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Worksheets

End of KS3 Quiz

Total questions: 198

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do we find in the grey section?

a)

non-metals

b)

gases

c)

solids

d)

metals

e)

liquids

2.

What do we find in the yellow section?

a)

liquids

b)

non-metals

c)

gases

d)

metals

e)

solids

3.

What are the two elements that are liquid at room temperature?

a)

Hg & Cl

b)

water & ethanol

c)

Hg & B

d)

Hg & Br

4.

What do we call elements with both metallic and non-metallic properties?

a)

metallies

b)

metallites

c)

metallilbits

d)

metalloids

5.

What does ductile mean?

a)

Will make a ringing sound when struck

b)

Capable of neutralising an acid

c)

Can be bent into shape

d)

Can be drawn into wires

6.

What does malleable mean?

a)

Will make a ringing sound when struck

b)

Can be bent into shape

c)

Can be drawn into wires

d)

Capable of neutralising an acid

7.

What does sonorous mean?

a)

Will make a ringing sound when struck

b)

Can be bent into shape

c)

Can be drawn into wires

d)

Capable of neutralising an acid

8.

What group is Argon in?

a)

Group 7

b)

Group 1

c)

Group 0

d)

Group 4

9.

What group is Potassium in?

a)

Group 7

b)

Group 0

c)

Group 1

d)

Group 4

10.

What group is Iodine in?

a)

Group 4

b)

Group 0

c)

Group 1

d)

Group 7

11.

What group is Caesium in?

a)

Group 7

b)

Group 1

c)

Group 4

d)

Group 0

12.

What group is Astatine in?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 7

c)

Group 0

d)

Group 4

13.

What group is Xenon in?

a)

Group 4

b)

Group 0

c)

Group 1

d)

Group 7

14.

My elements become progressively more reactive as you move down the group. Which group am I?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 0

c)

Group 7

d)

Group 4

15.

My elements become progressively less reactive as you move down the group. Which group am I?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 4

c)

Group 7

d)

Group 0

16.

My elements are generally unreactive. Which group am I?

a)

Group 7

b)

Group 1

c)

Group 4

d)

Group 0

17.

My elements have the lowest boiling points of all the elements. Which group am I?

a)

Group 4

b)

Group 1

c)

Group 7

d)

Group 0

18.

My elements elements have the lowest boiling points of all the elements. Which group am I?

a)

Group 7

b)

Group 4

c)

Group 1

d)

Group 0

19.

Group 1 metals reaction with water and a gas is given off. What is the gas?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

20.

Elements arranged in columns are called what?

a)

rows

b)

periods

c)

groups

d)

lines

21.

Elements arranged in rows are called what?

a)

rows

b)

periods

c)

lines

22.

The modern periodic table is based on the work of which man?

a)

Dimitri Mendeleev

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Charlie Marshall

d)

Henry Hover

23.

elements in the same groups have similar what?

a)

properties

b)

colours

c)

homes

24.

Which nutrient is used by your body for growth and repair?

a)

fats

b)

proteins

c)

vitamins and minerals

d)

carbohydrates

25.

Which nutrient does our body use for releasing energy?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

vitamins and minerals

c)

fibre

d)

Proteins

26.

Which nutrient helps prevents constipation

a)

carbohydrates

b)

fibre

c)

fats and oils

d)

proteins

27.

What is the main purpose of the digestive system?

a)

To break down food and absorb nutrients

b)

To pump blood

c)

To see and hear

d)

To breathe

28.

Which organ in the digestive system produces digestive juices to help break down food?

a)

All of the the named organs in this question

b)

Small intestine

c)

Liver

d)

Stomach

29.

What is the name of the tube that carries food from your mouth to your stomach?

a)

Oesophagus / gullet

b)

Trachea

c)

Large intestine

d)

Small intestine

30.

Which of these foods is a good source of calcium, important for strong bones and teeth?

a)

Milk

b)

Popcorn

c)

Chicken

d)

Apples

31.

What is the name of the tiny, finger-like projections in the small intestine that absorb nutrients?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Pores

c)

Taste buds

d)

Villi

32.

Which part of the digestive system absorbs most of the nutrients from digested food?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Liver

33.

Which nutrient is essential for the formation of red blood cells and carries oxygen throughout the body?

a)

Calcium

b)

Iron

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Fibre

34.

Where does digestion begin in the human body?

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Large intestine

d)

Small intestine

35.

Order the organs correctly to show which organs food passes through the digestive system. Organs: Mouth; Oesophagus / gullet; Stomach; Small intestine; Large intestine.

a)

Mouth → Oesophagus / gullet → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine

b)

Mouth → Trachea → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine

c)

Mouth → Stomach → Oesophagus / gullet → Small intestine → Large intestine

d)

Mouth → Oesophagus / gullet → Small intestine → Stomach → Large intestine

36.

Eating the correct amount of nutrients to stay healthy is called eating (a) ______ diet. Choose from the below words: A Balanced; An Unbalanced; A Deficiency; A Boring.

a)

A Balanced

b)

An Unbalanced

c)

A Deficiency

d)

A Boring

37.

Identify the stomach in the diagram. Choose the correct label from A–F.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.

Identify the small intestine in the diagram. Choose the correct label from A–F.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.

What am I? I break down protein into amino acids.

a)

Protease

b)

Carbohydrase

40.

What am I? I break down starch into glucose.

a)

Lipase

b)

Protease

c)

Carbohydrase

41.

What am I? I break down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol

a)

Carbohydrase

b)

Lipase

c)

Protease

42.

Starch is broken down into...

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids and glycerol

c)

Glucose

43.

Protein is broken down into...

a)

Fatty acids and glycerol

b)

Amino acids

c)

Glucose

44.

Lipids are broken down into...

a)

Glucose

b)

Amino acids

c)

Fatty acids and glycerol

45.

Which of the following tests for starch?

a)

Emulsion

b)

Benedict's

c)

Iodine

d)

Biuret

46.

Which of the following tests for protein?

a)

Iodine

b)

Emulsion

c)

Benedicts

d)

Biuret

47.

Which of the following tests for glucose?

a)

Benedicts

b)

Biuret

c)

Emulsion

d)

Iodine

48.

When starch is present iodine turns...

a)

blue-black

b)

brick red

c)

orange

d)

purple

49.

When protein is present Biuret turns...

a)

brick red

b)

purple

c)

orange

d)

blue-black

50.

When large amounts of glucose is present Benedicts turns...

a)

green

b)

brick-red

c)

blue-black

d)

purple

51.

A negative test for starch will cause Iodine to stay...

a)

black

b)

blue

c)

brick red

d)

orange/red

52.

A negative test for protein will cause Biuret to stay...

a)

black

b)

orange

c)

brick red

d)

blue

53.

A negative test for glucose will cause Benedicts to stay

a)

blue

b)

orange

c)

brick red

d)

black

54.

If you drop iodine solution on bread, it changes to black. What does this show?

a)

Bread contains sugar

b)

Bread contains lipids?

c)

Bread contains starch

d)

Bread contains protein

55.

This photo represents a

a)

positive test for starch

b)

negative test for protein

c)

positive test for glucose

d)

negative test for glucose

56.

The test tubes in the photo represent a negative and positive result for

a)

Ethanol with fat

b)

Iodine with starch

c)

Benedict's with glucose

d)

Biuret with protein

57.

This is a positive result for

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrates

c)

fats and lipids

d)

bread

58.

How will this object move? The diagram shows a block with equal forces of 12 N applied from the left and from the right, each pushing toward the block.

a)

It will move to the right.

b)

It will move in both directions.

c)

It won't move.

d)

It will move to the left.

59.

What is the resultant/net force? The diagram shows a block with a 25 N force from the left pointing right and a 30 N force from the right pointing left.

a)

55 N right

b)

30 N left

c)

25 N right

d)

5 N left

60.

A nut can be loosened more easily with

a)

a long spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

b)

a short spanner because a larger force can be produced.

c)

a short spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

d)

a long spanner because a larger force can be produced.

61.

Jack has a weight of 300 N and sits 2.0 m from the pivot of see-saw. Jill has a weight of 450 N and sits 1.5 m from pivot. Who will move down?

a)

Jill

b)

Jack

c)

Both of them

d)

None of them

62.

What is the anticlockwise moment acting on this crane? The diagram shows a crane with a 4000 N load at a distance of 25 m on one side of the pivot and movable concrete blocks of 20000 N at 5 m on the other side.

a)

140,000 Nm

b)

120,000 Nm

c)

80,000 Nm

d)

100,000 Nm

63.

The easiest way to open a heavy door is by applying the force

a)

Near the hinges

b)

At the edge of the door far from the hinges

c)

At the top of the door

d)

In the middle of the door

64.

What is the equation for moments?

a)

Moment = force × perpendicular distance from pivot

b)

Moment = force × distance

c)

Moment = mass × velocity

d)

Moment = force × parallel distance from pivot

65.

What is the moment acting on the seesaw? The diagram shows a 4 N downward force applied 0.4 m from the pivot.

a)

16 N

b)

4 Nm

c)

1.6 Nm

d)

15 Nm

66.

The diagram shows a beam. Without any weights, the beam balances at its centre. Three weights are hung as shown. At which point does a load of 2 N balance the beam?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

A

67.

What is the unit of moment of force?

a)

m

b)

N

c)

Nm

d)

N/m

68.

How do you Calculate Pressure

a)

Force(kg)/Area(m^2)

b)

Area(m2)/Force(N)Area(m^2)/Force(N)

c)

Force(N)/Area(m2)Force(N)/Area(m^2)

69.

What is pressure?

a)

The amount of force exerted on a surface

b)

The weight of an object

c)

The surface area of an object

70.

If you're walking in snow why would you wear boots instead of high heels?

a)

Because boots have a higher surface area making the pressure less and stopping you from sinking.

b)

Because it's more comfortable

c)

No, high heels are better

71.

When you increase your depth under water, the water pressure on your body

a)

stays the same

b)

decreases

c)

increases

72.

What is the main function of the respiratory system?

a)

to break down food and absorb nutrients

b)

to bring oxygen to the body

c)

to provide oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from the body

d)

to remove oxygen from the body and deliver carbon dioxide

73.

This is a tube about 12 cm long with C-shaped rings of cartilage to keep it open

a)

Pharynx

b)

Nasal cavity

c)

Mouth cavity

d)

Trachea

74.

Muscular structure that helps to expand and contract the lungs, forcing air in and out

a)

Nasal cavity

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Pharynx

d)

Alveoli

75.

Name the organ labeled #2.

a)

alveoli

b)

lungs

c)

bronchi

d)

trachea

76.

I have a large surface area to increase how much oxygen and carbon dioxide can pass to and from the bloodstream

a)

Alveoli

b)

Trachea

c)

Bronchi

77.

I make up a movable cage to protect the lungs

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Ribs

c)

Intercostal muscles

78.

How does asthma affect the lungs?

a)

Asthma increases the lung capacity

b)

Asthma has no effect on the lungs

c)

Asthma causes inflammation and narrowing of the airways in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe.

d)

Asthma causes the airways to widen in the lungs

79.

A plant with leaves that can be dried and mixed with chemicals to make cigarettes.

a)

Nicotine

b)

Tobacco

c)

Tar

d)

THC

80.

Which are short term effects of alcohol?

a)

hang over

b)

dehydration

c)

dry mouth

d)

all of the above

81.

Which is a long term effect of alcohol?

a)

cirrhosis of the liver

b)

memory loss

c)

liver disease

d)

all of the above

82.

The process by which one or more substances change to produce one or more different substances

a)

Chemical Process

b)

Reactant

c)

Chemical Reaction

83.

A substance produced during a chemical reaction

a)

Product

b)

Properties

c)

Reactant

84.

A substance that takes part in and undergoes change during a reaction

a)

Product

b)

Reactant

c)

Molecule

85.

A change in the shape of an object is an example of ____________.

a)

a chemical change

b)

a physical change

c)

energy

d)

an endothermic change

86.

In a reaction A + B ----> C, reactant A has 5g and product C has 9g. How many grams does reactant B should have?

a)

14g

b)

5g

c)

9g

d)

4g

87.

What do we use limewater to test for?

a)

Heat

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Water

d)

Smoke

88.

Why do we burn a fuel?

a)

To produce carbon dioxide

b)

To have fun

c)

To release energy

d)

To lose energy

89.

What is essential for a combustion reaction to begin?

a)

Fuel, oxygen and heat

b)

Water and oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Fuel

90.

What are the products of combustion?

a)

Carbon + water

b)

Carbon dioxide + hydrogen

c)

Carbon dioxide + water

d)

Hydrogen + oxygen

91.

What is the term for when a large molecule is broken down into smaller molecules?

a)

Reaction

b)

melting

c)

atom

d)

decomposition

92.

What is this symbol?

a)

Switch

b)

Bulb

c)

Cell

d)

2 cell battery

93.

What is this symbol?

a)

Bulb

b)

Cell

c)

Resistor

d)

Switch

94.

If the switch is open in a circuit, then…

a)

…electricity will flow.

b)

…electricity will NOT flow.

95.

This picture is an example of what kind of circuit?

a)

Complete

b)

Parallel

c)

Series

d)

Broken

96.

In a series circuit…

a)

the current is split between components.

b)

the current is the same everywhere.

c)

the voltage is split between components.

d)

the voltage is the same everywhere.

97.

What is the reading on the labelled voltmeter?

a)

0 V

b)

3 V

c)

6 V

d)

12 V

98.

Potential difference is another word for _______.

a)

Voltage

b)

Current

c)

Resistance

d)

Power

99.

What is the unit of Current?

a)

Ohm, Ω

b)

Joule, J

c)

Amp, A

d)

Volt, V

100.

What is the unit of Resistance?

a)

Amp, A

b)

Ohm, Ω

c)

Joule, J

d)

Volt, V

101.

Use the formula shown: resistance (Ω) = potential difference (V) / current (A). What is the resistance of a buzzer which has a potential difference of 12V12\text{V} and a current of 2A2\text{A} ?

a)

4 Ω4\ \Omega

b)

10 Ω10\ \Omega

c)

6 Ω6\ \Omega

d)

14 Ω14\ \Omega

102.

A measurement of how fast an object is moving

a)

Acceleration

b)

Velocity

c)

Speed

d)

Vector

103.

What is the speed of an object that travels 6060 metres in 44 seconds?

a)

0.067 mph0.067\ \text{mph}

b)

0.067 m/s0.067\ \text{m/s}

c)

15

d)

15 m/s15\ \text{m/s}

104.

Find the speed when a tricycle travels 200200 kilometres in 88 hours.

a)

25 km/h25\ \text{km/h}

b)

15 km/h15\ \text{km/h}

c)

30 km/h30\ \text{km/h}

d)

12 km/h12\ \text{km/h}

105.

Find the speed of a car after 44 hours it traveled a distance of 284284 km.

a)

51 km/h51\ \text{km/h}

b)

61 km/h61\ \text{km/h}

c)

71 km/h71\ \text{km/h}

d)

63 km/h63\ \text{km/h}

106.

Calculate the distance you will travel if you will drive for 22 hours at 56 km/h56\ \text{km/h} .

a)

110 km110\ \text{km}

b)

100 km100\ \text{km}

c)

84 km84\ \text{km}

d)

112 km112\ \text{km}

107.

What is a unit of speed?

a)

Metres per second

b)

Metres

c)

Metres per second squared

d)

Seconds

108.

Metre is the SI unit of _____.

a)

length

b)

mass

c)

time

d)

speed

109.

_____ can be measured in metres per second.

a)

speed

b)

time

c)

acceleration

d)

distance

110.

What is speed?

a)

how far you go

b)

how fast you accelerate

c)

how much distance is covered over a period of time

d)

the change in the location of a object

111.

What is the formula to calculate speed?

a)

S = t/d

b)

v = d × t

c)

S = d/t

d)

v = s/t

112.

From "Match the following", classify 50 m/s as which quantity.

a)

Distance

b)

Speed

c)

Time

d)

Velocity

113.

From "Match the following", classify 100 m as which quantity.

a)

Distance

b)

Speed

c)

Time

d)

Velocity

114.

From "Match the following", classify 50 m/s to the West as which quantity.

a)

Distance

b)

Speed

c)

Time

d)

Velocity

115.

From "Match the following", classify 2 s as which quantity.

a)

Distance

b)

Speed

c)

Time

d)

Velocity

116.

What equation do I use to calculate time?

a)

t=s/vt = s/v

b)

d=t×vd = t \times v

c)

v=d/tv = d/t

117.

What equation do I use to calculate distance?

a)

s=t×vs = t \times v

b)

s=d/ts = d/t

c)

d=t×sd = t \times s

118.

Match the following quantities to their correct symbols: Time corresponds to which symbol?

a)

ss

b)

vv

c)

tt

119.

Match the following quantities to their correct symbols: Speed corresponds to which symbol?

a)

ss

b)

vv

c)

tt

120.

Match the following quantities to their correct symbols: Distance corresponds to which symbol?

a)

ss

b)

vv

c)

tt

121.
The diagram shows the flow of organic molecules through an ecosystem. What two processes are identified by the labels X and Y?
a)
X : Respiration
Y : Predation
b)
X : Adaptation
Y : Decomposition
c)
X : Fermentation
Y : Nitrogen Fixation
d)
X : Decomposition
Y : Respiration
122.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
123.
Which of the following is an example of a decomposer?
a)
Owl
b)
Fish
c)
Tree
d)
Mushroom
124.
How is the burning of fossil fuels related to global warming?
a)
Magic
b)
Fuels are hot
c)
Greenhouse effect
d)
Photosynthesis
125.
if there is a fire in a forest, there will be less _ in the environment?
a)
nitrogen
b)
oxygen
126.

How does carbon get from the air into your body?

a)

Transpiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Respiration

d)

Digestion

127.

What is carbon made into in respiration?

a)

Carbon

b)

Glucose

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Carbon dioxide

128.

In what form is carbon released into the air during respiration?

a)

Solid carbon

b)

Particulates

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Carbon dioxide

129.

Select the organisms that remove carbon dioxide from the air.

a)

Green plants

b)

Algae

c)

Badgers

d)

Insects

130.

What is the name of the process that removes carbon dioxide from the air?

a)

Respiration

b)

Transpiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Combustion

131.

Which of the following base pairings is correct?

a)

T-T, C-A

b)

A-T, C-C

c)

A-T, C-G

d)

C-G, C-C

132.

Of the chromosomes in your cells, how many are sex chromosomes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

133.

Our characteristics are controlled by

a)

DNA

b)

genes

c)

chromosomes

d)

parents

134.

DNA is a molecule made up of a combination of how many DNA bases?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

135.

We inherit our genes from ...

a)

our nucleus.

b)

our parents.

c)

from the food we eat.

136.

What is a long coiled strand of DNA and proteins?

a)

gene

b)

RNA

c)

chromosome

d)

genome

137.

What is a short segment of a DNA strand that codes for our characteristics?

a)

chromosome

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

gene

138.

Where is DNA found in a human cell?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

cell membrane

d)

cytoplasm

139.

How many pairs of chromosomes do human cells contain?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

16

d)

32

140.

DNA is short for

a)

Ribonucleic acid

b)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

c)

Nucleic acid

141.

If you put a North pole and a South pole together the magnets will ...

a)

attract

b)

repel

c)

do nothing

142.
The needle of a compass always points to which direction?
a)
south
b)
east
c)
west
d)
north
143.
Which of the following is true of a bar magnet?
a)
Its magnetic field is strongest near its center.
b)
It is surrounded by a magnetic field.
c)
The north pole is stronger than the south pole.
d)
The south pole is stronger than the north pole.
144.
A magnet cannot not move which of the following objects?
a)
a paper clip
b)
a nail
c)
a toothpick
d)
a staple
145.
Earth's magnetic field and a bar magnet attract particles to the same locations. Where are they?
a)
The middle
b)
All around the outside
c)
The north and south poles
d)
First to the middle, then to the ends
146.
Where is Earth's magnetic field strongest?
a)
Along the outside lines
b)
Along the inside lines on either side
c)
Where the lines are close together at the poles
d)
In the space outside of the lines
147.
How is Earth's magnetic field similar to that of a magnet?
a)
It is hundreds of miles long
b)
It has north and south poles
c)
It is made in Earth's core
d)
It is shaped like a horseshoe
148.
What happens when two north poles of a magnet are placed together?
a)
they repel
b)
they attract
c)
they cancel each other out
d)
the strength of the magnet is doubled
149.
Ancient people discovered magnetic rocks called lodestone. What did they use them for?
a)
fires
b)
compasses
c)
sculptures
d)
weapons
150.
What subject is attracted to a magnet?
a)
Silver
b)
Water
c)
Metal
d)
Iron
151.
If a chemical reaction is EXOTHERMIC, the temperature would....
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
152.
After you mix two substances together, a new substance forms.  This is an example of:
 
a)
 Physical Change
b)
 Chemical Change
153.
Have you ever eaten sherbet sweets candy? They fizz in your mouth and your tongue feels cold. Why do you think that is?
a)
It is an exothermic reaction
b)
It is an endothermic reaction
c)
It is made of ice
d)
It is dissolving your mouth
154.
Baking bread and cooking an egg are examples of....?
a)
Endothermic processes
b)
Exothermic processess
c)
None of these 
155.
Is photosynthesis an exothermic or endothermic reaction?
a)
Endothermic
b)
Exothermic
c)
Neither
156.
Exothermic reactions...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
c)

Release Colour

d)

Absorb Colour

157.
What type of reaction occurs in a hand warmer
a)
exothermic
b)
endothermic
158.
In an endothermic reaction, heat is ...
a)
taken in or absorbed
b)
given out or released 
159.
In an exothermic reaction, heat is ...
a)
taken in or absorbed
b)
given out or released
160.
The death of every member of a species.
a)
Competition
b)
Population
c)
Extinction
d)
Evidence
161.

a change of an organism over time is

a)

evolution

b)

generation

c)

phenotype

d)

genetic engineering

162.
What would indicate that a series of fossils represent evolution?
a)
the fossils were identical
b)
the fossils were found in the same layers of rock
c)
the fossils show similarities
d)
the fossils were completely different
163.

Mutations are a change in what?

a)

DNA

b)

food

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

164.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they just are

c)

Because they are pretty

d)

Because they are the cutest

165.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
166.
Survival of the Fittest and Evolution were proposed by what scientist?
a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Albert Einstein
c)

Stephen Hawking

d)
Isaac Newton
167.

What do you call a characteristic that allows an organism to survive in an environment?

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

selection

d)

overproduction

168.

Which of these is NOT a greenhouse gas?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Nitrous Oxide

c)

Oxygen Gas

d)

Methane

169.

What is the greenhouse effect?

a)

A natural process where gases trap heat in the atmosphere.

b)

A man-made process where gases trap heat in the atmosphere.

c)

A natural process where the ocean traps heat in the atmosphere.

d)

A man-made process where the ocean traps heat in the atmosphere.

170.

How is the greenhouse effect produced?

a)

When solar energy trespasses the atmosphere.

b)

When some energy is reflected back to earth.

c)

When the green house is burned.

d)

When the sun doesn't emit radiation.

171.
Why does cutting down trees increase global warming?
a)
trees soak up carbon dioxide
b)
trees provide shade which counteracts global warming
c)
trees absorbs the sun's energy without radiating back into the atmosphere
d)
trees drain greenhouse gases like methane from soil
172.
How can global warming cause sea levels to rise? Choose the best answer.
a)
by causing it to rain more often
b)
by melting glaciers and ice caps
c)
by increasing the number of undersea volcanic eruptions
d)
by creating bigger and more powerful hurricanes
173.
The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is
a)
using bottled water
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
texting on cellphones
d)
eating meat
174.
Without the Greenhouse Effect the Earth would be too
a)
warm 
b)
cold
c)
dead
d)
funny
175.

What is Global Warming?

a)

Increasing temperature in Earth's atmosphere

b)

Decreasing temperature in a city

c)

Increasing rain rates in Earth

d)

Decreasing temperature rates

176.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
177.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
178.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
179.
How do living organisms return carbon to the atmosphere in the carbon cycle?
a)
respiration and photosynthesis
b)
 decomposition and respiration
180.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the                       as carbon dioxide.
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Sun
d)
Air
181.

An oxygen debt occurs in muscles when...

a)

more carbon dioxide has been produced

b)

the breathing rate increases

c)

anaerobic respiration has taken place

d)

the pulse rate increases

182.

During oxygen debt, the lactic acid is removed from

a)

Liver

b)

Muscles

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

183.
How do human beings get rid of carbon dioxide?
a)
it is excreted
b)
it is exhaled
184.
When you breathe, your lungs take in ___ and remove ___. 
a)
Air/Oxygen
b)
Oxygen/Carbon Dioxide 
c)
Carbon Dioxide/Waste 
d)
Waste/air 
185.
What happens to your pulse when you exercise?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It stays the same
186.
What happens to your breathing rate when you exercise?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It stays the same
187.
What type of respiration does not require oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
188.
What type of respiration requires oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
189.
What are the products of anaerobic respiration?
a)
Glucose and oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide and water
c)
Lactic acid
d)
Carbon monoxide
190.

O2 is the chemical formula for

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Glucose

d)

Water

191.
What are the reactants for cellular respiration?
a)
glucose and carbon dioxide
b)
water and glucose
c)
glucose and ATP
d)
glucose and oxygen
192.

After hard exercise, panting allows excess lactic acid to be:

a)

Carried to the liver to be broken down

b)

Broken down to form carbon dioxide and water

c)

Converted into glucose for storage

193.

In terms of energy released from glucose:

a)

Anaerobic respiration releases more tan aerobic respiration

b)

Aerobic respiration releases more than anaerobic respiration.

c)

Aerobic and anaerobic respiration releases about the same amount

194.

Which is the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in humans?

a)

Glucose + Lactic Acid -> Carbon Dioxide + Water

b)

Glucose -> Lactic Acid + Carbon Dioxide

c)

Glucose -> Lactic Acid

195.

Where in the cell do most aerobic respiration reactions happen?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

In the mitochondria

c)

In the cytoplasm

d)

In the cell wall

196.

Why does anaerobic respiration occur during hard exercise?

a)

There may be insufficient oxygen supplied to the muscle cells

b)

Carbon dioxide builds up in the respiring muscle cells

c)

Anaerobic respiration releases more energy from glucose than aerobic respiration.

197.

During exercise, the heart rate increases to:

a)

Supply more lactic acid to the muscles for anaerobic respiration

b)

Supply more oxygen and glucose to the respiring cells

c)

Keep up with the pulse rate

198.

Which is the correct equation for aerobic respiration in humans?

a)

Glucose + Oxygen -> Carbon Dioxide + Water

b)

Glucose + Oxygen -> Carbon Dioxide

c)

Glucose -> Carbon Dioxide + Water

d)

Glucose -> Lactic Acid

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