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Biology Review

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines metabolism in living organisms?

a)

All processes of growth and reproduction only

b)

All chemical processes occurring within an organism

c)

Only the reactions that break down food molecules

d)

Only energy-releasing reactions in mitochondria

2.

Which list includes characteristics common to all living things?

a)

Made of cells, respond to stimuli, use energy

b)

Able to photosynthesize, have cell walls, move freely

c)

Have bones, breathe oxygen, drink water regularly

d)

Contain only DNA, reproduce sexually, have organs

3.

According to cell theory basics, what is the most accurate statement about cells?

a)

They cannot function independently from tissues

b)

They only exist in plants, fungi, and protists

c)

They are smaller than molecules and atoms in organisms

d)

They are the smallest units that can perform life’s processes

4.

Which comparison correctly distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotes contain organelles; eukaryotes lack organelles

b)

Prokaryotes are larger; eukaryotes are always smaller

c)

Prokaryotes only exist in animals; eukaryotes in plants

d)

Prokaryotes lack a nucleus; eukaryotes have a nucleus

5.

A biologist identifies over 200 types of specialized cells in humans. What conclusion is best supported by this observation?

a)

Cells are diverse in structure and function

b)

Diversity of cells disproves cell theory

c)

All human cells carry out identical roles

d)

Specialization only occurs in plant tissues

6.

Which scenario best illustrates an organism responding to a stimulus?

a)

A pupil constricts when light intensity increases

b)

A tree’s mass increases during summer growth

c)

Mitochondria oxidize glucose to release energy

d)

A seed contains DNA as its genetic material

7.

Which statement accurately describes genetic material in living things?

a)

All organisms contain only RNA and never DNA

b)

Cells contain DNA or RNA serving as genetic material

c)

Only eukaryotes possess heritable genetic molecules

d)

Genetic material exists only inside the nucleus

8.

Which description best defines organelles within cells?

a)

Tissues formed by groups of similar cell types

b)

Membranes that separate organisms from the environment

c)

Specialized structures that work together for cell function

d)

Smallest particles that make up chemical elements

9.

Which statement best describes the cytoplasm in a typical cell?

a)

A stack of flattened sacs for export

b)

A jelly-like fluid mostly water

c)

A rigid network of microtubules

d)

A double-membrane surrounding DNA

10.

Primary function of cytoplasm in cell organization is to

a)

Synthesize ATP in mitochondria

b)

Pump ions across membrane

c)

Hold organelles in place

d)

Package proteins for secretion

11.

Which arrangement correctly describes the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane?

a)

Hydrophilic heads outward, hydrophobic tails inward

b)

Hydrophobic heads outward, hydrophilic tails inward

c)

Hydrophilic heads alternating with proteins

d)

Hydrophobic tails facing extracellular fluid

12.

Hydrophilic and hydrophobic refer to phospholipid regions that

a)

Carry oxygen or release oxygen

b)

Interact with water or avoid water

c)

Attract sodium or repel sodium

d)

Bind sugars or break sugars

13.

Selective permeability of the plasma membrane means it

a)

Permits only water to cross ever

b)

Lets any molecule pass freely

c)

Blocks all molecules from crossing

d)

Allows some substances through more easily

14.

Which membrane component primarily aids transport of nutrients and signals across the membrane?

a)

Cholesterol droplets in cytoplasm

b)

Carbohydrate-only side chains

c)

Free ribosomes on cytosol

d)

Embedded proteins in the bilayer

15.

Carbohydrates in the cell membrane mainly contribute to

a)

Providing structure and cell recognition

b)

Generating ATP for the cytoplasm

c)

Catalyzing glycolysis in cytosol

d)

Driving DNA replication fidelity

16.

Which change would most decrease membrane permeability to small polar molecules?

a)

Fewer protein channels present

b)

More cytoplasmic water added

c)

Longer hydrophilic head groups

d)

Shorter fatty acid tail length

17.

A new drug inserts into hydrophobic tails of the bilayer. Most direct immediate effect is

a)

Raising cytoplasmic pH significantly

b)

Increasing nuclear transcription rate

c)

Promoting ribosome assembly quickly

d)

Altering membrane fluidity and barrier

18.

If phospholipid heads became nonpolar due to a mutation, the membrane would most likely

a)

Become a thicker rigid cell wall

b)

Lose stable bilayer orientation

c)

Transport glucose more efficiently

d)

Expand cytoplasm water content

19.

Maintaining homeostasis by the plasma membrane depends largely on

a)

Blocking all extracellular signals

b)

Balancing selective permeability

c)

Maximizing cytoplasm viscosity

d)

Eliminating hydrophilic groups

20.

Which drawing choice best labels a single phospholipid?

a)

Polar phosphate head, two fatty acid tails

b)

Sugar head group, three protein tails

c)

Nonpolar head group, single RNA tail

d)

Ionic head group, two peptide tails

21.

Which molecules move across the phospholipid bilayer most easily without transport proteins?

a)

Charged macromolecules and proteins

b)

Large polar hydrophilic molecules and ions

c)

Small nonpolar hydrophobic molecules and water

d)

Glucose polymers and nucleic acids

22.

Why are some molecules unable to pass easily through the cell membrane?

a)

They are neutral so they diffuse too quickly

b)

They are polar or large, needing channels or vesicles

c)

They are too small to interact with lipids

d)

They are hydrophobic so water repels them

23.

Primary role of the cell (plasma) membrane in homeostasis is to

a)

Package enzymes for secretion

b)

Synthesize proteins from amino acids

c)

Produce ATP for cellular energy

d)

Regulate what enters and leaves the cell

24.

Transport proteins in membranes primarily enable

a)

Vesicles to fuse during exocytosis

b)

Nonpolar gases to diffuse through lipids

c)

Polar molecules to cross via specific channels

d)

Lipids to form the bilayer spontaneously

25.

Which list correctly names the three cytoskeleton types?

a)

Microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments

b)

Elastic fibers, collagen cables, fibrin strands

c)

Centrosomes, cilia fibers, spindle threads

d)

Actin fibers, myosin motors, keratin strands

26.

General functions of the cytoskeleton include

a)

Support, shape maintenance, motility, regulation

b)

Gene replication, transcription, translation control

c)

ATP synthesis, redox balance, heat generation

d)

Lipid storage, pigment formation, toxin defense

27.

Centrioles are best described as structures that

a)

Are DNA rings that control spindle genes

b)

Are membrane sacs that store spindle fluids

c)

Are made of actin and drive cytokinesis

d)

Are made of microtubules and form a centrosome

28.

During which event do centrioles help by pulling chromosomes apart?

a)

Cytokinesis in bacteria

b)

Prophase of meiosis

c)

Interphase in growth

d)

Anaphase of cell division

29.

Cilia and flagella motion relies mainly on which cytoskeletal element?

a)

Keratin bundles with desmosomes

b)

Microtubules arranged in axonemes

c)

Intermediate filaments cross-linked

d)

Microfilaments forming sarcomeres

30.

A small neutral hydrophobic drug diffuses into cells rapidly. The best explanation is that it

a)

Uses aquaporins for facilitated entry

b)

Moves by active transport pumps

c)

Requires a vesicle-mediated endocytosis

d)

Passes through the lipid bilayer easily

31.

Which statement best distinguishes chromatin from chromosomes in a typical body cell?

a)

Chromatin is threadlike DNA; chromosomes are condensed rods

b)

Chromatin is condensed rods; chromosomes are loose threads

c)

Chromatin contains RNA only; chromosomes contain only proteins

d)

Chromatin exists only in sex cells; chromosomes exist in plants

32.

What is the primary function of the nucleolus within the nucleus?

a)

Exporting completed proteins to the rough ER

b)

Assembling ribosomal subunits from rRNA and proteins

c)

Storing lipids for membrane synthesis inside nucleus

d)

Degrading old chromosomes during cell division

33.

Genes are best described as which of the following?

a)

Sugar chains in cytoplasm that label vesicles

b)

DNA segments on chromosomes that code for proteins

c)

Protein clusters on ribosomes that store energy

d)

RNA segments in nucleolus that digest lipids

34.

Which structure controls what enters and leaves the nucleus?

a)

Golgi apparatus cisternae stacks

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum tubules

c)

Intermediate filaments surrounding mitochondria

d)

Nuclear envelope with selective pores

35.

Where would ribosomes be found if the cell plans to export many proteins?

a)

Embedded in lysosomal membranes only

b)

Attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum membranes

c)

On microvilli projecting from plasma membrane

d)

Inside the nucleolus near chromosomes

36.

Ribosomes floating free in the cytoplasm primarily make proteins for what destination?

a)

Use within the cell's cytosol and organelles

b)

Immediate secretion into extracellular space

c)

Storage inside the nucleus for later use

d)

Insertion only into lysosome external membranes

37.

Which pair correctly matches structure to function involving cell motility?

a)

Cilia are nonmotile microvilli; flagella are contractile

b)

Cilia are long and few; flagella are short and many

c)

Cilia move whole cells through fluid; flagella move fluids

d)

Cilia move fluid across surfaces; flagella move whole cells

38.

Compared with cilia, flagella in eukaryotic cells are typically described as what?

a)

Longer and fewer, usually one to three

b)

Only present on plant epidermal cells

c)

Shorter and more numerous, hundreds

d)

Structurally identical to microvilli

39.

A cell shows numerous short projections that do not move but increase surface area for absorption. What are these structures called?

a)

Cilia driving fluid currents

b)

Pseudopodia forming vesicles

c)

Flagella attached to nucleus

d)

Microvilli on the cell surface

40.

During early steps of protein production, which sequence of locations is most accurate for a secreted protein?

a)

Ribosome on rough ER, lumen of rough ER, export pathway

b)

Free ribosome, nucleus interior, secretory vesicle

c)

Nucleolus assembly, lysosome matrix, plasma membrane

d)

Smooth ER synthesis, chloroplast stroma, extracellular

41.

A muscle cell needs rapid replacement of membrane proteins used in ion transport. Which organelles and processes must be most active?

a)

Lysosomes digesting DNA and cilia beating

b)

Mitochondria copying chromosomes and vacuoles

c)

Peroxisomes oxidizing lipids and microvilli waving

d)

Nucleolus forming ribosomes and rough ER translation

42.

A mutation damages nuclear pores so mRNA cannot leave the nucleus. Which immediate effect is most likely?

a)

Golgi cisternae will form additional nuclear envelopes

b)

Cytoplasmic ribosomes cannot translate needed proteins

c)

Mitochondria will stop producing ribosomal RNA

d)

Rough ER will convert chromatin into chromosomes

43.

Which organelle is primarily responsible for synthesizing membrane lipids in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Golgi apparatus cisternae stacks

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum membranes

c)

Free ribosomes in cytosol

d)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum membranes

44.

A protein destined for secretion most likely follows which pathway?

a)

Rough ER to Golgi to vesicle

b)

Nucleus to mitochondrion to ER

c)

Smooth ER to peroxisome to Golgi

d)

Ribosome to cytosol to lysosome

45.

Which feature distinguishes rough ER from smooth ER?

a)

Presence of surface ribosomes

b)

Attachment to the nucleus

c)

Network of membrane sacs

d)

Role in intracellular transport

46.

The Golgi apparatus mainly functions to do which set of tasks for proteins?

a)

Process, modify, and sort cargo

b)

Replicate and transcribe DNA

c)

Generate ATP by oxidation

d)

Degrade and recycle organelles

47.

Vesicles budding from the ER are best described as what?

a)

Energy factories for metabolism

b)

Mini-carts transporting cargo

c)

Permanent parts of membranes

d)

Genetic repositories for RNA

48.

Smooth ER in muscle cells stores Ca2+. What is the main significance of this storage?

a)

Provides carbon for glycolysis

b)

Triggers specific cell responses

c)

Increases nuclear transcription

d)

Enhances ribosomal translation

49.

Which statement about lysosomes is most accurate?

a)

They replicate nuclear chromosomes

b)

They synthesize polypeptides de novo

c)

They contain hydrolytic enzymes

d)

They produce ATP for movement

50.

A drug blocks vesicle fusion with the Golgi. Which immediate outcome is most likely?

a)

Cytoskeletal filaments depolymerize

b)

Mitochondrial ATP production rises

c)

Secretory proteins remain in ER

d)

Nuclear pores close completely

51.

During apoptosis, which organelle’s enzymes most directly contribute to controlled cell breakdown?

a)

Mitochondria releasing kinases

b)

Ribosomes releasing peptidylases

c)

Lysosomes releasing hydrolases

d)

Peroxisomes releasing catalase

52.

Which cellular scenario best illustrates division of labor in the endomembrane system?

a)

Golgi synthesizes DNA for ribosomes

b)

Lysosomes package proteins for secretion

c)

Smooth ER modifies steroids for export

d)

Ribosomes make lipids for membranes

53.

Which organelle is the primary site of cellular respiration that releases usable energy as ATP?

a)

Vacuole with stored solutions

b)

Golgi stack of flattened sacs

c)

Mitochondrion with cristae and matrix

d)

Lysosome with hydrolytic enzymes

54.

What structural feature of mitochondria increases surface area for ATP-producing reactions?

a)

Stacked cisternae called grana

b)

Outer capsule called tonoplast

c)

Tubular network called plasmodesmata

d)

Folded inner membrane called cristae

55.

Which term best describes the enzyme-rich fluid filling the mitochondrion interior?

a)

Lumen containing pigments

b)

Cytosol containing ribosomes

c)

Stroma containing thylakoids

d)

Matrix containing metabolic enzymes

56.

A cell suddenly cannot efficiently break down damaged organelles. Which organelle is most likely malfunctioning?

a)

Rough ER synthesizing proteins

b)

Mitochondrion making ATP

c)

Vacuole responsible for storage

d)

Lysosome responsible for digestion

57.

Which process directly generates ATP inside mitochondria from food molecules?

a)

Replication in nuclear chromatin

b)

Photosynthesis in thylakoid membranes

c)

Cellular respiration in cristae and matrix

d)

Fermentation in cytosolic channels

58.

In typical animal cells, vacuoles are described as which of the following?

a)

Pigmented and photosynthetic

b)

Larger and usually single

c)

Smaller and often more numerous

d)

Rigid and cellulose-reinforced

59.

Which function is correctly paired with the vacuole in an animal cell?

a)

ATP synthesis by oxidative enzymes

b)

Replication of genomic DNA

c)

Storage of water, nutrients, wastes

d)

Protein folding with chaperones

60.

Lysosomes are specialized for which biochemical capability?

a)

Hydrolytic enzyme-mediated digestion

b)

Lipid biosynthesis in smooth ER

c)

ATP generation in Krebs cycle

d)

Protein secretion from Golgi

61.

Programmed cell death can be facilitated by which organelle releasing enzymes?

a)

Lysosome through apoptosis pathways

b)

Vacuole through turgor pressure

c)

Mitochondrion through photosystems

d)

Ribosome through peptide bonds

62.

A muscle cell requires high ATP output. Which structural adaptation would best support this demand?

a)

Few vacuoles with stored waste

b)

Thick microtubules near membrane

c)

Many mitochondria with dense cristae

d)

Large lysosomes with hydrolases

63.

On the provided cell diagram, which label points to a membrane-bound sac marked for storage functions?

a)

Mitochondrion near cytoskeleton

b)

Nucleolus near chromatin fibers

c)

Lysosome near the Golgi stacks

d)

Vacuole near the cell periphery

64.

Which statement best distinguishes lysosomes from vacuoles in animal cells?

a)

Lysosomes digest materials; vacuoles store materials

b)

Both are nuclei; both control genes

c)

Lysosomes store wastes; vacuoles digest wastes

d)

Both mainly make ATP; both store fats

65.

ATP produced by mitochondria is immediately useful for which cellular need?

a)

Translating codons into heritable traits

b)

Driving energy-requiring cellular processes

c)

Maintaining pigment color in chloroplasts

d)

Storing long-term genetic information

66.

Which pair correctly matches structure and location inside a mitochondrion?

a)

Stroma is the cytosol inside lysosomes

b)

Grana are folds of the outer membrane

c)

Matrix is the space between two cells

d)

Cristae are folds of the inner membrane

67.

A researcher stains hydrolytic enzymes in vesicles and sees many labeled structures. Which organelle was most heavily stained?

a)

Mitochondria with ATP synthase

b)

Lysosomes packed with hydrolases

c)

Peroxisomes with catalase

d)

Vacuoles filled with pigments

68.

In the cell diagram (numbered), which structure is labeled 1 at the outer boundary and functions as a selective barrier regulating transport?

a)

Cell membrane controlling passage of substances

b)

Cytoplasm filling the internal cell space

c)

Nuclear envelope surrounding the chromosomes

d)

Cell wall providing rigid external support

69.

Label 3 points to a bean-shaped organelle with inner folds. What is its primary role?

a)

Lipid packaging and vesicle export

b)

DNA storage and transcription control

c)

ATP production through cellular respiration

d)

Protein synthesis on bound ribosomes

70.

Which organelle is indicated by label 4 with stacked, curved sacs near the membrane?

a)

Golgi apparatus modifying and sorting proteins

b)

Smooth ER synthesizing membrane lipids

c)

Rough ER covered in ribosomal subunits

d)

Lysosome digesting worn cellular parts

71.

Label 6 points to small purple dots clustered in the cytoplasm. What are they?

a)

Peroxisomes detoxifying reactive species

b)

Secretory vesicles storing packaged enzymes

c)

Free ribosomes synthesizing cytosolic proteins

d)

Centrioles forming spindle microtubules

72.

What function best matches the structure labeled 7, a green sac-like organelle within the cytoplasm?

a)

Genetic information storage and replication

b)

Storage and transport within vesicular compartments

c)

Photosynthesis using chlorophyll pigments

d)

Protein folding on membrane-bound ribosomes

73.

Which component is labeled 10 as a small yellow sphere near the center?

a)

Centriole organizing microtubule assembly

b)

Vesicle carrying secretory proteins

c)

Peroxisome removing hydrogen peroxide

d)

Ribosome building polypeptide chains

74.

Label 11 arrows to a blue membrane network dotted with particles. What is its identity?

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum studded with ribosomes

b)

Cytoskeleton of actin and microtubules

c)

Golgi apparatus of flattened cisternal stacks

d)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum lacking bound ribosomes

75.

The red sphere at label 12 sits inside a larger pink structure. Which pair correctly names both?

a)

Nucleolus within the nucleus

b)

Lysosome within the vacuole

c)

Ribosome within the Golgi

d)

Mitochondrion within the cytosol

76.

Which statement about tissues is most accurate?

a)

Organs are smaller units within each tissue

b)

Tissues are made of only nonliving materials

c)

Single cells act independently of one another

d)

Groups of cells cooperate for a shared function

77.

According to the composition chart, which component makes up the largest proportion of living tissue by mass?

a)

Ions at approximately twenty percent

b)

Vitamins at around ten percent

c)

Water at roughly seventy percent

d)

Macromolecules at near fifty percent

78.

What approximate percentage of living tissue is composed of macromolecules?

a)

About twenty-six percent total

b)

Roughly seventy percent total

c)

Close to ten percent total

d)

Approximately forty-five percent total

79.

Which list correctly identifies biological macromolecules most responsible for structure and function?

a)

Water, salts, gases, minerals, vitamins

b)

ATP, NADH, hormones, neurotransmitters

c)

Glucose, amino acids, nucleotides, ions

d)

Proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, carbohydrates

80.

Ions and other small molecules represent the smallest fraction of tissue mass. Which choice best explains their importance despite small quantity?

a)

They power photosynthetic carbon fixation

b)

They form membranes and energy reserves

c)

They provide long-term genetic information

d)

They regulate signaling and osmotic balance

81.

A dehydration scenario reduces body water from ~70% to ~60% by mass without changing macromolecules. What immediate effect is most likely at the cellular level?

a)

Cell volume decreases causing hypertonic stress

b)

Protein synthesis halts due to DNA loss

c)

Mitochondria stop ATP production entirely

d)

Ions become zero due to membrane collapse

82.

A cell increases rough ER surface area. Which outcome most directly results from this change?

a)

Reduced ATP generation from respiration

b)

Improved DNA replication fidelity

c)

Greater production of secreted proteins

d)

Enhanced lipid breakdown during starvation

83.

If the Golgi apparatus (label 4) were inhibited, which process would be most immediately disrupted?

a)

Transcription of ribosomal RNA genes

b)

Assembly of spindle fibers in mitosis

c)

Modification and sorting of export proteins

d)

Generation of proton gradients in matrices