

c)

Resource partitioning refers to the physical separation of species by barriers such as mountains or rivers.

d)

Resource partitioning is the sharing of food resources equally among all species in an ecosystem.

21.

Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

a)

A) Blue poison dart frog

b)

B) King snake

c)

C) Hare

d)

D) Bird

22.

According to the graph, what is the relationship between the abundance of lynx and hares over time?

a)

The abundance of lynx and hares shows a characteristic 9–11-year oscillation, with lynx populations following the fluctuations in hare populations.

b)

The abundance of lynx and hares remains constant over time, with no noticeable fluctuations.

c)

Lynx populations peak before hare populations, showing no correlation between their abundances.

d)

Hare populations decrease steadily while lynx populations increase continuously.

23.

Which model suggests that the abundance and distribution of populations are regulated by the availability of resources such as nutrients and food?

a)

A) Top-down control

b)

B) Bottom-up control

24.

In the top-down control model, what is the primary factor regulating the population dynamics of lower trophic levels?

a)

The impact of consumers (predators) at higher trophic levels.

b)

The availability of sunlight.

c)

The rate of nutrient cycling.

d)

The amount of rainfall.

25.

What is the study of interactions among organisms and their environment called?

a)

Biotic interactions

b)

Ecology

c)

Abiotic interactions

d)

Population

26.

Fill in the blank: Biotic interactions are interactions among ________ things.

a)

living

b)

non-living

c)

artificial

d)

imaginary

27.

Which of the following investigates how adaptations and choices by individual animals affect reproduction and survival?

a)

Population

b)

Organismal

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

28.

Which level of ecological organization focuses on groups of inter-breeding individuals and species interactions?

a)

Organismal

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

29.

Fill in the blank: The scientific method includes observations, hypothesis formation, experimentation, data analysis, and ________ or rejection of hypothesis.

a)

acceptance

b)

prediction

c)

measurement

d)

classification

30.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the scientific method?

a)

A) Observations

b)

B) Hypothesis formation

c)

C) Data analysis

d)

D) Population growth

31.

Temperature regulates physiological processes, dictating species survival and geographic distribution based on growth conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

In polar areas, the Sun’s rays strike the Earth at an oblique angle and deliver 40% less energy than at tropical locations.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What is the effect of greenhouse gases on Earth's heat radiation?

a)

They increase heat loss to space

b)

They redirect heat back to Earth

c)

They have no effect

d)

They cool the atmosphere

34.

What is the definition of 'Population' as described in LO26.1?

a)

A group of interbreeding individuals occupying the same habitat at the same time.

b)

A collection of different species living in a region.

c)

A group of non-interacting individuals in various locations.

d)

A set of organisms sharing similar traits but living separately.

35.

What does 'Population ecology' study according to LO26.1?

a)

Studies factors affecting population size and how they change over space and time.

b)

Studies the genetic makeup of populations and how it changes over generations.

c)

Studies the interactions between different species in a community.

d)

Studies the physical and chemical properties of ecosystems.

36.

What is 'Demography' as defined in LO26.1?

a)

Birth rates, death rates, age distributions, and sizes of populations.

b)

The study of weather patterns and climate change.

c)

Analysis of economic growth and market trends.

d)

Research on animal behavior and migration.

37.

What does 'Density' refer to in population ecology?

a)

Number of organisms in a given unit area.

b)

Total biomass of organisms in an ecosystem.

c)

Rate of birth in a population.

d)

Ratio of predators to prey in a habitat.

38.

Which method estimates population size by counting individuals within a series of randomly placed square plots?

a)

Mark-Recapture

b)

Quadrat Method

c)

Pitfall Trap

d)

Mist Net

39.

Which method involves capturing and marking some individuals, releasing them, and then recapturing to determine the percentage marked?

a)

Quadrat Method

b)

Mark-Recapture

c)

Uniform Dispersion

d)

Iteroparity

40.

What is 'Dispersion' in the context of population ecology? (LO26.3)

a)

Degree of spacing between individuals in a population.

b)

Rate of population growth over time.

c)

Total number of species in an ecosystem.

d)

Average lifespan of individuals in a population.

41.

What does 'Survivorship' refer to?

a)

Proportion of individuals in a population that survive to a particular age.

b)

Rate at which a population increases in size.

c)

Number of offspring produced by an individual.

d)

Average lifespan of a species.

42.

What is 'Fecundity'?

a)

The potential reproductive capacity of an individual or population, often measured by the number of offspring produced.

b)

The ability of an organism to survive in extreme conditions.

c)

The process of photosynthesis in plants.

d)

The migration pattern of animals during winter.

43.

Which of the following is a density-dependent factor? (LO26.5)

a)

Weather

b)

Natural disasters

c)

Competition

d)

Temperature

44.

Which of the following is a density-independent factor? (LO26.5)

a)

Disease

b)

Predation

c)

Weather

d)

Competition

45.

What is the difference between semelparity and iteroparity?

a)

Semelparity: produce all offspring in a single reproductive event. Iteroparity: patterns of repeated reproduction throughout life cycle.

b)

Semelparity: repeated reproduction throughout life cycle. Iteroparity: single reproductive event.

c)

Semelparity: only occurs in mammals. Iteroparity: only occurs in birds.

d)

Semelparity: involves no parental care. Iteroparity: involves extensive parental care.

46.

In the exponential and logistic growth models (LO26.4), what does the carrying capacity (K) represent?

a)

The maximum population size that an environment can sustain.

b)

The rate at which a population grows exponentially.

c)

The minimum population size required for survival.

d)

The average lifespan of individuals in a population.

47.

Which of the following is the correct definition of genetic diversity?

a)

The number and relative abundance of species in a community.

b)

The diversity of structure and function within an ecosystem.

c)

The amount of genetic variation within and between populations.

d)

The process of natural selection.

48.

Which of the following is NOT a main cause of extinction listed in the worksheet?

a)

Introduced species

b)

Direct exploitation

c)

Habitat creation

d)

Climate change

49.

Fill in the blank: The number and relative abundance of species in a community is called ________ diversity.

a)

species

b)

genetic

c)

ecosystem

d)

population

50.

Fill in the blank: The diversity of structure and function within an ecosystem is called ________ diversity.

a)

ecosystem

b)

genetic

c)

species

d)

population

51.

Healthy ecosystems provide essential services such as air filtration, water, fossil fuels, timber, and nutrient cycling.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which hypothesis suggests a linear correlation between species diversity and ecosystem function, indicating that more diverse ecosystems tend to be more stable and resilient?

a)

Species-Area Relationship

b)

Biodiversity-Stability Hypothesis: Elton’s hypothesis

c)

Community Function Hypothesis

d)

Field Experiment Hypothesis

53.

What is the effect of inbreeding in small populations?

a)

Increases genetic diversity

b)

Decreases reproductive fitness

c)

Increases population size

d)

Decreases homozygosity

54.

Fill in the blank: The effective population size (EPS) is the number of individuals that contribute ________ to future populations.

a)

genes

b)

energy

c)

offspring

d)

habitat

55.

Genetic drift is more likely to decrease genetic diversity in large populations than in small populations.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

The formula F = 1/(2N) represents which concept in the context of population genetics?

a)

The probability of fixation of a new mutation

b)

The inbreeding coefficient in a finite population

c)

The rate of genetic drift in a population

d)

The mutation rate per generation

57.

According to the worksheet, the impact of human population growth on biodiversity is:

a)

an increase in biodiversity

b)

a decrease in biodiversity

c)

no impact on biodiversity

d)

biodiversity remains stable

58.

What is the primary function of the respiratory system?

a)

Remove waste products from blood

b)

Deliver oxygen to body tissues

c)

Produce hormones

d)

Digest food

59.

Which of the following is NOT a structure of the respiratory system?

a)

Gills

b)

Lungs

c)

Tracheae

d)

Heart

60.

Fill in the blank: Direct diffusion in respiration is sufficient for ______ organisms.

a)

unicellular

b)

multicellular

c)

complex

d)

plant

61.

Which adaptation allows fish to obtain oxygen?

a)

Lungs

b)

Gills

c)

Skin

d)

Tracheae

62.

Respiratory complexity correlates with organism size and environment.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What is the defined pressure of one atmosphere?

a)

100 mm Hg

b)

760 mm Hg

c)

159.2 mm Hg

d)

600.6 mm Hg

64.

Fill in the blank: The partial pressure of oxygen (O2) in ambient air is ______ mm Hg.

a)

160

b)

100

c)

80

d)

200

65.

Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for gas exchange in alveoli?

a)

Bronchi

b)

Capillaries

c)

Alveolar sac

d)

Diaphragm

66.

Fill in the blank: The diaphragm contracts to increase ______ cavity volume, drawing air into the lungs.

a)

thoracic

b)

abdominal

c)

cranial

d)

pelvic

67.

Which of the following is a common respiratory disease?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Asthma

c)

Arthritis

d)

Hypertension

68.

Environmental factors like pollution and smoking can exacerbate respiratory diseases.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which type of vertebrate has a single circuit and two-chambered heart?

a)

Fish

b)

Amphibians

c)

Reptiles

d)

Mammals

70.

Mammals have a fully divided ______-chambered heart.

a)

four

b)

two

c)

three

d)

five

71.

Which vessel has the thickest tunica media?

a)

Large vein

b)

Elastic artery

c)

Muscular artery

d)

Venule

72.

The electrical impulses generated by the ______ node spread through the atria, causing atrial contraction.

a)

sinoatrial (SA)

b)

atrioventricular (AV)

c)

bundle of His

d)

Purkinje

73.

Which phase of the ECG corresponds to ventricular excitation?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

U wave

74.

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) controls blood pressure by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin II, causing vasoconstriction and aldosterone release.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Atherosclerosis impacts cardiovascular health by causing ______ buildup in arteries and higher risks of heart attacks and strokes.

a)

plaque

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

calcium

76.

Which type of white blood cell is involved in the immune response?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

All of the above

77.

The innermost layer of an artery is called the ______.

a)

endothelium

b)

adventitia

c)

smooth muscle

d)

pericardium

78.

Which abiotic factor influences the metabolic rates of organisms and the timing of biological processes?

a)

Precipitation

b)

Temperature

c)

Salinity

d)

Light Availability

79.

What does precipitation provide that is essential for plant growth, influencing vegetation types and density?

a)

Water

b)

Sunlight

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Nutrients

80.

Which of the following is NOT an abiotic factor in an aquatic ecosystem?

a)

Water

b)

Temperature

c)

Coral polyps

d)

Salinity

81.

Fill in the blank: The _______ zone of the marine biome is found between high and low tides and experiences submersion and exposure.

a)

Intertidal

b)

Abyssal

c)

Pelagic

d)

Benthic

82.

Which marine zone is characterized by high productivity and is nutrient-rich, extending from low tide mark to continental shelf edge?

a)

Neritic Zone

b)

Pelagic Realm

c)

Benthic Zone

d)

Abyssal Zone

83.

The abyssal zone is found at depths beyond 4,000 meters, is dark and cold, and has high pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which aquatic ecosystem is built by coral polyps and is highly sensitive to temperature and water quality?

a)

Coral reefs

b)

Mangrove forests

c)

Freshwater lakes

d)

Kelp forests

85.

Which of the following is a freshwater region?

a)

Coral reefs

b)

Lentic habitats

c)

Open ocean

d)

Salt marshes

86.

Which terrestrial biome has an average temperature of 25°C and precipitation of 100cm?

a)

Tropical rain forest

b)

Tropical grassland (savanna)

c)

Temperate grassland (prairie)

d)

Temp rain forest

87.

Fill in the blank: The _______ zone of the ocean is home to bottom-dwelling organisms and has varying physical properties and nutrients from detritus.

a)

Benthic

b)

Pelagic

c)

Abyssal

d)

Photic

88.

Which factor determines the depth of the photic zone and influences the distribution and diversity of photosynthetic organisms in aquatic biomes?

a)

Water Density

b)

Light Availability

c)

Temperature

d)

Salinity