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Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 3hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In Darwin's thinking, the more closely related two different organisms are, the

a)

more similar their habitats are.

b)

less similar their DNA sequences are.

c)

more recently they shared a common ancestor.

d)

less likely they are to have the same genes in common.

e)

more similar they are in size.

2.

Natural selection is based on all of the following except

a)

genetic variation exists within populations.

b)

the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring.

c)

individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young.

d)

populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.

e)

individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.

3.

Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities?

a)

By identifying the bones as being analogous

b)

By the principle of convergent evolution

c)

By proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor

d)

By looking at where the animals live

4.

Which describes an African butterfly species that exists in two strikingly different color patterns?

a)

artificial selection

b)

directional selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

disruptive selection

e)

sexual selection

5.

Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time. Which of the following terms best describes this?

a)

artificial selection

b)

directional selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

disruptive selection

e)

sexual selection

6.

Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Those producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this?

a)

artificial selection

b)

directional selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

disruptive selection

e)

sexual selection

7.

Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian islands have different elaborate courtship rituals that involve fighting other males and stylized movements that attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent?

a)

habitat isolation

b)

temporal isolation

c)

behavioral isolation

d)

gametic isolation

e)

postzygotic barriers

8.

All of the following are examples of events that can prevent breeding between species EXCEPT:

a)

The potential mates experience geographical isolation.

b)

The potential mates experience behavioral isolation.

c)

The potential mates have different courtship rituals.

d)

The potential mates have similar breeding seasons.

e)

The gametes of potential mates have biochemical differences.

9.

All of the following are part of Hardy Weinberg law for populations in equilibirum EXCEPT

a)

Large population

b)

No immigration or emigration

c)

No natural selection

d)

Non random mating

e)

No genetic mutations

10.
Using the cladogram:  a common ancestor of amphibians and ray-finned fish would have
a)
a bony skeleton
b)
four limbs
c)
scaly skin
d)
eggs with shells
11.
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular recessive allele a is .4.  What is the percentage of the population heterozygous for this allele?
a)
4 percent
b)
16 percent
c)
32 percent
d)
48 percent
12.
The differences in sparrow songs among sympatric species of sparrows are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
convergent evolution
c)
behavioral isolation
d)
mechanical isolation
13.
Two allopatric species of sparrows have very similar niches when compared to two sympatric species of sparrows.  What would be a good explanation for this?
a)
The allopatric species have no competition with one another so therefore can occupy similar niches
b)
The sympatric species are usually mechanically isolated from one another
c)
The sympatric species diverged from a common ancestor
d)
The allopatric species are behaviorally isolated from one another
14.
The Tasmanian devil is a marsupial that resembles the North America wolf, which is a placental mammal.
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
15.
A migratory bird unknowingly accumulates a few seeds of the hwagha plant in her feathers and drops them in an area where those plants did not live before.  This is an example of
a)
Founder Effect
b)
Predation
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Migration
16.
What explains the inclusion of rabbits?
a)
they are an outgroup
b)
they are the most recent ancestor of primates
c)
they have a short generation time and are easy to study
d)
they possess shared derived characteristics of the included species
17.
In the early 2000s, White Nose fungus caused a mass die-off of native American bat species. Those bats that survived will continue the population with their own allele frequencies.  What type of genetic drift is this?
a)
Founder Effect
b)
Bottlenose Effect
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Migration Effect
18.
Two populations of a species of squirrel are isolated from each other. One population is larger in number than the other. A new disease, which is easily spread and extremely contagious, affects both populations at the same time. Which of the following is the best prediction of how the new disease will affect the two populations?
a)
The two populations will be equally affected as they are the same species
b)
The larger population will be more affected as they have greater genetic variation
c)
The smaller population will be more affected as they have less genetic variation
d)
The smaller population will not be affected
19.
The evolution of one species into two or more species as a result of different populations becoming​ reproductively isolated from each other is:
a)
Reproductive selection
b)
Adaptive radiation
c)
Artificial selection
d)
Independent assortment
20.
A population of snails has the dominant trait of brown stripes and the recessive trait of solid brown shell color. If the current population has 17% solid brown, what is the expected frequency of homozygous striped shells?
a)
0.35
b)
0.59
c)
59%
d)
35%
21.

Yeast, when put into a glucose solution, will produce a large amount of alcohol and CO2 through which process?

a)

Alcohol Fermentation

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Lactic Acid Fermentation

22.

Which of the following matches the correct organelle to the process shown in the image?

a)

Mitochondria: Photosynthesis

b)

Mitochondria: Cellular Respiration

c)

Chloroplast: Photosynthesis

d)

Chloroplast: Cellular Respiration

23.

Which BEST describes the overall process of photosynthesis?

a)

Light energy converted into chemical energy

b)

Chemical energy converted into light energy

c)

Light energy converted into heat energy

d)

Molecular energy into kinetic energy

24.

In mitochondria, during the process of cellular respiration, what is the overall product created?

a)

ATP Molecules

b)

Glucose

c)

Acohol

d)

Lactic Acid

25.

Which of the processes below make a larger amount of net ATP molecules overall?

a)

Aerobic Respiration

b)

Anaerobic Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Metabolism

26.

Which of the following is a good example of the organic molecules, lipids?

a)

Vegetable oil

b)

Table salt

c)

Sucrose

d)

Egg whites

27.

Enzyme actions rates are effected by factors such as pH and temperature. Which of the following BEST describes an enzyme working at its optimum rate in this diagram?

a)

The enzyme functioning at 15oC

b)

The enzyme functioning at 22oC

c)

The enzyme functioning at 37oC

d)

The enzyme functioning at 50oC

28.

In enzyme reactions, what would happen if you correctly matched an enzyme to its proper substrate?

a)

The reaction would stop immediately

b)

The reaction would be maintained indefinitely

c)

The reaction rate would increase

d)

The reaction rate would decrease

29.

Macromolecules can be broken down into smaller monomers. Which of the following options pairs the complex molecule with its correct monomer?

a)
b)
c)
d)
30.

Which of the following is a role of carbohydrates in animal cells?

a)

synthesizing proteins

b)

developing enzymes

c)

storing energy as glycogen

d)

protecting the cell wall

31.

All organic compounds have which of the following in common?

a)

They contain carbon

b)

They contain nitrogen

c)

They contain water

d)

They contain carbon dioxide

32.

Enzymes are affected by high temperatures and are often denatured. Which BEST describes what happens when an enzyme is denatured?

a)

A very high temperature changes a protein's amino acids.

b)

A very high temperature changes a protein's shape.

c)

A very high temperature adds polymers to a protein.

d)

A very high temperature removes polymers from a protein.

33.

How do enzymes affect reaction rates in living cells?

a)

Change the active site's energy

b)

Slow the speed of reactions

c)

Change the temperature of the reaction

d)

Lowers the activation energy of the reaction

34.

Nucleotides are monomers of which complete macromolecule?

a)

DNA and RNA

b)

Proteins

c)

Fats and Waxes

d)

Sugars and Starches

35.

Lipids fulfill which function in animal cells?

a)

long-term energy storage

b)

cell wall structure

c)

genetic and hereditary information storage

d)

immune system antibody formation

36.

Which of the following best describes the flow of gases into and out of a leaf through stomata, the specialized openings on the bottom of leaves, on a sunny day?

a)

Carbon dioxide moves in; oxygen moves out.

b)

Carbon dioxide and oxygen move in; ozone moves out.

c)

Water vapor and ozone move in; carbon dioxide moves out.

d)

Oxygen moves in; nitrogen moves out.

37.

According to the image, which input molecules are needed to allow the Calvin cycle to take place?

a)

water and oxygen and light

b)

ADP and NADP and water

c)

light and oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

ATP and NADPH and carbon dioxide

38.

Which equations BEST summarizes the photosynthesis formula?

a)

6CO2+ 6O2→ C6H1206+ 6H2O

b)

6O2+ C6H1206 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6O2+ 6H2O + 6O2 → C6H1206

d)

6CO2+ 6H2O → C6H1206+ 6O2

39.

Which of the following is true of ATP?

a)

ATP consists of two ADP molecules.

b)

Chlorophyll forms when ATP releases energy.

c)

ATP provides energy for cells.

d)

Used ATP is discarded by the cell as waste.

40.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of events during Cellular Respiration?

a)

glycolysis → fermentation → Krebs cycle

b)

Krebs cycle → electron transport → glycolysis

c)

glycolysis → Krebs cycle → electron transport

d)

Krebs cycle → glycolysis → electron transport

41.

Which of the following takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell?

a)

glycolysis

b)

electron transport chain

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

ATP Synthesis

42.

What occurs when ATP is converted to ADP?

a)

Energy is stored in bonds.

b)

Energy is released from bonds.

c)

Energy remains in the same.

d)

The cell dies.

43.

An area that contains a large amount of particles is referred to as having a ________________________.

a)

low concentration

b)

high concentration

c)

diffusion

d)

osmosis

44.

Diffusion is the movement of

a)

water from low to high concentration

b)

particles from low to high concentration

c)

water from high to low concentration

d)

particles from high to low concentration

45.

Large molecules and ions (polar molecules) can easily pass through the cell membrane without any help.

a)

true- they pass right through

b)

false- they need a protein channel

46.

Which way would the purple molecules move through the semi permeable membrane if dissolved in water?

a)

From the A side to the B-side

b)

From the B side to the A side

c)

none of the purple molecules would move

47.
A white blood cell engulfing a bacteria is an example of:
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
cotransport
d)
facilitated diffusion
48.
Which shows a cell in hypotonic solution?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
It depends on the cell
49.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
50.
Osmosis is a form of ______________. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
51.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
52.

Solutes move with the concentration gradient, therefore no energy is used.

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

53.

What category of transport does this image represent?

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

54.

ATP is a form of energy used in...

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

55.
What is it called when molecules move across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a carrier protein?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
56.

When molecules are even on either side of a semipermeable membrane, the solution is considered...

a)

isotonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

hypertonic

d)
57.

Osmosis is... (choose the BEST response)

a)

the movement of water across a membrane

b)

the movement of water across a membrane through either facilitated diffusion or simple/passive diffusion

c)

water moving

d)

cytoplasm

58.

Which type of molecules can move through a cell membrane through simple/passive diffusion?

a)

Very small or non-polar molecules

b)

Large and polar molecules

c)

None

d)

Only CO2 and O2

59.

Which type of cells have cell walls?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Both plants and animals

d)

Exoskeletal cells

60.

Both plant and animals cells have mitochondria.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which cell type is more complex/evolved?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Bacteria

d)

Legume

62.

A cell membrane is primarily composed of a...

a)

phospholipid bilayer

b)

lipid layer

c)

lipid bylater

d)

saran wrap and aluminum foil

63.

A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called?

a)

Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail

b)

Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail

64.

A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails.

a)

phospholipid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Protein

65.
"Water Loving"
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydroloric
66.

It forms a boundary between the inside of the cell and the outside of the cell.

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Lipid Cleric Layer

c)

Membrane Gate

d)

Protein Receptors

67.
The difference between osmosis and diffusion is that
a)
diffusion is passive transport, whereas osmosis is active transport
b)
only in diffusion do molecules move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration
c)
osmosis is the opposite of diffusion and only involves the movement of water
d)
osmosis refers specifically to the movement of water, whereas diffusion refers to the movement of any type of molecules
68.

What do viruses need to reproduce?

a)

they need genetic material

b)

They need a host cell

c)

They need bacteria

d)

They need insulin

69.
How is cellular respiration related to photosynthesis?
a)
Both require oxygen to start
b)
respiration is the opposite of photosynthesis
c)
Both start with glycolysis
d)
Both end with 38 ATP for cells
70.
Which of the following statements are false?
a)
Glycolysis can occur with or without oxygen
b)
Glycolysis is the first step in both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
c)
Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
d)
Glycolysis produces 2 ATP, 2 Pyruvates, and 2 NADH
71.
What are the products (things that are made) in cellular respiration
a)
ATP
b)
Carbon dioxide (CO2)
c)
Water
d)
All of the above
72.
Glucose is broken down into pyruvate in a process known as 
a)
glycolysis
b)
electron transport
c)
the Krebs cycle
d)
phosphorylation
73.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
74.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
75.
Which of these molecules is released during the Kreb's cycle
a)
nitrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
hydrogen sulfide
d)
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
76.
What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 
a)
Transport electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain 
b)
Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration
c)
Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration
d)
Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis
77.

Which molecule enters Kreb's Cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

Glucose

c)

Acetyl CoA

78.
What enzyme in the ETC is responsible for generating the ATP molecules?
a)
ATPase
b)
ATP synthase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
none of the above
79.
Where does ETC occur?
a)
Mitochondrial matrix
b)
Outer mitochondrial membrane
c)
Inner mitochondrial membrane
d)
Cytosol
80.

after strenuous exercise, a muscle cell would contain decreased amounts of ______ and increased amounts of ______ ____

a)

glucose; ATP

b)

ATP; glucose

c)

oxygen; lactic acid

d)

lactic acid; ATP

81.
site of the krebs cycle
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
82.
During chemiosmosis
a)
H+ ions serve as the final electron acceptor
b)
a concentration gradient is generated when H+ ions are passively transported from the matrix to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion
c)
energy is released as H+ ions move freely across the mitochondrial membrane
d)
ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase
83.
What are the stages of cellular respiration in order?
a)
glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, the citric acid cycle
b)
oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis, the citric acid cycle
c)
glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation
d)
the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis
84.
What is the main purpose of the Krebs cycle?
a)
to produce ATP
b)
to produce electron donators
c)
to produce water
d)
to produce carbon dioxide
85.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
86.
What supplies the electrons that are lost in PS I?
a)
the electrons from PS II
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
87.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
88.
The light reactions occur in the ________ and the dark reactions take place in the ________.
a)
Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma / thylakoid
c)
mesophyl / stomata
d)
thylakoid membrane / stroma
89.
Where does the carbon come from that is used to form glucose?
a)
The soil
b)
CO2 in the air
c)
From other carbohydrates
d)
Calvin Cycle
90.

A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a

a)

ligand

b)

second messenger

c)

protein kinase

d)

receptor protein

91.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
G-protein receptor
b)
tyrosine kinase receptor
c)
gated ion channel
92.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
gated ion channel
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
tyrosine kinase receptor
93.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
94.

Type of cell signaling where the ligand is produced at a location distant from its target cell(s)

a)

autocrine signaling

b)

juxtracrine signaling

c)

paracrine signaling

d)

endocrine signaling

95.

What is being depicted in the image?

a)

Amplification of the signal molecule

b)

Enzymatic proteins inhibiting process of the signal transduction pathway

c)

Kinase groups adding dimer groups to other enzymes

d)

Diffusion of molecules within the cell due to the signaling molecule

96.

Testosterone does not affect all cells of the body because __________.

a)

testosterone cannot cross the plasma membrane

b)

not all cells have cytoplasmic receptors for testosterone

c)

not all cells in the body have membrane receptors for testosterone

d)

it is a local regulator

e)

it affects only cells that have ion-channel receptors

97.
Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?
a)
hormone
b)
local regulator
c)
endocrine cell
98.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
99.

This is an example of

a)

paracrine signaling

b)

endocrine signaling

c)

autocrine signaling

d)

juxtacrine signaling

100.

Which letter represents the cell surface receptor protein?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

101.

Which letter represents the ligand?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

102.
Do plant cells communicate using hormones?
a)
yes
b)
no
103.

This is an example of

a)

paracrine signalling

b)

endocrine signalling

c)

autocrine signalling

d)

juxtacrine signalling

104.

What hormone prolongs and intensifies the body's response during stress by increasing heart rate and raising blood glucose?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Glucocorticoid

c)

Cortisol

d)

ADH

105.

Each of the following numbered processes are involved in signal transduction pathways:

I. Response

II. Amplification

III. Reception

IV. Transduction

Which of the following represents the sequence of events in a typical signal transduction pathway?

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

III, I, IV, II

c)

II, IV, I, III

d)

III, IV, II, I

106.
Cell signaling involves converting extracellular signals to specific responses inside the target cell. Which of the following best describes how a cell initially responds to a signal?
a)
The cell experiences a change in receptor conformation
b)
The cell experiences an influx of ions
c)
The cell experiences an increase in protein kinase activity
d)
The cell experiences G protein activation
107.
What is one effect epinephrine has on liver cells?
a)
uptake glucose to store as glycogen
b)
break glycogen down to release glucose
c)
decreases blood vessel diameter
d)
decreases blood glucose levels
108.
When levels go above or below a set point a hormone is released to return the body to set point. When the body is restored to set point no more hormone is released. This is an example of...
a)
a positive feedback loop
b)
a negative feedback loop
c)
a neutral feedback loop
109.
Which of the following correctly describes the reception stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
protein kinases phosphoylate molecules
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
110.
Which of the following correctly describes the response stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
cAMP binds to the g-protein coupled receptor protein
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
111.
Which signaling molecules can cross the cell membrane on their own and do not need to bind to receptor proteins?
a)
steroid hormones (nonpolar lipids)
b)
ions (small, very polar)
c)
glucose (large and polar)
d)
protein hormones (large and polar)
112.

A cell is known to respond to a particular signalling molecule. Which of the following must be true of this cell?

a)

It is in the heart muscle.

b)

It is also the site of the production for the signalling molecule.

c)

It contains the receptor for the signalling molecule.

d)

It is incapable of signal transduction.

113.

When epinephrine binds to cardiac muscle cells, it speeds their contraction. When it binds to muscle cells of the small intestine, it inhibits their contraction. Which of the following best accounts for the fact that the same hormone can have different effects on muscle cells.

a)

Cardiac cells have more receptors for epinephrine than do intestinal cells.

b)

Epinephrine circulates to the heart first and thus is in higher concentration around cardiac cells.

c)

The two types of muscle cells have different pathways for epinephrine and thus have different cellular responses.

d)

Cardiac muscle is stronger than intestinal muscle and thus has a stronger response to epinephrine.

114.

Which of the following statements correctly describes one characteristic of the lytic cycle of viral replication?

a)

Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.

b)

Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced.

c)

The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.

d)

A large number of phages are released at a time.

115.

Which of the following processes can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans?

a)

applying antiseptics

b)

taking antibiotics

c)

getting vaccinated

d)

taking vitamins

116.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
117.
What part of a virus is the protein capsule that houses the genetic material (DNA/RNA)?
a)
tail
b)
nucleus
c)
capsid
d)
glycoprotein
118.
What is the main function of the projections on the surface of a virus?
a)
They aid in respiration
b)
They help the virus grow
c)
They help the virus invade its host
d)
They help the virus digest food molecules
119.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
120.
A white blood cell that makes antibodies
a)
T cell
b)
bacteria
c)
B cell
d)
mast cell
121.
  A substance or part of a substance (living or nonliving) that the immune system recognizes as foreign and activates the immune system and reacts with immune cells or their products, such as antibodies.
a)
pathogen 
b)
allergen 
c)
antigen 
d)
antibody
122.

B Cells differentiate into memory cells and this cell that secretes antibodies?

a)

stem cells

b)

nerve cells

c)

helper cells

d)

plasma cells

123.
Proteins produced by B cells and designed to mark antigens to be destroyed, specific to the antigen.
a)
Antigens
b)
Active Immunity
c)
Antibodies
d)
Antibiotics
124.

The skin, mucous membranes, natural secretions, and natural flora are all part of the

a)

First line of defense

b)

Second line of defense

c)

Third line of defense

125.

What attacks microbes indiscriminately?

a)

The adaptive immune system

b)

The innate immune system

c)

The lymphatic system

d)

The nervous system

126.
The body’s nonspecific defenses against invading pathogens include
a)
antibiotics.
b)
mucus, sweat and tears.
c)
antibodies.
d)
Killer T cells.
127.

If our body encountered an antigen for the first time, what would occur?

a)

B cells would be unable to make antibodies until antigens are presented through macrophage MHCs

b)

Antibodies would not exist until dendritic cells brought pathogens to the lymph nodes

c)

Immunity would be at its highest because antibodies for this specific antigen have not yet been depleted

d)

In order to make up for the deficit in B cell antibody production, helper and cytotoxic T cell production would increase

128.

Infected human cells present antigens or viral proteins on their cell surface through what?

a)

Major histocompatibility complexes

b)

antibodies

c)

T Cell receptors

d)

cytokines

129.

A secondary immune response will be faster when...

a)

The individual has encountered the pathogen already

b)

The individual's macrophages are on high alert

c)

The individual has encountered the pathogen and has memory B cells circulating

d)

Antibodies are produced by T cells

130.

How do T cells differ from B cells?

a)

T cells fight pathogens by killing pathogens directly, while B cells fight pathogens by making antibodies.

b)

T cells only make memory cells, and B cells only make antigens

c)

T cells fight pathogens by making antibodies, while B cells fight pathogens by killing pathogens directly.

d)

T cells can only fight off pathogens the body has encountered once, and B cells can fight off any pathogen the body comes across.

131.
White blood cells are an important part of the human immune response. Two types of white blood cells, neutrophils and macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phagocytes perform which of the following functions in the human body? 
a)
They produce antibodies.
b)
They bind to antigens and develop into plasma cells.
c)
They form a barrier against pathogens.
d)
They engulf and destroy bacteria.
132.

B Cells can create long term cells that will remember antigens on foreign substances

a)

Memory Cells

b)

Plasma Cells

c)

T cells

d)

Helper T cells

133.
Which is an example of passive immunity?
a)
people being vaccinated against disease
b)
people taking vitamins to boost their immune response
c)
people receiving antibodies from their mothers before birth
d)
people producing antibodies against organisms that cause diseases they have had previosuly
134.

Immunity that occurs when a person's own immune system produces antibodies in response to the presence of a pathogen when a person gets sick

a)

Natural Passive Immunity

b)

Natural Active Immunity

c)

Artificial Active Immunity

135.

Immunity in which antibodies are given to a person rather than produced within the person's own body

a)

Artificial Passive Immunity

b)

Natural Passive Immunity

c)

Artificial Active Immunity

136.

Which immunity is present at birth and passed from the mother to the baby through milk and the placenta?

a)

Artificial Active Immunity

b)

Natural Active immunity

c)

Natural passive immunity

d)

Artificial passive immunity

137.

Cell-mediated immunity is a type of acquired immunity. This is the immunity one develops throughout life. Which of the following types of cells are mostly involved in cell-mediated immunity?

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

erythrocytes

d)

neutrophils

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