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Grade 11 Biology — Semester Review Worksheet (Transcribed MCQs)

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In aerobic respiration, how does glycolysis proceed?

a)

One glucose molecule splits into two pyruvate and yields 2 ATP and 2 NADPH

b)

One glucose molecule splits into two pyruvate and yields 2 ATP and 2 NADH

c)

One glucose molecule splits into two pyruvate and yields 2 ADP and 2 NADH

d)

One glucose molecule splits into two pyruvate and yields 2 ATP and 1 NADH

2.

After glycolysis, two pyruvate molecules enter the mitochondrial matrix and are converted into which set of products?

a)

3 acetyl‑CoA, 2 NADH, 1 CO2

b)

1 acetyl‑CoA, 2 NADH, 3 CO2

c)

1 acetyl‑CoA, 1 NADH, 1 CO2

d)

2 acetyl‑CoA, 2 NADH, 2 CO2

3.

What are the final products of the Krebs cycle?

a)

2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

b)

2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP

c)

2 CO2, 2 NADH, 2 FADH2, 1 ATP

d)

2 CO2, 2 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP

4.

Under anaerobic conditions without oxygen, pyruvate produced by glycolysis is converted to which compounds?

a)

Ethanol or lactose

b)

Ethanol or lactate

c)

Ethanol or glucose

d)

Ethanol or uric acid

5.

Fermentation yields how many ATP?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

6.

Which stage is common to both aerobic respiration and fermentation?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Methylation

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Pyruvate oxidation

7.

Regarding roles of aerobic respiration compared with fermentation in cell activity, which statement is incorrect?

a)

The oxygen requirement of aerobic respiration is lower than that of fermentation

b)

Aerobic respiration products such as CO2 and H2O do not harm the cell

c)

For the same energy yield, aerobic respiration consumes organic matter more efficiently

d)

Aerobic respiration is common in many plant tissues

8.

Which statement is not correct about digestion of food in parts of the human alimentary canal?

a)

The stomach conducts mechanical and chemical digestion

b)

The large intestine performs both mechanical and chemical digestion

c)

The mouth performs mechanical and chemical digestion

d)

The small intestine performs mechanical and chemical digestion

9.

In animals with a gastrovascular cavity, food is digested by which process?

a)

Extracellular digestion (enzymes hydrolyze complex nutrients in the cavity) and intracellular digestion

b)

By muscular squeezing of the cavity wall only, turning complex nutrients into simple ones

c)

Only intracellular enzymatic hydrolysis of complex nutrients into simple nutrients that are absorbed

d)

Extracellular digestion by enzymes acting in the cavity alone

10.

In animals with an alimentary canal, as food passes through the canal it undergoes what changes?

a)

Mechanical changes only, becoming simple nutrients absorbed into blood

b)

Mechanical and chemical changes, becoming simple nutrients absorbed into blood

c)

Chemical changes only, becoming simple nutrients absorbed into blood

d)

Mechanical and chemical changes, becoming simple nutrients absorbed into lymph throughout the body

11.

Absorption of nutrients is best described as which process?

a)

Nutrients moving after chemical digestion from the alimentary canal into blood only

b)

Nutrients moving after digestion from organs of the canal into the circulatory system and then to the heart

c)

Nutrients moving out from digestive organs into the bloodstream and lymphatic system

d)

Nutrients moving after digestion from the canal into lymph only

12.

In animals with an alimentary canal, chemical digestion occurs mainly in which organ?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

13.

In animals, which sequence lists the stages of nutrition in the correct order?

a)

Food intake → digestion → absorption of nutrients → assimilation of substances

b)

Food intake → digestion → assimilation of substances → absorption of nutrients

c)

Food intake → digestion of substances → absorption of nutrients

d)

Food intake → absorption of nutrients → digestion → assimilation of substances

14.

Regarding digestion in animals with an alimentary canal, which statement is correct?

a)

Food is digested only extracellularly

b)

Food is digested only intracellularly

c)

Food enters the body cavity then is digested only by lysosomal enzymes

d)

Food is digested both extracellularly and intracellularly

15.

In animals with a gastrovascular cavity, digestive enzymes are secreted from where?

a)

Lysosomes on the cavity wall

b)

Muscle cells on the cavity wall

c)

Gland cells on the cavity wall

d)

The cavity lumen

16.

In humans, which order correctly lists the organs that form the alimentary canal?

a)

Mouth → small intestine → stomach → pharynx → large intestine → anus

b)

Mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → anus

c)

Mouth → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → anus

d)

Mouth → small intestine → stomach → esophagus → large intestine → anus

17.

In humans, specialization of digestive tract parts serves what purpose?

a)

To achieve the highest efficiency of digestion

b)

To allow sufficient time for cellulose digestion

c)

To minimize energy use

d)

To contain many organisms with many digestive enzymes

18.

Which statement is correct about modes of food capture in animals?

a)

Animals capture food in two ways only: filtering and sucking

b)

Many animals must search for food and migrate to find it

c)

Animals that capture food by sucking have mouthparts suited to filtering and sucking fluids

d)

Animals capture food only according to habitat type

19.

Which statement about stages of food digestion is correct?

a)

In animals without specialized digestive organs, food is digested extracellularly

b)

In animals with an alimentary canal, food is digested only extracellularly

c)

In intracellular digestion, food is digested extracellularly and intracellularly

d)

Intracellular digestion refers to digestion of food outside the body by enzymes acting on skeletons

20.

In intracellular digestion, what happens to small food particles after being engulfed by phagocytic cells?

a)

They are immediately absorbed into body tissues

b)

Food digested extracellularly aids absorption

c)

Lysosomal enzymes of the phagocytic cells break them down into simple nutrients usable by the body

d)

They are expelled from the cell to be digested in the cavity

21.

The diagram shows stages of food digestion in the gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. Match each numbered label (1–5) with the corresponding description a–e. What corresponds to label 1?

a)

Mouth

b)

Food

c)

Cells on the cavity wall secreting digestive enzymes

d)

Partly digested food continues to be digested intracellularly

e)

Gastrovascular cavity

22.

The diagram shows stages of food digestion in the gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. Match each numbered label (1–5) with the corresponding description a–e. What corresponds to label 2?

a)

Mouth

b)

Food

c)

Cells on the cavity wall secreting digestive enzymes

d)

Partly digested food continues to be digested intracellularly

e)

Gastrovascular cavity

23.

The diagram shows stages of food digestion in the gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. Match each numbered label (1–5) with the corresponding description a–e. What corresponds to label 3?

a)

Mouth

b)

Food

c)

Cells on the cavity wall secreting digestive enzymes

d)

Partly digested food continues to be digested intracellularly

e)

Gastrovascular cavity

24.

The diagram shows stages of food digestion in the gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. Match each numbered label (1–5) with the corresponding description a–e. What corresponds to label 4?

a)

Mouth

b)

Food

c)

Cells on the cavity wall secreting digestive enzymes

d)

Partly digested food continues to be digested intracellularly

e)

Gastrovascular cavity

25.

The diagram shows stages of food digestion in the gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. Match each numbered label (1–5) with the corresponding description a–e. What corresponds to label 5?

a)

Mouth

b)

Food

c)

Cells on the cavity wall secreting digestive enzymes

d)

Partly digested food continues to be digested intracellularly

e)

Gastrovascular cavity

26.

Match organs of the human alimentary canal (column A) to their functions (column B). What is the function of the mouth?

a)

Moves food along the canal and absorbs nutrients

b)

Eliminates feces

c)

Stores water and some mineral salts and forms feces

d)

Grinds and mixes food with saliva; tongue mixes food and teeth are wetted by saliva

27.

Match organs of the human alimentary canal (column A) to their functions (column B). What is the function of the esophagus?

a)

Moves food from the mouth down to the stomach

b)

Eliminates feces

c)

Stores water and some mineral salts and forms feces

d)

Grinds and mixes food with saliva; tongue mixes food and teeth are wetted by saliva

28.

Match organs of the human alimentary canal (column A) to their functions (column B). What is the function of the stomach?

a)

Moves food along the canal and absorbs nutrients

b)

Eliminates feces

c)

Stores water and some mineral salts and forms feces

d)

Contracts to grind and churn food with gastric juice

29.

Match organs of the human alimentary canal (column A) to their functions (column B). What is the function of the small intestine?

a)

Continuously moves food along, absorbs nutrients

b)

Eliminates feces

c)

Stores water and some mineral salts and forms feces

d)

Moves food from the mouth down to the stomach

30.

Match organs of the human alimentary canal (column A) to their functions (column B). What is the function of the large intestine?

a)

Continuously moves food along, absorbs nutrients

b)

Eliminates feces

c)

Absorbs water and some mineral salts and forms feces

d)

Moves food from the mouth down to the stomach

31.

Match organs of the human alimentary canal (column A) to their functions (column B). What is the function of the anus?

a)

Continuously moves food along, absorbs nutrients

b)

Eliminates feces

c)

Stores water and some mineral salts and forms feces

d)

Moves food from the mouth down to the stomach

32.

Respiration ensures animals obtain which gases?

a)

O2 only

b)

CO2 only

c)

O2 and CO2

d)

O2 intake and CO2 release

33.

Crocodiles exchange gases with the environment by which structure?

a)

Body surface

b)

Tracheal (air tube) system

c)

Gills

d)

Lungs

34.

Animals such as cnidarians, roundworms, and flatworms carry out gas exchange by which method?

a)

Across the body surface

b)

Via tracheal tubes

c)

Using gills

d)

Using lungs

35.

Grasshoppers exchange gases by which method?

a)

Across the body surface

b)

Via tracheal tubes

c)

Using gills

d)

Using lungs

36.

Which animal exchanges gases with the environment through its skin?

a)

Sea turtle

b)

Lion

c)

Field mouse

d)

Frog

37.

Amphibians most commonly exchange gases by which method?

a)

Across the body surface

b)

Via tracheal tubes

c)

Using gills

d)

Using lungs

38.

Mollusks exchange gases by which method?

a)

Across the body surface

b)

Via tracheal tubes

c)

Using gills

d)

Using lungs

39.

Which animal carries out gas exchange using gills?

a)

Wildcat

b)

Shrimp

c)

Tree sparrow

d)

Frog

40.

When a fish exhales, which sequence is correct?

a)

Mouth closes; operculum lifts; operculum opens

b)

Mouth closes; operculum lifts; operculum closes

c)

Mouth opens; operculum lowers; operculum opens

d)

Mouth opens; operculum lowers; operculum closes

41.

In animals, what is the main role of respiration?

a)

Taking in O2 from the environment to supply cellular respiration, producing energy for life activities

b)

Taking in CO2 from the environment to supply cellular respiration, producing energy for life activities

c)

Excreting CO2 generated by external chemical reactions to balance the external environment

d)

Taking in O2 and releasing CO2 to help balance the external environment

42.

In animals, the structure or organ that performs exchange of O2 and CO2 with the environment is called what?

a)

Gas-exchange organ

b)

Respiratory surface

c)

Gas-exchange pressure

d)

Gas-exchange volume

43.

In insects, gas exchange belongs to which type?

a)

Exchange of gases through gills

b)

Exchange of gases through the tracheal system

c)

Exchange of gases through the skin

d)

Exchange of gases through lungs

44.

Which statement correctly describes the respiratory system of insects?

a)

The largest air tube is the trachea, forming a large respiratory surface

b)

There are many ducts; movement of air is by diffusion only, not through spiracles

c)

The respiratory tubes open at spiracles and can be actively ventilated

d)

Air flows into a closed cavity so gases cannot exit through spiracles into tracheae

45.

In fish, which structure carries out gas exchange?

a)

Gills receive blood from the heart, including filament and lamella

b)

Each gill arch bears two hemibranchs; each hemibranch has many filaments with lamellae

c)

The gill consists of two arches, each arch has four filaments, each filament has many lamellae

d)

The branchial system on the operculum exchanges O2 and CO2 with water via the opercular cavity

46.

Thanks to the activity of respiratory muscles that change the volume of the mouth and opercular cavities, fish achieve what kind of water flow across the gills?

a)

Water rich in O2 moves along the gills in a single direction simultaneously with blood flow, not interrupted

b)

Water rich in O2 moves along the gills in one continuous direction, not interrupted

c)

Water rich in CO2 moves along the gills in one direction simultaneously with blood flow, not interrupted

d)

Water rich in CO2 moves along the gills in a continuous single direction, not interrupted

47.

Why can amphibians both breathe in water and live on land?

a)

Because they have lungs, so they can live in water and also jump on land

b)

Because they have skin with many glands, so they can breathe in water and hop on land

c)

Because they have both lungs and moist skin capable of respiration

d)

Because they have gills, so they can breathe in water and crawl on land

48.

In humans, the site with the largest gas-exchange surface area is which part of the respiratory system?

a)

Alveoli create hundreds of millions of alveolar sacs

b)

The bronchial tree creates thousands of bronchioles

c)

The lungs have many lobes and fissures

d)

The respiratory system has many branches and divisions

49.

Which muscle activity commonly triggers a normal inspiration in humans?

a)

Intercostal muscles and diaphragm

b)

Abdominal wall and shoulders

c)

Neck muscles and scapular muscles

d)

Intercostal muscles and back

50.

In mammals, which components form the circulatory system?

a)

Circulatory fluid, heart and blood vessels

b)

Circulatory fluid, heart and lymph

c)

Heart, blood and the hematopoietic system

d)

Blood, lymph and the immune system

51.

Which feature is not characteristic of the closed circulatory system?

a)

The heart pumps blood into arteries under high pressure

b)

Blood flows continuously in a closed vascular network; arteries → capillaries → veins → heart

c)

Blood flows continuously in a closed vascular network; heart → arteries → capillaries → veins → heart

d)

Blood moves directly from the heart to tissues and returns to the heart without vessels

52.

In vertebrates with double circulation, which animals possess this type of circulation?

a)

Fish, lampreys, hagfish

b)

Frog, lizard, crocodile

c)

Birds, cats, cows, rabbits

d)

Clam, snail, crab

53.

What is the key structural difference between human circulation and fish circulation?

a)

Humans have oxygenated blood flowing through the gills

b)

Humans have two circuits of circulation while fish have only one circuit

c)

Humans have a closed system while fish have an open system

d)

Humans have no valves in the heart while fish do

54.

Which statement about heart chambers is incorrect?

a)

The atrium receives blood returning to the heart

b)

The ventricle connects to arteries

c)

Between atria and ventricles as well as at the bases of large arteries are valves

d)

The heart wall is built from cardiac muscle cells

55.

In the human heart, the conduction pathway operates in which order?

a)

Sinoatrial node → atrioventricular node → bundle of His → Purkinje network → ventricles and ventricular myocardium

b)

Atrioventricular node → sinoatrial node → bundle of His → Purkinje network → ventricles and ventricular myocardium

c)

Sinoatrial node → bundle of His → atrioventricular node → Purkinje network → ventricles and ventricular myocardium

d)

Sinoatrial node → Purkinje network → atrioventricular node → bundle of His

56.

For an average adult, one cardiac cycle lasts about 0.8 s. What is the approximate duration of atrial systole, ventricular systole, and total diastole?

a)

Atrial systole 0.3 s; ventricular systole 0.1 s; total diastole 0.4 s

b)

Atrial systole 0.1 s; ventricular systole 0.3 s; total diastole 0.4 s

c)

Atrial systole 0.1 s; ventricular systole 0.4 s; total diastole 0.3 s

d)

Atrial systole 0.4 s; ventricular systole 0.1 s; total diastole 0.3 s

57.

Which statement about blood pressure is correct?

a)

Blood pressure is the speed of blood flow measured per minute

b)

Blood pressure is the force of the heart contracting against arteries

c)

Blood pressure is highest in the aorta and large arteries, decreasing across smaller arteries and capillaries

d)

Blood pressure is lowest in the aorta and higher in capillaries

58.

Which feature of capillaries best suits their function in exchange with tissues?

a)

Few capillaries, so diffusion is faster

b)

Very numerous capillaries creating a large surface area for exchange

c)

Thick, multilayered walls to prevent leakage

d)

Very fast blood flow to speed exchange

59.

In humans, circulatory regulation occurs mainly through which mechanism?

a)

Nervous and endocrine regulation

b)

Endocrine and cellular regulation

c)

Nervous regulation

d)

Body fluids regulation

60.

In humans, which organ secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline into the blood to help regulate heart activity?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Lung

d)

Pancreas

61.

Which component belongs to the circulatory system of humans?

a)

Lung

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

d)

Kidney

62.

In open circulation, blood flows in arteries under what condition compared with closed circulation?

a)

High pressure, fast flow

b)

Low pressure, slow flow

c)

High pressure, slow flow

d)

Low pressure, fast flow

63.

In a closed circulatory system, the path of blood flow is which of the following sequences?

a)

Heart → arteries → capillaries → veins → heart

b)

Veins → capillaries → arteries → heart

c)

Arteries → veins → capillaries → heart

d)

Capillaries → arteries → veins → heart

64.

Which animals have double circulation?

a)

Worms, snails, grasshoppers

b)

Birds, cats, cows

c)

Insects, fish, worms

d)

Fish, frogs, reptiles

65.

In organisms with closed circulation, substances are exchanged with tissues through which vessels?

a)

Arteries

b)

Capillaries

c)

Veins

d)

Cardiac chambers

66.

Which sequence correctly describes the cardiac conduction pathway?

a)

Sinoatrial node → atrioventricular node → bundle of His → Purkinje network

b)

Atrioventricular node → sinoatrial node → bundle of His → Purkinje network

c)

Sinoatrial node → Purkinje network → atrioventricular node → bundle of His

d)

Bundle of His → sinoatrial node → Purkinje network → atrioventricular node

67.

During exercise, how does blood pressure change in the vascular system?

a)

Highest in capillaries, lowest in veins

b)

Highest in arteries, lowest in capillaries

c)

Highest in arteries, lowest in veins

d)

Highest in veins, lowest in arteries

68.

When discussing the direction of blood flow in a closed circulatory system of animals under normal conditions, which statement is incorrect?

a)

From veins through capillaries

b)

From arteries through capillaries

c)

From the atrium to the ventricle

d)

From the ventricle to the atrium

69.

When discussing blood pressure, which statement is correct?

a)

Blood flow rate is affected by pressure and the action on the vessel wall

b)

The circulatory system of insects consists of two main parts: heart and vessels

c)

Venous blood pressure is lowest

d)

Negative pressure is well matched to the lowest value

70.

The circulatory fluid of animals consists of blood or a mixture of blood and tissue fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

In open circulatory systems, which statement is correct?

a)

Blood in arteries flows at low pressure and slow speed

b)

Groups of animals that are very active usually have open circulation

c)

Open circulation does not directly participate in transporting O2 and CO2

d)

Open circulation does not directly contact body cells

72.

Regarding the human circulatory system, how many statements are correct? I. The human circulatory system has one large circulation. II. Blood in arteries is dark and rich in CO2. III. Veins have the lowest total pressure. IV. The highest flow rate is in arteries.

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

73.

Compared to the respiratory system, which statement about the circulatory system is incorrect?

a)

Blood flows in arteries at high pressure

b)

Blood directly contacts tissue cells

c)

High flow rate enables long-distance transport

d)

Capillaries are thin with one cell layer, allowing efficient exchange

74.

Innate immunity acquired at birth is called what?

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Cell-mediated immunity

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

Non-specific immunity

75.

When pathogens invade the body, the general response is called what?

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Natural immunity

c)

Innate immunity

d)

Non-specific immunity

76.

Barriers that protect the digestive system include which component?

a)

Acidic mucus in the stomach; low pH

b)

Lysosomes in saliva and pepsin enzymes in the stomach

c)

Drinking water helps wash away pathogens

d)

Beneficial bacteria always compete with harmful bacteria

77.

Barriers that protect the respiratory system include which component?

a)

Acidic mucus; low pH in airways

b)

Lysosomes in saliva and pepsin enzymes in the stomach

c)

Body heat in sweat; fungus, viruses and bacteria develop

d)

Beneficial bacteria always compete with harmful bacteria

78.

What causes the body to produce an immune response to an antigen?

a)

Toxin

b)

Antibody

c)

Antigen

d)

Hormone

79.

Proteins on foreign cells that trigger the immune response are called what?

a)

Antigen

b)

Antibody

c)

Antigenic determinant

d)

Allergen

80.

B lymphocytes secrete specific antibodies against invading bacteria. This is which type of immunity?

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Cell-mediated immunity

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

Natural immunity

81.

Which statement about cell-mediated immunity is incorrect?

a)

Plays a key role in T cell responses

b)

T cells produce proteins that destroy foreign antigens

c)

Important in viral diseases; T cells play an important role

d)

Occurs in all organisms and even plants

82.

Which statement about non-specific immunity is incorrect?

a)

Natural barriers of skin and mucosa

b)

Secretions like mucus, tears, saliva

c)

Preventive methods treat diseases for the body

d)

Do not depend on the number of pathogens

83.

Which defense is considered the third line of defense in humans and animals?

a)

Natural defenses of skin and mucosa

b)

Phagocytic white blood cells and complement proteins

c)

Specific immune response

d)

Non-specific immune response

84.

People with weakened immunity easily acquire opportunistic infections because

a)

They cannot produce antibodies to fight pathogens

b)

Their phagocytes are reduced; they cannot trap bacteria

c)

White blood cells are destroyed, reducing non-specific immunity

d)

T helper cells are destroyed, reducing both cell-mediated and humoral immunity

85.

Why must influenza vaccines be produced and updated every year?

a)

Virus resistance always changes so T cells become cytotoxic and secrete toxic substances

b)

Viral antigens frequently mutate causing T cytotoxic cells to lose function

c)

Viral antigens frequently mutate so B cells cannot recognize viral strains

d)

Viral antigens frequently mutate so both cytotoxic T cells and B cells cannot recognize different influenza strains

86.

Vaccination helps prevent diseases caused by viruses and bacteria because

a)

It creates primary immune responses so, upon re-exposure to the antigen, memory B cells trigger a secondary response

b)

It creates primary cell-mediated responses so, upon re-exposure, the antigen triggers T memory cells

c)

It creates primary humoral responses so, upon re-exposure, an adaptive cell-mediated response is formed

d)

It creates primary cell-mediated responses so, upon re-exposure, an adaptive humoral response is formed

87.

In humans, which process removes metabolic wastes that the body cannot reuse?

a)

Digestion

b)

Circulation

c)

Excretion

d)

Cellular respiration

88.

Which organ is the main site for forming urine?

a)

Intestine

b)

Skin

c)

Lungs

d)

Kidneys

89.

Which organ helps remove carbon dioxide from the body?

a)

Intestine

b)

Skin

c)

Lungs

d)

Kidneys

90.

Which organ helps remove sweat from the body?

a)

Intestine

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Skin

d)

Lungs

91.

Which main product is expelled from the lungs?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Urea

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Carbon dioxide

92.

Blood is considered an internal environment because it is made from plasma, blood and tissue fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Which first-line respiratory defense acts when dust or droplets enter the respiratory tract?

a)

The immune system immediately produces lysosomal enzymes

b)

Mucus in the airway traps particles; cilia sweep them to the pharynx and stomach

c)

Airway and lung pH is low, inhibiting pathogens

d)

Nasal hairs and tight epithelial junctions in the nasal cavity prevent entry

94.

Which is not a non-specific immune response?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Fever

c)

Inflammation

d)

Formation of antibodies

95.

Which statement is correct about the function of antibodies?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells circulate and secrete proteins that kill antigens

b)

They recognize signals from bacteria; are living substances

c)

They weaken phagocyte activity

d)

They inhibit bacteria and viruses from forming toxins

96.

Which statement best distinguishes non-specific immunity from specific immunity?

a)

Adaptive immunity acts quickly like bone marrow; non-specific has no effect

b)

Specific immunity acts slower initially but gives a stronger response; non-specific gives immediate response

c)

Specific immunity is effective against diverse pathogens whereas non-specific is not

d)

Specific immunity happens within each individual’s lifetime, non-specific exists from birth

97.

T helper cells become active when

a)

T helper cells need cytokines from interactions with B cells

b)

T helper cells need cytokines from interactions with antigen-presenting cells

c)

T helper cells need cytokines from interactions with macrophages

d)

T helper cells need cytokines from interactions with cytotoxic T cells

98.

Memory B cells allow the body to produce faster, stronger immune responses during re-exposure, making disease prevention more effective.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Which statement about allergies is incorrect?

a)

Occurs when the immune response is too strong to harmless antigens

b)

Symptoms are mainly due to histamine

c)

All allergic responses are anaphylactic shock

d)

Degree of allergic reaction depends on the dose of allergen

100.

Which process describes cancer metastasis?

a)

Cells leave the original site and are removed by other body organs

b)

Cells detach and are carried via blood or lymph to other sites forming malignant tumors

c)

Cells detach and destroy other pathogens at the site

d)

Cells move to other organs and enhance immune capacity of that organ

101.

People living with HIV/AIDS often get tuberculosis because

a)

They cannot produce antibodies against Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Phagocytes are reduced; they cannot trap bacteria

c)

White blood cells are destroyed, reducing non-specific immunity

d)

T helper cells are destroyed, reducing cell-mediated and humoral immunity

102.

Homeostasis is the maintenance of stability of the internal environment of the

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organism

d)

organ

103.

In describing homeostasis, the internal environment is best characterized as

a)

static, with indicators fixed at one exact value

b)

dynamic, with indicators tending to change and oscillate around a set point

c)

static, with indicators tending to change and oscillate around many values

d)

dynamic, with indicators tending to change and oscillate around many values

104.

Which organ below does not participate in maintaining homeostasis?

a)

kidney

b)

lung

c)

liver

d)

eye

105.

Which component below is an effector in homeostatic regulation?

a)

nervous system and endocrine glands

b)

organs such as kidneys, liver, and blood vessels

c)

receptors or sense organs

d)

muscles and glands

106.

The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon to contribute to which regulatory mechanism?

a)

regulating water reabsorption in the kidney

b)

maintaining normal blood glucose concentration

c)

regulating Na+ reabsorption in the kidney

d)

regulating blood pH

107.

For the mechanism maintaining homeostasis, which order is correct for the negative-feedback loop?

a)

receptor → control center → effector → receptor

b)

effector → control center → receptor → effector

c)

control center → receptor → effector → control center

d)

receptor → effector → control center → receptor

108.

When body water decreases, which phenomenon will occur?

a)

osmotic pressure increases and blood pressure decreases

b)

osmotic pressure increases and blood pressure increases

c)

osmotic pressure decreases and blood pressure increases

d)

osmotic pressure decreases and blood pressure decreases

109.

How many of the following conditions are diseases of the urinary system in humans: (I) nephritis, (II) fatty degeneration of the kidney, (III) renal failure, (IV) kidney stones, (V) essential hypertension?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

110.

In homeostatic regulation, negative feedback occurs when

a)

the internal environment is stabilized after the controller acts, sending a reversed influence to the receptor

b)

the internal environment is stabilized before the controller acts, sending a reversed influence to the receptor

c)

the effector changes conditions opposite to those before control, sending reversed influence to the receptor

d)

the internal environment returns to normal before control, sending reversed influence to the receptor

111.

We feel thirsty when

a)

blood osmotic pressure increases

b)

blood osmotic pressure decreases

c)

blood pH decreases

d)

blood glucose concentration decreases

112.

Insulin lowers blood glucose by

a)

increasing glucose excretion in urine

b)

storing glucose as lipid to prevent diffusion out of cells

c)

enhancing glucose release from cells

d)

enhancing glucose transport into cells

113.

The bicarbonate buffer system NaHCO3/Na2CO3\mathrm{NaHCO_3/Na_2CO_3} has the role of

a)

maintaining body temperature homeostasis

b)

maintaining blood glucose homeostasis

c)

maintaining blood pH homeostasis

d)

maintaining blood osmotic pressure homeostasis

114.

If toxic substances and excess wastes accumulate in the body, they will

a)

disturb homeostasis

b)

damage cells and organs

c)

lead to diseases

d)

all of the above

115.

Each nephron is composed of

a)

renal corpuscle (glomerulus) and tubule

b)

cortex and medulla

c)

renal pedicle and Bowman’s capsule

d)

glomerulus and renal pelvis

116.

Which statement below corresponds to the filtration stage in the formation of urine in a nephron?

a)

Water, nutrients, and necessary ions in the filtrate are reabsorbed by tubular cells back to the blood

b)

Blood pressure pushes water and solutes from blood through filtration slits into Bowman’s capsule, creating glomerular filtrate

c)

Toxins and some ions remaining are actively secreted by tubular cells into the filtrate

d)

Urine is concentrated by reabsorbing water and solutes in the renal pelvis

117.

On average, how many liters of primary filtrate are formed per day?

a)

1700 – 1800 L

b)

170 – 180 L

c)

15 – 20 L

d)

1.5 – 2 L

118.

A homeostatic control system contains which components?

a)

effector and receptor only

b)

receptor, effector, and external stimulus

c)

receptor, control center, and effector

d)

control center and effector only

119.

Which statement about a homeostatic control system is correct?

a)

The receptor receives a stimulus from the external environment of the body

b)

The receptor converts the signal that causes the response at the effector

c)

The control center transmits signals as neural impulses or hormones for the effector to produce a response

d)

If a component of the homeostatic system malfunctions, normal activity will still maintain homeostasis

120.

The liver’s role in homeostasis is to

a)

regulate concentrations of solutes such as proteins and glucose in plasma

b)

regulate water and salt balance via filtration pressure of body fluids

c)

maintain blood pH by secreting H+ into filtrate and reabsorbing HCO3\mathrm{HCO_3^-} into blood

d)

regulate blood gases by adjusting O2\mathrm{O_2} and CO2\mathrm{CO_2}

121.

Which structure carries urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder?

a)

ureter

b)

urethra

c)

collecting duct

d)

glomerulus

122.

Kidney functions include

a)

filtering blood and reabsorbing nutrients

b)

regulating the amount of water and salts reabsorbed

c)

removing toxic substances and excess wastes from the body

d)

all of the above

123.

In a homeostatic mechanism, which is the effector component?

a)

receptors or sense organs

b)

central nervous system

c)

endocrine glands

d)

organs such as kidneys, liver, lungs, heart, and blood vessels

124.

When blood glucose increases, the regulatory order proceeds as

a)

pancreas → insulin → liver and body cells → blood glucose decreases

b)

liver → insulin → pancreas → body cells → blood glucose decreases

c)

pancreas → body cells → insulin → blood glucose decreases

d)

insulin → liver and body cells → pancreas → blood glucose decreases

125.

The diagram shows a generic homeostatic regulation pathway with labeled boxes [1]–[5] from stimulus to response. Which statement about this diagram is false?

a)

Regulation is carried out by the central nervous system or endocrine glands

b)

[1] is the control center, [2] is the receptor, and [3] is the effector

c)

Signals are transmitted from [2] to [3] as neural impulses or hormones

d)

[5] is the feedback that reverses the influence back to the receptor

126.

Select all correct statements describing the inhalation and exhalation movements in fish. 1) During exhalation the mouth closes, the buccal floor rises, and the operculum opens. 2) During exhalation the mouth closes, the buccal floor rises, and the operculum closes. 3) During inhalation the mouth closes, the buccal floor lowers, and the operculum opens. 4) During inhalation the mouth opens, the buccal floor lowers, and the operculum closes.

a)

During exhalation the mouth closes, the buccal floor rises, and the operculum opens.

b)

During exhalation the mouth closes, the buccal floor rises, and the operculum closes.

c)

During inhalation the mouth closes, the buccal floor lowers, and the operculum opens.

d)

During inhalation the mouth opens, the buccal floor lowers, and the operculum closes.

127.

Select all correct statements about gas exchange in insects compared with birds. 1) Insects lack capillary networks around their tracheae while birds have capillary networks around their air tubes. 2) Respiratory movements in insects and birds both rely on expansion and contraction of respiratory muscles to increase air volume. 3) In insects, cellular gas exchange occurs directly with the environment without involvement of a circulatory system, making exchange less efficient. 4) Insects lack respiratory pigments, whereas birds have respiratory pigments in the circulatory fluid.

a)

Insects lack capillary networks around their tracheae while birds have capillary networks around their air tubes.

b)

Respiratory movements in insects and birds both rely on expansion and contraction of respiratory muscles to increase air volume.

c)

In insects, cellular gas exchange occurs directly with the environment without involvement of a circulatory system, making exchange less efficient.

d)

Insects lack respiratory pigments, whereas birds have respiratory pigments in the circulatory fluid.

128.

Given the animal groups: amphibians, reptiles, insects, fishes, earthworms, birds, and mammals, how many groups have a double circulatory system?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

129.

Given the animal groups: roundworms, flatworms, insects, amphibians, reptiles, crustaceans, and cnidarians, how many groups have an open circulatory system?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

130.

Given the animal groups: amphibians, reptiles, insects, fishes, earthworms, birds, and mammals, how many groups have a single circulatory system?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

131.

Given the animal groups: roundworms, flatworms, insects, amphibians, reptiles, fishes, and cnidarians, how many groups have a closed circulatory system?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

132.

Select all correct statements about the activity of the heart. 1) In most animals the heart has four chambers: two ventricles and two atria. 2) A cardiac cycle has three phases: atrial systole, ventricular systole, and joint diastole. 3) The heart works throughout life without fatigue because it has an intrinsic conduction system that generates rhythmic impulses. 4) Each cardiac cycle includes a joint diastole phase, allowing the heart to work for life without tiring.

a)

In most animals the heart has four chambers: two ventricles and two atria.

b)

A cardiac cycle has three phases: atrial systole, ventricular systole, and joint diastole.

c)

The heart works throughout life without fatigue because it has an intrinsic conduction system that generates rhythmic impulses.

d)

Each cardiac cycle includes a joint diastole phase, allowing the heart to work for life without tiring.

133.

Among the following causes: viruses, bacteria, genetic disorders, age-related degeneration, and fungi, how many are internal causes of disease in humans and animals?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

134.

Among the following causes: biological agents, chemical agents, physical agents, genetic disorders, age-related degeneration, dietary regime, and environmental pollution, how many are external causes of disease in humans and animals?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

135.

Select all correct statements about the functions of nonspecific immunity. (1) It blocks invasion by disease-causing agents. (2) It recognizes and secretes proteins that kill diseased cells. (3) It specifically recognizes, eliminates, and remembers particular pathogens. (4) It performs phagocytosis and breaks down pathogens.

a)

It blocks invasion by disease-causing agents.

b)

It recognizes and secretes proteins that kill diseased cells.

c)

It specifically recognizes, eliminates, and remembers particular pathogens.

d)

It performs phagocytosis and breaks down pathogens.

136.

Select all correct statements about homeostasis. 1) Homeostasis maintains stability of the internal environment of the body. 2) Homeostasis is a dynamic equilibrium. 3) The homeostatic state is maintained by regulatory systems of homeostasis. 4) In homeostasis, indicators such as blood pressure, body temperature, and blood glucose remain fixed constants.

a)

Homeostasis maintains stability of the internal environment of the body.

b)

Homeostasis is a dynamic equilibrium.

c)

The homeostatic state is maintained by regulatory systems of homeostasis.

d)

In homeostasis, indicators such as blood pressure, body temperature, and blood glucose remain fixed constants.

137.

Given the organs: skin, liver, heart, kidneys, and lungs, how many are the main excretory organs in humans?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

138.

Approximately how many liters of glomerular filtrate (primary urine) are formed in the human body per day?

a)

120 liters

b)

150 liters

c)

180 liters

d)

200 liters

139.

Which statement best defines photosynthesis?

a)

The conversion of chemical energy in glucose into ATP by mitochondria.

b)

The process by which green plants use light energy to synthesize organic matter from carbon dioxide and water, releasing oxygen.

c)

The uptake of nutrients from soil through roots.

d)

The breakdown of organic matter in the presence of oxygen.

140.

Which balanced equation represents the overall process of photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+C6H12O66CO2+6H2O6\text{O}_2 + \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 \rightarrow 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}

b)

6CO2+6H2OC6H12O6+6O26\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2

c)

C6H12O62C2H5OH+2CO2\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 \rightarrow 2\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} + 2\text{CO}_2

d)

NADPH+ATPglucose\text{NADPH} + \text{ATP} \rightarrow \text{glucose}

141.

Which statement best describes the role of photosynthesis in ecosystems?

a)

It converts light energy into chemical energy, produces organic matter, and releases oxygen that supports aerobic life.

b)

It only provides minerals to plants through the soil.

c)

It removes carbon dioxide without affecting oxygen levels.

d)

It is responsible solely for plant respiration at night.

142.

Which statement best describes the role of pigment systems in photosynthesis?

a)

Pigments block light from reaching chloroplasts to prevent damage.

b)

Pigments absorb light of different wavelengths and transfer energy to reaction centers for photosynthesis.

c)

Pigments store glucose produced during photosynthesis.

d)

Pigments catalyze the Calvin cycle reactions directly.

143.

Which dietary practice best ensures adequate nutrition for the body?

a)

Eating primarily one favorite food group to simplify meals.

b)

Maintaining a balanced, varied diet with limited sugar and fats while including vegetables, fruits, and whole grains.

c)

Skipping breakfast to reduce daily calories.

d)

Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet.

144.

Why should a person diversify foods in their diet to ensure adequate nutrition?

a)

Different foods supply different essential nutrients, so variety helps meet all requirements.

b)

Diversity increases taste only, not nutrient intake.

c)

A varied diet reduces water needs.

d)

Eating many different foods always lowers calorie intake.

145.

Select all effective strategies to prevent obesity and malnutrition.

a)

Combine healthy eating with regular physical activity.

b)

Limit sugary, fatty, and ultra-processed foods while increasing vegetables, fruits, and whole grains.

c)

Avoid all protein sources to reduce calories.

d)

Maintain consistent meal patterns and portion control.

146.

Which statement best explains the phenomenon of allergy to stimuli or foods?

a)

It is caused by a deficiency of red blood cells.

b)

It is an overreaction of the immune system to harmless substances, leading to mediator release such as histamine and symptoms like itching or swelling.

c)

It results from normal digestion of proteins and fats.

d)

It is due to the body’s inability to produce insulin.

147.

Why is an antibiotic skin test performed before injection in some patients?

a)

To measure the antibiotic’s effectiveness immediately.

b)

To detect hypersensitivity to the antibiotic and reduce the risk of anaphylactic reactions.

c)

To check blood glucose before treatment.

d)

To improve absorption of the drug.

148.

What is the main objective of a practical survey on vaccination implementation in schools?

a)

To punish students who skip classes.

b)

To assess vaccination coverage and compliance, identifying gaps in disease prevention.

c)

To advertise pharmaceutical products to students.

d)

To replace all health classes with surveys.