Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam Review Key

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the control in an experiment?

a)

Part of experiment left alone, unchanged

b)

Part of experiment that is always changed

c)

Part of experiment that is measured

d)

Part of experiment that is ignored

2.

What is the experimental variable in an experiment?

a)

What is changed in experiment

b)

What is measured in experiment

c)

What stays the same in experiment

d)

What is observed in experiment

3.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

Tentative explanation or proposal

b)

A proven scientific law

c)

A mathematical formula

d)

A historical event

4.

What is an experiment?

a)

Testing hypothesis

b)

Writing a report

c)

Drawing a diagram

d)

Reading a book

5.

What is data in an experiment?

a)

Information gathered from experiment

b)

The tools used in the experiment

c)

The hypothesis of the experiment

d)

The conclusion drawn from the experiment

6.

What is a theory?

a)

Supported by experimental evidence that explains

b)

A guess without any evidence

c)

A law that cannot be changed

d)

A proven fact

7.

What is the difference between natural selection and artificial selection?

a)

Natural selection: born with characteristic to survive (camo); Artificial selection: human pick which to breed for characteristics

b)

Natural selection: humans choose traits; Artificial selection: environment selects traits

c)

Natural selection: only plants are involved; Artificial selection: only animals are involved

d)

Natural selection: traits are selected randomly; Artificial selection: traits are never selected

8.

List the characteristics of the following kingdoms: Archaea, Eubacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia.

a)

Archaea: prokaryotic, unicellular, no internal structures, extreme environments; Eubacteria: prokaryotic, unicellular, common environments; Protista: eukaryotic, uni and multicellular, auto & heterotrophic, some have cell walls; Fungi: eukaryotic, multicellular except for yeast, heterotrophic, cell walls of chitin; Plantae: eukaryotic, autotrophic, multicellular, cell walls of cellulose; Animalia: eukaryotic, multicellular, heterotrophic, no cell walls

b)

Archaea: eukaryotic, multicellular, cell walls of cellulose; Eubacteria: eukaryotic, multicellular, autotrophic; Protista: prokaryotic, unicellular, heterotrophic; Fungi: prokaryotic, unicellular, autotrophic; Plantae: prokaryotic, unicellular, heterotrophic; Animalia: prokaryotic, unicellular, autotrophic

c)

Archaea: prokaryotic, multicellular, cell walls of chitin; Eubacteria: eukaryotic, unicellular, autotrophic; Protista: eukaryotic, multicellular, autotrophic only; Fungi: eukaryotic, unicellular, autotrophic; Plantae: eukaryotic, unicellular, heterotrophic; Animalia: eukaryotic, unicellular, autotrophic

d)

Archaea: eukaryotic, unicellular, cell walls of cellulose; Eubacteria: prokaryotic, multicellular, autotrophic; Protista: prokaryotic, multicellular, autotrophic; Fungi: prokaryotic, multicellular, heterotrophic; Plantae: prokaryotic, multicellular, autotrophic; Animalia: prokaryotic, multicellular, heterotrophic

9.

Is a virus alive? Why or why not?

a)

No, no reproduction without a host

b)

Yes, viruses can reproduce independently

c)

Yes, viruses have cellular structure

d)

No, viruses are made of living cells

10.

What is the difference between homologous structures and analogous structures?

a)

Homologous: similar structures in related (bat wing, flipper); Analogous: due to similar environment yet unrelated

b)

Homologous: found only in plants; Analogous: found only in animals

c)

Homologous: identical functions; Analogous: identical origins

d)

Homologous: due to similar environment yet unrelated; Analogous: similar structures in related species

11.

On the pH scale, what range is considered acidic and what range is considered basic?

a)

Acids below 7, bases above 7

b)

Acids above 7, bases below 7

c)

Acids below 5, bases above 9

d)

Acids above 9, bases below 5

12.

What is 10x in the context of pH scale?

a)

Each step on the pH scale is a tenfold change in concentration

b)

It means the pH value is multiplied by 10

c)

It refers to the temperature change in acids

d)

It indicates the color change in pH indicators

13.

What is the difference between oxidation and reduction reactions?

a)

OIL oxidation is loss of electrons, RIG reduction is gain of electrons

b)

OIL oxidation is gain of electrons, RIG reduction is loss of electrons

c)

Oxidation and reduction both involve gain of electrons

d)

Oxidation and reduction both involve loss of electrons

14.

What type of bond shares electrons?

a)

Covalent (including polar vs nonpolar)

b)

Ionic

c)

Metallic

d)

Hydrogen

15.

What type of bond involves the transfer of electrons?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

d)

Hydrogen

16.

What is a hydrogen bond between water molecules?

a)

Negative O attracted to positive H of neighboring molecule

b)

Positive O attracted to positive H of neighboring molecule

c)

Negative H attracted to negative O of neighboring molecule

d)

Negative O attracted to negative H of neighboring molecule

17.

What is the difference between hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions?

a)

Hydrophobic: does not dissolve in water (oil); Hydrophilic: loves water

b)

Hydrophobic: dissolves in water; Hydrophilic: repels water

c)

Hydrophobic: forms strong hydrogen bonds; Hydrophilic: does not interact with water

d)

Hydrophobic: is always ionic; Hydrophilic: is always covalent

18.

11. A water molecule consists of which atoms and what type of bonding occurs between water molecules?

a)

Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom; hydrogen bonding

b)

Two oxygen atoms and one hydrogen atom; ionic bonding

c)

One hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms; covalent bonding

d)

Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom; ionic bonding

19.

List properties of water.

a)

Floats, high heat capacity, surface tension (lizard on water)

b)

Low heat capacity, sinks, no surface tension

c)

No heat capacity, evaporates instantly, no surface tension

d)

Sinks, low heat capacity, no surface tension

20.

Cohesion, adhesion, and capillary action in water refer to which of the following?

a)

Cohesion is the attraction between water molecules, adhesion is the attraction between water and other substances, and capillary action is the movement of water through narrow spaces due to these forces.

b)

Cohesion is the attraction between water and other substances, adhesion is the attraction between water molecules, and capillary action is the evaporation of water.

c)

Cohesion is the movement of water through narrow spaces, adhesion is the attraction between water molecules, and capillary action is the attraction between water and other substances.

d)

Cohesion is the attraction between water molecules, adhesion is the evaporation of water, and capillary action is the movement of water due to gravity.

21.

14. Which of the following correctly lists the elements, monomer, function, kcals/gram, and examples of macromolecules?

a)

Carbohydrates: C, H, O; Monomer: Monosaccharide; Function: Energy; Kcals/gram: 4; Examples: Glucose, starch

b)

Proteins: C, H, O, N; Monomer: Fatty acid; Function: Energy storage; Kcals/gram: 9; Examples: Hemoglobin, enzymes

c)

Lipids: C, H, O; Monomer: Amino acid; Function: Structure; Kcals/gram: 4; Examples: Cellulose, glycogen

d)

Nucleic acids: C, H, O, N, P; Monomer: Monosaccharide; Function: Energy; Kcals/gram: 4; Examples: DNA, RNA

22.

Describe the components of a cell membrane and draw a phospholipid showing the phosphate group interacting with water inside and outside the cell.

a)

A cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins, and the phosphate group of phospholipids interacts with water both inside and outside the cell.

b)

A cell membrane is made only of proteins, and the phosphate group does not interact with water.

c)

A cell membrane is composed of carbohydrates and the phosphate group interacts only with the inside of the cell.

d)

A cell membrane is made of a single layer of phospholipids and the phosphate group does not interact with water.

23.

What are the base pairing rules for DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA: A pairs with T, C pairs with G. RNA: A pairs with U, C pairs with G, and there is no T in RNA.

b)

DNA: A pairs with U, C pairs with G. RNA: A pairs with T, C pairs with G.

c)

DNA: A pairs with G, C pairs with T. RNA: A pairs with C, G pairs with U.

d)

DNA: A pairs with C, T pairs with G. RNA: A pairs with U, C pairs with T.

24.

What is the function of enzymes in biological reactions?

a)

Enzymes increase the speed of reactions and are very specific, usually catalyzing only one reaction with one substrate.

b)

Enzymes slow down biological reactions and are not specific to any substrate.

c)

Enzymes act as structural components in cells rather than catalysts.

d)

Enzymes store genetic information for cellular processes.

25.

What is the function of the nucleus in a cell?

a)

The nucleus is found in eukaryotes and contains tightly packed DNA.

b)

It produces energy for the cell.

c)

It helps in cell movement.

d)

It digests waste materials in the cell.

26.

What is the function of mitochondria in a cell?

a)

Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell, converting food into energy (ATP) and have their own DNA.

b)

Mitochondria store genetic information and control cell division.

c)

Mitochondria synthesize proteins for the cell membrane.

d)

Mitochondria are responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells.

27.

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus/body (cis and trans) in a cell?

a)

The Golgi apparatus collects, packages, modifies, and transports molecules. The trans side ships out molecules, and the cis side receives vesicles.

b)

The Golgi apparatus is responsible for cellular respiration and energy production.

c)

The Golgi apparatus synthesizes DNA and RNA for cell division.

d)

The Golgi apparatus breaks down waste materials and cellular debris.

28.

What is the function of the plasma membrane in a cell?

a)

The plasma membrane allows material to enter and leave the cell and is composed of phospholipids.

b)

The plasma membrane produces energy for the cell.

c)

The plasma membrane stores genetic information.

d)

The plasma membrane synthesizes proteins.

29.

What is the function of vesicles in a cell?

a)

Vesicles transport materials within the cell.

b)

Vesicles produce energy for the cell.

c)

Vesicles control cell division.

d)

Vesicles synthesize proteins.

30.

What is the function of the nucleolus in a cell?

a)

The nucleolus makes ribosomes.

b)

The nucleolus stores genetic material.

c)

The nucleolus produces energy.

d)

The nucleolus digests waste materials.

31.

What is the function of the cell wall in a cell?

a)

The cell wall protects and supports the cell; in bacteria, antibiotics can attack the cell wall.

b)

The cell wall produces energy for the cell.

c)

The cell wall stores genetic information.

d)

The cell wall is responsible for cell movement.

32.

What is the function of flagella in a cell?

a)

Flagella are responsible for movement in bacteria.

b)

Flagella help in protein synthesis.

c)

Flagella are involved in energy production.

d)

Flagella are used for cell division.

33.

What is the function of cilia in a cell?

a)

Cilia are short, used for sweeping motion, and are found in the respiratory tract.

b)

Cilia are responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells.

c)

Cilia store genetic information in the nucleus.

d)

Cilia help in the production of energy by mitochondria.

34.

What is the function of pili in a cell?

a)

Pili are used by bacteria for attachment.

b)

Pili are responsible for energy production in cells.

c)

Pili help in protein synthesis.

d)

Pili are involved in photosynthesis.

35.

What is the function of the central vacuole in a plant cell?

a)

The central vacuole stores water in plant cells.

b)

The central vacuole produces energy for the cell.

c)

The central vacuole synthesizes proteins.

d)

The central vacuole controls cell division.

36.

What is the function of chloroplasts in a cell?

a)

Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis and contain their own DNA.

b)

Chloroplasts are responsible for cellular respiration.

c)

Chloroplasts synthesize proteins for the cell.

d)

Chloroplasts store genetic information for reproduction.

37.

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) in a cell?

a)

The RER has ribosomes attached and is involved in protein modification.

b)

The RER is responsible for energy production in the cell.

c)

The RER stores genetic material.

d)

The RER is involved in lipid synthesis only.

38.

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) in a cell?

a)

The SER is involved in lipid production.

b)

The SER is responsible for protein synthesis.

c)

The SER is involved in cell division.

d)

The SER is responsible for energy production.

39.

What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?

a)

Ribosomes are responsible for protein production.

b)

Ribosomes store genetic information.

c)

Ribosomes help in cell division.

d)

Ribosomes are involved in energy production.

40.

What is the function of centrioles in a cell?

a)

Centrioles aid in cell division.

b)

Centrioles produce energy for the cell.

c)

Centrioles synthesize proteins.

d)

Centrioles store genetic information.

41.

Endosymbiosis/Endosymbiotic Theory: evolutionary process that gave rise to chloroplast & mitochondria in eukaryotic cells. The Endosymbiotic Theory explains how eukaryotic cells evolved by incorporating certain prokaryotic cells. What is the significance of the Endosymbiotic Theory in the evolution of eukaryotic cells?

a)

It explains the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria in eukaryotic cells.

b)

It describes how eukaryotic cells lost their organelles over time.

c)

It states that eukaryotic cells evolved from viruses.

d)

It suggests that eukaryotic cells developed organelles independently without any symbiosis.

42.

20. The components and functions of a cell membrane (including markers for identity) are:

a)

Phospholipids, proteins, carbohydrates; provide structure, transport, and cell identity markers

b)

Nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes; provide energy and protein synthesis

c)

Cell wall, chloroplasts, vacuole; provide support and photosynthesis

d)

DNA, RNA, cytoplasm; provide genetic information and metabolic reactions

43.

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. How is it different from osmosis (aquaporins) and facilitated diffusion (protein channel and protein carrier)? Name characteristics of membrane proteins.

a)

Diffusion does not require membrane proteins, while osmosis uses aquaporins and facilitated diffusion uses protein channels/carriers; membrane proteins are specific, can be channels or carriers, and assist in transport.

b)

Diffusion and osmosis both require protein carriers, while facilitated diffusion does not; membrane proteins are always enzymes.

c)

Diffusion uses energy, while osmosis and facilitated diffusion do not; membrane proteins are only found in animal cells.

d)

Diffusion is slower than osmosis and facilitated diffusion; membrane proteins are not involved in any transport processes.

44.

The three types of osmotic solutions are:

a)

Isotonic, hypertonic, hypotonic

b)

Isotonic, hypotonic, hydrotonic

c)

Hypertonic, hypotonic, hydrotonic

d)

Isotonic, hypertonic, hydrotonic

45.

The difference between passive and active transport is:

a)

Passive transport does not require energy, while active transport requires energy.

b)

Passive transport requires energy, while active transport does not.

c)

Both passive and active transport require energy.

d)

Neither passive nor active transport involves movement across membranes.

46.

Describe the types of bulk active transport.

a)

Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

b)

Diffusion and osmosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion and active transport

d)

Endocytosis and exocytosis

47.

25. Which of the following lists correctly names and describes different types of energy?

a)

Kinetic energy (energy of motion), Potential energy (stored energy), Thermal energy (energy from heat), Chemical energy (energy stored in bonds)

b)

Kinetic energy (energy of heat), Potential energy (energy of light), Thermal energy (energy of sound), Chemical energy (energy of motion)

c)

Kinetic energy (energy of light), Potential energy (energy of sound), Thermal energy (energy of motion), Chemical energy (energy from heat)

d)

Kinetic energy (energy of sound), Potential energy (energy of heat), Thermal energy (energy of light), Chemical energy (energy of motion)

48.

Oxidation and reduction reactions are also known as:

a)

Redox reactions

b)

Acid-base reactions

c)

Precipitation reactions

d)

Combustion reactions

49.

27. What happens in a reaction when NAD+ becomes NADH?

a)

NAD+ gains electrons and is reduced.

b)

NAD+ loses electrons and is oxidized.

c)

NAD+ is converted to ATP.

d)

NAD+ releases energy and forms water.

50.

In relation to enzymes, a substrate is the molecule upon which the enzyme acts, and a product is the molecule formed as a result of the enzyme's action.

a)

A substrate is the molecule upon which the enzyme acts, and a product is the molecule formed as a result of the enzyme's action.

b)

A substrate is the molecule formed after the enzyme acts, and a product is the molecule the enzyme binds to.

c)

A substrate and a product are both molecules that inhibit enzyme activity.

d)

A substrate is the molecule that destroys the enzyme, and a product is the molecule that is destroyed.

51.

If the active site is mutated, what happens?

a)

The enzyme may lose its function

b)

The enzyme becomes more efficient

c)

The substrate binds more strongly

d)

The enzyme produces more products

52.

Competitive inhibitor? Noncompetitive inhibitor (allosteric inhibitor and allosteric activator)? Binds to active site. Binds to other area of enzyme and causes a change in active site.

a)

Competitive inhibitor binds to active site; noncompetitive inhibitor binds to other area and changes active site.

b)

Competitive inhibitor binds to other area; noncompetitive inhibitor binds to active site.

c)

Both competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors bind to active site.

d)

Both competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors bind to other area of enzyme.

53.

Anabolic reactions are ______, catabolic reactions are ______, endergonic reactions ______ energy, and exergonic reactions ______ energy.

a)

building; breaking down; require; release

b)

breaking down; building; release; require

c)

building; breaking down; release; require

d)

breaking down; building; require; release

54.

Aerobic respiration reactants and products are:

a)

Glucose and oxygen; carbon dioxide, water, and energy

b)

Carbon dioxide and water; glucose and oxygen

c)

Glucose and carbon dioxide; oxygen and water

d)

Oxygen and water; glucose and energy

55.

Anaerobic respiration reactants and products?

a)

Glucose = carbon dioxide + alcohol or lactic acid

b)

Glucose = oxygen + water

c)

Glucose = carbon dioxide + water

d)

Glucose = oxygen + alcohol

56.

What stores electrons in glycolysis?

a)

NAD+

b)

ATP

c)

Glucose

d)

FAD

57.

Final products of glycolysis?

a)

Pyruvate, NADH, 2 ATP

b)

Glucose, NADPH, 4 ATP

c)

Lactate, FADH2, 2 GTP

d)

Acetyl-CoA, CO2, 2 NADH

58.

What steps occur in the mitochondria?

a)

Krebs & ETC

b)

Glycolysis & Fermentation

c)

Photosynthesis & Calvin Cycle

d)

Transcription & Translation

59.

What happens to oxygen during cell respiration?

a)

Reduced to form water

b)

Oxidized to form carbon dioxide

c)

Converted into glucose

d)

Released as a gas

60.

What happens to muscle cells during a tough workout?

a)

Glycolysis then lactate fermentation

b)

Photosynthesis then aerobic respiration

c)

Aerobic respiration then alcohol fermentation

d)

Protein synthesis then DNA replication

61.

In plants, CO2 becomes part of what molecule?

a)

Glucose

b)

Oxygen

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Water

62.

Name the parts of a chloroplast and what occurs in each part.

a)

Stroma – Calvin cycle (glucose production), thylakoid membrane - LDR

b)

Stroma – LDR, thylakoid membrane – Calvin cycle

c)

Thylakoid membrane – glucose production, stroma – LDR

d)

Stroma – photosynthesis, thylakoid membrane – respiration

63.

What happens if you take away light from a plant? If you take away CO2?

a)

No ATP or NADPH will be formed. ATP, NADPH will accumulate, no glucose made.

b)

The plant will produce more glucose and oxygen.

c)

Photosynthesis will speed up and more CO2 will be absorbed.

d)

The plant will continue to grow normally without any changes.

64.

Light dependent reactions require?

a)

Light, NADP, ADP, proton gradient

b)

Dark, NADPH, ATP, oxygen

c)

Light, FAD, GDP, carbon dioxide

d)

Heat, NADP, ADP, water

65.

A Calvin cycle/light-independent reaction requires?

a)

ATP and NADPH from LDR

b)

Oxygen and glucose

c)

Carbon dioxide and water only

d)

Sunlight and chlorophyll

66.

Function of stomata? Effects of a closed stomata?

a)

Allow for gas exchange, reduced sugar

b)

Absorb nutrients from soil, increased sugar

c)

Produce chlorophyll, increased water loss

d)

Store energy, increased oxygen release

67.

Name 2 types of signal receptors.

a)

intracellular and membrane

b)

cytoplasmic and nuclear

c)

extracellular and cytosolic

d)

plasma and vacuolar

68.

Describe 5 types of cellular communication:

a)

a. Direct – gap junctions, touch each other b. Paracrine – secretions affect cells in the area c. Endocrine – hormones released into circulatory system d. Synaptic – neuron to target cell e. Autocrine – cell signals itself

b)

a. Direct – gap junctions, touch each other b. Paracrine – secretions affect cells in the area c. Endocrine – hormones released into circulatory system d. Synaptic – neuron to target cell e. Exocrine – cell signals itself

c)

a. Direct – gap junctions, touch each other b. Paracrine – secretions affect cells in the area c. Endocrine – hormones released into circulatory system d. Synaptic – neuron to target cell e. Paracrine – cell signals itself

d)

a. Direct – gap junctions, touch each other b. Paracrine – secretions affect cells in the area c. Endocrine – hormones released into circulatory system d. Synaptic – neuron to target cell e. Endocrine – cell signals itself

69.

What is a protein kinase?

a)

an enzyme that adds a phosphate to a protein

b)

a molecule that breaks down proteins

c)

a receptor that binds to hormones

d)

a lipid that stores energy

70.

What is a phosphatase?

a)

an enzyme that removes a phosphate from a protein

b)

an enzyme that adds a methyl group to DNA

c)

a molecule that transports oxygen in blood

d)

a protein that binds to cell membranes

71.

DNA characteristics?

a)

Double helix, 2 strands twist, strands are complementary, arranged antiparallel to each other

b)

Single helix, 1 strand, strands are identical, arranged parallel to each other

c)

Triple helix, 3 strands twist, strands are random, arranged perpendicular to each other

d)

No helix, 4 strands, strands are not related, arranged in a circle

72.

What is semiconservative?

a)

Use original strand as a template to build a new strand

b)

Build a new strand without any template

c)

Use two new strands to form DNA

d)

Replicate DNA randomly without any template

73.

List enzymes involved in DNA replication and function.

a)

Polymerase III– adds new nucleotides to growing strand, gyrase – relieves strain on the strands, ligase – joins Okazaki fragments and DNA repair, helicase – unwinds DNA, Polymerase I – removes RNA primers and fills in gaps

b)

Amylase – breaks down starch, lactase – digests lactose, pepsin – digests proteins, lipase – digests fats, maltase – breaks down maltose

c)

ATP synthase – produces ATP, catalase – breaks down hydrogen peroxide, rubisco – fixes carbon dioxide, trypsin – digests proteins, urease – breaks down urea

d)

Kinase – adds phosphate groups, phosphatase – removes phosphate groups, dehydrogenase – transfers electrons, synthase – synthesizes molecules, isomerase – rearranges molecules

74.

Explain Griffith’s experiment and his results.

a)

Nonvirulent bacteria became virulent due to transformation

b)

Virulent bacteria lost their virulence after heat treatment

c)

Nonvirulent bacteria remained nonvirulent after mixing with virulent bacteria

d)

Virulent bacteria became nonvirulent due to transformation

75.

Franklin discovered:

a)

DNA

b)

Genetics

c)

Evolution

d)

Vaccination

76.

Identify the correctly labeled parts of a DNA molecule.

a)

Phosphate, Deoxyribose Sugar, Nitrogenous Base

b)

Phosphate, Ribose Sugar, Fatty Acid

c)

Glucose, Nitrogenous Base, Protein

d)

Deoxyribose Sugar, Fatty Acid, Phosphate

77.

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic chromosomes can be described as:

a)

Eukaryotic chromosomes are linear and found in a nucleus, while prokaryotic chromosomes are circular and found in the cytoplasm.

b)

Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic chromosomes are circular and found in the nucleus.

c)

Eukaryotic chromosomes are circular and found in the cytoplasm, while prokaryotic chromosomes are linear and found in a nucleus.

d)

Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic chromosomes are linear and found in the cytoplasm.

78.

DNA packaging in eukaryotes involves which of the following, and what is the importance of histones?

a)

DNA is wrapped around histones to form nucleosomes, which help compact and organize DNA.

b)

DNA is packaged without proteins and remains loose in the nucleus.

c)

Histones break down DNA for cellular energy.

d)

DNA is packaged only during cell division and histones are not involved.

79.

Homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids are different because:

a)

Homologous chromosomes are pairs of similar chromosomes from each parent, while sister chromatids are identical copies formed during DNA replication.

b)

Homologous chromosomes are identical copies formed during DNA replication, while sister chromatids are pairs from each parent.

c)

Homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids are both identical and come from the same parent.

d)

Homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids are both pairs from different species.

80.

The stages of the cell cycle and what occurs in each are:

a)

G1, S, G2, M; cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for division, cell divides

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase; chromosomes condense, align, separate, and decondense

c)

Interphase, Cytokinesis, Apoptosis, Differentiation; cell rests, divides, dies, and specializes

d)

G1, G2, M, S; cell grows, prepares for division, divides, DNA replicates

81.

Cytokinesis in a plant cell vs an animal cell can be described as:

a)

Plant cells form a cell plate, while animal cells form a cleavage furrow.

b)

Both plant and animal cells form a cell plate.

c)

Animal cells form a cell plate, while plant cells form a cleavage furrow.

d)

Both plant and animal cells form a cleavage furrow.

82.

Haploid? Diploid? Half number of chromosomes, total number of chromosomes.

a)

Haploid cells have half the number of chromosomes, diploid cells have the total number.

b)

Diploid cells have half the number of chromosomes, haploid cells have the total number.

c)

Both haploid and diploid cells have the same number of chromosomes.

d)

Haploid cells have the total number of chromosomes, diploid cells have half the number.

83.

An oncogene is:

a)

a gene that has the potential to cause cancer

b)

a gene that repairs DNA damage

c)

a gene responsible for cell differentiation

d)

a gene that suppresses tumors

84.

The function of tumor-suppressor genes and the effect of their mutation is:

a)

They prevent uncontrolled cell growth; mutation can lead to cancer.

b)

They promote cell division; mutation causes cell death.

c)

They repair DNA; mutation leads to enhanced immunity.

d)

They produce hormones; mutation results in metabolic disorders.

85.

The function of p53 is:

a)

Regulation of cell cycle and apoptosis

b)

Synthesis of proteins

c)

Transport of oxygen in blood

d)

Production of energy in mitochondria

86.

The final product of mitosis vs meiosis is:

a)

Two identical daughter cells vs four genetically unique daughter cells

b)

Four identical daughter cells vs two genetically unique daughter cells

c)

Two genetically unique daughter cells vs four identical daughter cells

d)

Four identical daughter cells vs two identical daughter cells

87.

The advantage of sexual reproduction is:

a)

It produces genetically identical offspring.

b)

It increases genetic variation among offspring.

c)

It requires only one parent.

d)

It always results in faster reproduction.

88.

A zygote is:

a)

a fertilized egg cell

b)

a type of blood cell

c)

an organelle in plant cells

d)

a hormone produced by the pancreas

89.

Nondisjunction is best described as:

a)

the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division

b)

the pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis

c)

the replication of DNA before cell division

d)

the fusion of gametes during fertilization

90.

Crossing over is ________. It occurs during ________. The structure formed is ________.

a)

the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes; prophase I of meiosis; chiasma

b)

the separation of sister chromatids; metaphase II of meiosis; spindle fibers

c)

the duplication of chromosomes; interphase; centromere

d)

the pairing of non-homologous chromosomes; anaphase I of meiosis; synaptonemal complex

91.

Who was the first to study inheritance? What was his term for genes?

a)

Gregor Mendel; factors

b)

Charles Darwin; traits

c)

Thomas Hunt Morgan; alleles

d)

James Watson; chromosomes

92.

Define the following term: Genotype

a)

Genotype is the allelic genetic make up of an organism.

b)

Genotype is the physical appearance of an organism.

c)

Genotype is the process of cell division.

d)

Genotype is the study of ecosystems.

93.

Define the following term: Phenotype

a)

Phenotype is the observable physical expression for a trait.

b)

Phenotype is the genetic makeup of an organism.

c)

Phenotype refers to the process of cell division.

d)

Phenotype is the study of heredity and variation.

94.

Define the following term: Dominant – the trait that you see, in pedigrees every generation shows trait

a)

Dominant is the trait that you see; in pedigrees, every generation shows the trait.

b)

Dominant is the trait that is always hidden and never appears in any generation.

c)

Dominant is the trait that only appears in the first generation and disappears in the next.

d)

Dominant is the trait that skips every other generation in pedigrees.

95.

Cross a homozygous dominant purple flower plant with a recessive white flower plant to the F2 generation. Purple is dominant. What are the genotypes and phenotypes in the F2 generation?

a)

Genotypes: 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1 pp; Phenotypes: 3 purple : 1 white

b)

Genotypes: 1 PP : 1 Pp : 2 pp; Phenotypes: 2 purple : 2 white

c)

Genotypes: 2 PP : 1 Pp : 1 pp; Phenotypes: 2 purple : 2 white

d)

Genotypes: 4 Pp; Phenotypes: 4 purple

96.

Work the genetic problems. b. Using the above information and R=round seeds, r=wrinkled seeds. Cross 2 double heterozygotes. What is the phenotype and ratio?

a)

9 round : 3 wrinkled : 3 round : 1 wrinkled

b)

9 round : 3 wrinkled : 3 wrinkled : 1 round

c)

9 round : 3 round : 3 wrinkled : 1 wrinkled

d)

9 round : 3 round : 3 round : 1 wrinkled

97.

Work the genetic problems. c. A black chicken is crossed with a white chicken to produce a gray chicken. Cross a gray with a black chicken. What are the possible offspring phenotypes and ratios?

a)

The possible offspring are black and gray chickens in a 1:1 ratio.

b)

All offspring will be gray chickens.

c)

The possible offspring are black, white, and gray chickens in equal ratios.

d)

All offspring will be black chickens.

98.

Jane has type A blood and Jack has O type blood. What are the possible blood types for their children?

a)

Only type A and type O

b)

Only type AB and type O

c)

Only type B and type O

d)

Only type AB and type B

99.

Where does your mitochondrial DNA come from?

a)

Mother

b)

Father

c)

Sibling

d)

Grandparent

100.
A table of arachnid and insect characteristics is shown. Which characteristic could be used to distinguish between
arachnids and insects?
(a)  
Choose from the below words
Presence of antennae
Jointed legs
Body segments
Presence of eyes
101.

Domain, ​ (a)   , Phylum, Class, ​ (b)   , ​ (c)   , Genus, ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
Kingdom
Order
Family
Species
102.

Match the following

a)

Animalia

1.

multicellular, heterotrophs, can move on their own, use oxygen

b)

Fungi

2.

unicellular or multicellular, don't move, decomposers

c)

Eubacteria

3.

unicellular, found in many places, some beneficial

d)

Plantae

4.

multicellular, use photosynthesis, have true roots, stems and leaves

e)

Protista

5.

unicellular or multicellular, can be plant-like, animal-like, or fungus-like,

103.

Which organelle is responsible for packaging and transporting proteins within a cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Ribosome

104.

Which property of water allows insects to walk on its surface?

a)

Surface tension

b)

Density

c)

Low heat capacity

d)

Evaporation

105.

What is the main function of the cell membrane?

a)

Regulates what enters and leaves the cell

b)

Produces energy for the cell

c)

Stores genetic information

d)

Helps in cell division