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Ch. 11: Endocrine System

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What are the glands in the endocrine system?
2.

Which statement best describes the thyroid gland’s location?

a)

Small node within cranial cavity near pituitary

b)

Ring-shaped organ encircling esophagus

c)

Two lobes posterior to kidneys bilaterally

d)

Single lobe behind sternum near heart

e)

Two lobes in anterior neck below larynx

3.

Which cells produce and secrete thyroid hormones within the gland?

a)

Adipocytes in interstitial fat

b)

Follicular cells surrounding colloid

c)

Neurons embedded in stroma

d)

Extrafollicular cells in capsule

e)

Chondrocytes within cartilage

4.

What is the primary role of thyroid colloid?

a)

Barrier preventing iodine absorption

b)

Channel for pituitary hormone transport

c)

Site of calcitonin receptor expression

d)

Reservoir for inactive thyroid hormones

e)

Matrix forming thyroid cartilage rings

5.

Which combination lists the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland?

a)

Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin

b)

Oxytocin, vasopressin, prolactin

c)

Insulin, glucagon, somatostatin

d)

Parathyroid hormone, renin, erythropoietin

e)

Aldosterone, cortisol, androgens

6.

Which statement best distinguishes T3 from T4?

a)

T3 acts only locally; T4 never systemic

b)

T3 synthesized in kidney; T4 in liver

c)

T3 is the more active form; T4 is converted to T3

d)

T3 stored in blood; T4 stored in bone

e)

T3 is peptide; T4 is steroid hormone

7.

Two thyroid hormones primarily help regulate what physiological aspect?

a)

Synaptic neurotransmitter turnover

b)

Red blood cell hemoglobin synthesis

c)

How many calories the body consumes

d)

Blood oxygen partial pressure

e)

Pancreatic enzyme secretion rate

8.

Which function is associated with calcitonin?

a)

Triggers uterine contractions during labor

b)

Increases water reabsorption in kidneys

c)

Supports bone growth and calcium balance

d)

Stimulates glycogen breakdown in liver

e)

Enhances platelet aggregation in vessels

9.

In the microanatomy figure, which structure is the jelly-like center of thyroid follicles that stores the thyroid hormones?

a)

Sinusoid vascular channel

b)

Colloid within follicle lumen

c)

Capsule surrounding thyroid

d)

Nerve plexus between lobules

e)

Trabecula forming septa

10.

Which hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates pituitary secretion of TSH?

a)

TRH from hypothalamus

b)

GnRH from hypothalamus

c)

Somatostatin from hypothalamus

d)

CRH from hypothalamus

11.

TSH primarily acts on which tissue to increase thyroid hormone synthesis?

a)

Pancreatic beta cells

b)

Follicular thyroid cells

c)

Skeletal muscle fibers

d)

Adrenal cortex cells

12.

T3 is described as how potent compared to thyroxine (T4)?

a)

Half as potent as T4

b)

Ten times more potent than T4

c)

Five times more potent than T4

d)

Equal potency to T4

13.

Which statement best describes the negative feedback control of thyroid hormones?

a)

High T3/T4 suppresses TRH and TSH release

b)

High T3/T4 increases TRH and TSH release

c)

TSH inhibits TRH while raising T3/T4

d)

Low T3/T4 suppresses TRH but raises TSH

14.

Which physiological variable is most directly influenced by thyroid hormones?

a)

Basal metabolic rate regulation

b)

Glomerular filtration rate

c)

Plasma osmolarity regulation

d)

Arterial blood pressure reflexes

15.

Which thyroid hormone lowers blood calcium and phosphate concentrations?

a)

Thyroxine circulating form

b)

Triiodothyronine active form

c)

Calcitonin from extrafollicular cells

d)

TSH from anterior pituitary

16.

Which mechanism explains calcitonin’s effect?

a)

Stimulates osteoclast resorption

b)

Inhibits osteoclast activity

c)

Reduces renal calcium excretion

d)

Increases intestinal calcium uptake

17.

Which statement best describes the location of the parathyroid glands in relation to the thyroid?

a)

Embedded on posterior thyroid lobes surfaces

b)

Scattered within anterior thyroid isthmus tissue

c)

Nestled inferior to thyroid along tracheal rings

d)

Suspended superior to thyroid near larynx cartilage

18.

The primary action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on bone tissue is to:

a)

Increase collagen deposition in matrix

b)

Stimulate osteoclasts to release calcium

c)

Inhibit osteoclasts lowering blood calcium

d)

Stimulate osteoblasts to store calcium

19.

Which organ increases calcium reabsorption under PTH influence?

a)

Kidneys in distal tubules

b)

Spleen white pulp regions

c)

Liver sinusoids and ducts

d)

Pancreas exocrine acini

20.

PTH indirectly raises intestinal calcium absorption by:

a)

Stimulating vitamin D activation

b)

Boosting pancreatic enzyme release

c)

Increasing bile salt secretion

d)

Enhancing gastric acid production

21.

Which change triggers increased PTH secretion from the parathyroid glands?

a)

Rising plasma phosphate concentration

b)

High blood glucose after meals

c)

Falling plasma calcium concentration

d)

Elevated thyroid T4 concentration

22.

Calcitonin’s effect on blood calcium primarily involves:

a)

Inhibiting osteoclasts

b)

Activating osteoclasts

c)

Increasing renal calcium reabsorption

d)

Stimulating renal phosphate excretion

23.

If PTH increases blood calcium levels and calcitonin decreases blood calcium levels, the expected net effect on blood calcium is:

a)

Decrease below normal levels

b)

Oscillate without reaching equilibrium

c)

Maintain the normal range

d)

Remain unchanged despite hormones

24.

Which statement best explains the antagonistic relationship between PTH and calcitonin?

a)

They both decrease phosphate excretion by kidneys

b)

They both increase renal calcium reabsorption

c)

They synergistically increase intestinal absorption

d)

They produce opposite effects on bone resorption

25.

Which statement best defines a hormone in the endocrine system?

a)

Chemical messenger carried in the blood

b)

Electrical impulse across neuron membranes

c)

Digestive enzyme released into lumen

d)

Structural protein embedded in cell walls

26.

Which organs coordinate to maintain homeostasis through body-wide communication?

a)

Urinary and digestive systems

b)

Skeletal and muscular systems

c)

Cardiovascular and respiratory systems

d)

Nervous and endocrine systems together

27.

Which feature makes the endocrine system unique compared to many other body systems?

a)

Effects are always immediate and brief

b)

Signals are strictly electrical impulses

c)

Organs are not anatomically adjacent

d)

Glands function only within one organ

28.

Which statement contrasts neurotransmitters and hormones most accurately?

a)

Neurotransmitters act faster; hormones last longer

b)

Hormones act faster; neurotransmitters last longer

c)

Both act quickly and last longer

d)

Both act slowly and last briefly

29.

Which gland is located in the neck region and paired with parathyroid glands?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Pituitary gland

c)

Pancreas

d)

Adrenal gland

30.

Which endocrine organ directly secretes into blood to affect target cells with specific receptors?

a)

Goblet cells secreting mucus

b)

Neurons releasing neurotransmitters

c)

Glandular cells releasing hormones

d)

Exocrine ducts carrying enzymes

31.

Which pair correctly matches organ and general location shown in the diagram?

a)

Adrenal glands above kidneys

b)

Placenta inside cranial cavity

c)

Pineal gland in lower abdomen

d)

Thymus behind kidneys

32.

Which statement about target cells in endocrine signaling is accurate?

a)

Effect occurs only inside neurons

b)

Response requires synaptic cleft

c)

Only cells with receptors respond

d)

All nearby cells respond equally

33.

Which gland acts as a major control center for endocrine functions within the brain?

a)

Hypothalamus regulating pituitary

b)

Thymus directing adrenal cortex

c)

Pancreas controlling pineal gland

d)

Ovary regulating thyroid gland

34.

Which label on the diagram identifies reproductive endocrine organs?

a)

Ovary and testicle shown

b)

Pituitary and pineal shown

c)

Thyroid and thymus shown

d)

Pancreas and adrenal shown

35.

Which statement best describes autocrine signaling?

a)

Signals act on distant organs through blood

b)

Signals act on adjacent neighboring cells

c)

Signals act on synapses between neurons

d)

Signals act on the same cell that secreted them

36.

Which secretion typically has the longest duration of action?

a)

Autocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Endocrine

37.

In endocrine signaling, target cells are usually located where?

a)

Postsynaptic neurons only

b)

Adjacent cells in immediate area

c)

Same cell secreting the signal

d)

Cells in different organs or tissues

38.

What is the chemical signal of the endocrine system?

a)

Action potentials

b)

Hormone molecules

c)

Second messengers

d)

Neurotransmitter molecules

39.

Which key term correctly matches its definition: gland secretions that only affect neighboring cells?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Hormones

c)

Paracrine

d)

Autocrine

40.

Which key term describes the organ system that includes glands secreting hormones into blood?

a)

Autocrine system

b)

Paracrine network

c)

Nervous system

d)

Endocrine system

41.

Which statement best describes steroid hormone solubility and transport in blood?

a)

Hydrophobic; dissolves readily in blood

b)

Hydrophilic; binds membrane transporters only

c)

Hydrophobic; requires protein carriers in blood

d)

Hydrophilic; circulates freely in blood

42.

Steroid hormones are primarily synthesized from which precursor molecule?

a)

Fatty acids with short chains

b)

Cholesterol with a large carbon ring

c)

Glucose-derived pyruvate

d)

Amino acids with polar groups

43.

Nonsteroid hormones are generally derived from which building blocks?

a)

Cholesterol with fused rings

b)

Nucleotides forming DNA strands

c)

Amino acids with polar functional groups

d)

Triglycerides forming lipid droplets

44.

Which step occurs first in the classical steroid hormone mechanism inside a target cell?

a)

Crossing the cell membrane into cytoplasm

b)

Activation of intracellular protein receptor

c)

Translation of hormone-induced mRNA

d)

Export of mRNA from the nucleus

45.

In the steroid hormone pathway, what directly activates transcription of specific mRNA?

a)

Hormone–receptor complex in nucleus

b)

Hormone alone binding ribosomes

c)

Membrane-bound tyrosine kinase

d)

Second messenger cAMP cascade

46.

Which feature distinguishes amine hormones like norepinephrine from steroids?

a)

Derived from cholesterol skeleton

b)

Cross nucleus to bind DNA directly

c)

Composed of amino acids with modified groups

d)

Stored in adipose tissue droplets

47.

Which hormone class is most likely to use membrane receptors and second messengers?

a)

Amines with polar side groups

b)

Cholesterol esters in lipoproteins

c)

Steroids with hydrophobic cores

d)

Vitamin D metabolites only

48.

During steroid hormone action, what happens immediately after mRNA exits the nucleus?

a)

It binds membrane receptors

b)

It is translated by ribosomes into protein

c)

It triggers cAMP production

d)

It degrades into amino acids

49.

Which property allows a steroid hormone to cross the cell membrane?

a)

High water solubility enables diffusion

b)

Lipid solubility enables diffusion

c)

Active transport via membrane pumps

d)

Charge attraction to phospholipids

50.

After entering the target cell, what is the next step in the steroid hormone mechanism?

a)

Binding to a specific intracellular receptor

b)

Phagocytosis by lysosomal enzymes

c)

Immediate activation of ribosomes directly

d)

Exocytosis back across the membrane

51.

Where does the hormone–receptor complex primarily interact to initiate gene transcription in the depicted process?

a)

Mitochondrial matrix

b)

Nuclear DNA sequences

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum cisternae

d)

Golgi apparatus lumen

52.

Which statement best describes the role of mRNA in the pathway shown?

a)

mRNA stores hormones inside the nucleus

b)

mRNA degrades steroid hormones rapidly

c)

mRNA carries genetic instructions to ribosomes

d)

mRNA transports lipids into membranes

53.

Which cellular location is the site of protein synthesis in the depicted mechanism?

a)

Nuclear envelope exterior

b)

Ribosome in cytoplasm

c)

Lysosome surface

d)

Plasma membrane interior

54.

Which ordered sequence best matches the numbered pathway in the diagram?

a)

Diffusion, receptor binding, mRNA synthesis, mRNA export, translation

b)

Facilitated transport, receptor blocking, mRNA degradation, apoptosis

c)

Active pumping, vesicle fusion, tRNA charging, chromosome condensation

d)

Endocytosis, receptor binding, DNA replication, mitosis, secretion

55.

What characteristic of the cell membrane prevents nonsteroid hormones from entering the cell directly?

a)

Hydrophobic lipid core of the membrane

b)

Active export pumps in the cytoplasm

c)

Nuclear envelope pore selectivity

d)

Tight junctions between adjacent cells

56.

Which step immediately follows a nonsteroid hormone binding to its membrane receptor?

a)

Direct phosphorylation of target proteins

b)

Translocation of receptor to the nucleus

c)

Conversion of ATP into cAMP

d)

Activation of adenylate cyclase by G protein

57.

What enzyme catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP in this pathway?

a)

Adenylate cyclase on the membrane

b)

Phosphodiesterase in the cytosol

c)

Tyrosine kinase receptor subunit

d)

Protein kinase A holoenzyme

58.

Which molecule serves as the second messenger for many water‑soluble hormones in the diagram?

a)

Diacylglycerol lipid fragment

b)

Calcium ions released locally

c)

Inositol trisphosphate

d)

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

59.

In the illustrated sequence, what is the source substrate that is converted to cAMP?

a)

ATP in the cytoplasm

b)

AMP in the nucleus

c)

ADP in mitochondria

d)

GTP at the receptor

60.

Which statement best describes signal transduction as shown?

a)

Membrane pumps import hormone into cytosol

b)

Hormone diffuses across lipid bilayer directly

c)

Extracellular hormone triggers intracellular responses

d)

Receptor migrates to the nucleus to bind DNA

61.

Which event explains why a water‑soluble hormone requires a receptor on the membrane?

a)

It cannot cross the lipid bilayer unaided

b)

It binds covalently to cytosolic enzymes

c)

It is rapidly degraded in the nucleus

d)

It must be packaged into vesicles first

62.

Once cAMP is produced, what is its immediate functional role in the pathway?

a)

Breaks down GTP bound to G protein

b)

Initiates hormone synthesis in the cell

c)

Opens nuclear pores for hormone entry

d)

Activates existing proteins to change activity

63.

Which sequence correctly orders the steps shown in the diagram?

a)

Hormone enters cytosol; receptor binds DNA; ATP becomes ADP; proteins synthesized

b)

Hormone binds receptor; adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cAMP; cAMP activates proteins

c)

Receptor internalizes; GTP becomes GDP; cAMP degraded; hormone exocytosed

d)

Hormone binds nuclear receptor; phospholipase C forms IP3; calcium activates enzymes

64.

Which feature best distinguishes prostaglandins from classic endocrine hormones?

a)

They are stored long term before release

b)

They are secreted only by endocrine glands

c)

They circulate widely through the bloodstream

d)

They act locally near their synthesis site

65.

Which brain region houses the pituitary gland as part of its structures?

a)

Diencephalon

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Midbrain

d)

Cerebrum

66.

The anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary gland are best distinguished by which feature?

a)

Different hormonal synthesis and storage methods

b)

Identical cells with shared portal veins

c)

Same hormones released by both lobes

d)

Both store hypothalamic hormones only

67.

In the feedback loop shown, thyroid hormones primarily exert which effect on TRH and TSH secretion?

a)

Alternating inhibition then stimulation

b)

No feedback on either secretion

c)

Positive feedback stimulation of both

d)

Negative feedback inhibition on both

68.

Which component is NOT part of the diencephalon?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Pineal gland

69.

Which statement best describes the functional relationship between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and target endocrine organs?

a)

Target glands release TRH to stimulate hypothalamus

b)

Pituitary directly controls neurons of cortex

c)

Hypothalamus regulates pituitary, which regulates glands

d)

Anterior and posterior lobes regulate each other

70.

Which statement best describes the hypothalamus’s role in hormone control?

a)

It replaces thyroid function when hormone levels fall

b)

It controls the pituitary gland that regulates other glands

c)

It blocks pituitary signals during stress responses

d)

It directly secretes all body hormones to tissues

71.

Which structure connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, allowing hormonal communication?

a)

Pituitary stalk

b)

Optic chiasma junction

c)

Sphenoidal sinus ridge

d)

Oculomotor nerve tract

72.

Hormones released from the pituitary gland enter the bloodstream to mainly affect what?

a)

Cerebral ventricles

b)

Peripheral nerves only

c)

Other endocrine organs

d)

Skeletal muscles only

73.

Which hormone is abbreviated TSH in endocrine terminology?

a)

Thalamic signaling hormone

b)

Thyroxine storage hormone

c)

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

d)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

74.

Which hormone is correctly matched with its common abbreviation?

a)

Oxytocin ACTH

b)

Growth hormone LH

c)

Prolactin PRL

d)

Antidiuretic hormone FSH

75.

Which pair lists gonadotropins produced by the anterior pituitary?

a)

ADH and OT

b)

ACTH and TSH

c)

GH and PRL

d)

FSH and LH

76.

Where does the pituitary gland sit relative to the skull base?

a)

Inside the third ventricle

b)

Above the sphenoidal sinus

c)

Within the sella turcica

d)

Behind the optic chiasma

77.

Which lobe of the pituitary primarily stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus?

a)

Intermediate pituitary

b)

Optic pituitary

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Posterior pituitary

78.

Which organ is a direct endocrine target of pituitary gonadotropins listed in the key terms?

a)

Pancreatic duct

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Thyroid cartilage

d)

Ovary or testis

79.

Which structure transports hypothalamic releasing hormones directly to the anterior pituitary?

a)

Hypophyseal portal veins

b)

Third ventricular ducts

c)

Posterior lobe axons

d)

Systemic carotid artery

80.

What is the immediate effect of hypothalamic releasing hormones on the anterior pituitary?

a)

Inhibit blood flow entirely

b)

Store peptides in terminals

c)

Trigger neural action potentials

d)

Stimulate hormone production

81.

Where are posterior pituitary hormones stored prior to release?

a)

Second capillaries

b)

Nerve terminals

c)

Anterior cells

d)

Third ventricle

82.

Which anterior pituitary hormone primarily promotes tissue growth and increases protein synthesis?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Thyrotropin releasing hormone

d)

Growth hormone

83.

Which hormone is released by the hypothalamus to stimulate pituitary secretion of TSH when metabolic rate is low?

a)

LH

b)

ACTH

c)

TSH

d)

TRH

84.

What is the primary role of thyroid‑stimulating hormone (TSH)?

a)

Stimulate thyroid to produce thyroid hormones

b)

Trigger cortisol secretion from adrenal cortex

c)

Directly raise blood glucose in muscles

d)

Induce milk ejection from mammary tissue

85.

Which hormone from the anterior pituitary promotes milk production in the mammary glands?

a)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone on cortex

b)

Follicle‑stimulating hormone on follicles

c)

Luteinizing hormone acting on ovaries

d)

Prolactin acting on mammary glands

86.

Thyroxine (T4) primarily has which effect on body physiology?

a)

Decreases oxygen consumption and growth

b)

Directly inhibits pituitary growth hormone

c)

Increases metabolic rate and heat production

d)

Stimulates adrenal cortex for aldosterone

87.

Rising circulating T4 levels exert negative feedback that directly inhibits which releases?

a)

TSH from pituitary and TRH from hypothalamus

b)

FSH from pituitary and GnRH from hypothalamus

c)

ACTH from pituitary and CRH from hypothalamus

d)

GH from pituitary and insulin from pancreas

88.

Which sequence best represents the normal pathway leading to thyroid hormone release under low T4 conditions?

a)

Hypothalamus ACTH → Thyroid TSH → Follicles T4

b)

Pituitary GH → Thyroid TRH → Bloodstream T4

c)

Thyroid T4 → Pituitary TRH → Hypothalamus TSH

d)

Hypothalamus TRH → Pituitary TSH → Thyroid T4

89.

Which reasoning best explains why posterior pituitary secretions are considered hormones rather than neurotransmitters?

a)

They are transported in the blood stream

b)

They cross synapses to act on dendrites

c)

They are stored only in synaptic vesicles

d)

They function exclusively within the CNS

90.

Explain the function of prolactin.

a)

It promotes milk production in mammary glands

b)

It stimulates cortisol release from adrenal cortex

c)

It triggers uterine contractions during labor

d)

It raises blood glucose by glycogenolysis

91.

Which hormones are released from the posterior pituitary?

a)

Aldosterone and cortisol

b)

Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

c)

Prolactin and growth hormone

d)

Thyroxine and calcitonin

92.

Which anterior pituitary hormone primarily stimulates body cell growth and increases amino acid uptake across membranes?

a)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

b)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

c)

Oxytocin (OT)

d)

Growth hormone (GH)

e)

Prolactin (PRL)

93.

Which hormone is synthesized in the hypothalamus but released from the posterior pituitary and promotes water conservation by kidneys?

a)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b)

Oxytocin (OT)

c)

Growth hormone (GH)

d)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

e)

Prolactin (PRL)

94.

Which structure is the endocrine gland attached to the brain base consisting of anterior and posterior lobes?

a)

Thyroid gland structure

b)

Pituitary gland structure

c)

Pineal gland structure

d)

Hypothalamic nucleus structure

95.

Which statement best locates the adrenal glands in the body?

a)

Embedded in the pancreas tail region

b)

Behind the sternum near the heart

c)

On top of each kidney as paired organs

d)

Suspended from the hypothalamus directly

96.

Which region forms the central portion of an adrenal gland?

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Connective capsule

c)

Zona glomerulosa

d)

Adrenal medulla

97.

Which layers belong to the adrenal cortex?

a)

Zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis

b)

Medulla, capsule, bronchioles

c)

Glomerulus, nephron, duct

d)

Thalamus, pituitary, hypothalamus

98.

Which pair lists the hormones secreted by adrenal medulla cells?

a)

Insulin and glucagon

b)

Thyroxine and calcitonin

c)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

Cortisol and aldosterone

99.

Which statement correctly describes epinephrine and norepinephrine roles?

a)

They are secreted only during sleep cycles

b)

They act solely at neuromuscular junctions

c)

They function only as lipid-soluble steroids

d)

They act as both hormone and neurotransmitter

100.

Which stimulus most directly triggers adrenal medulla secretion during stress?

a)

Sympathetic impulses

b)

Parasympathetic vagal inhibition

c)

Thyroid hormone binding to cortex

d)

Elevated pancreatic insulin release

101.

Which respiratory change supports the fight-or-flight response of adrenal medulla hormones?

a)

Bronchodilation increasing airflow

b)

Bronchoconstriction limiting ventilation

c)

Thickened alveolar membrane diffusion

d)

Suppressed respiratory motor neurons

102.

A student experiences acute stress. Which integrated outcome best represents adrenal medulla action?

a)

Elevated heart rate, bronchodilation, muscle blood flow

b)

Lowered heart rate, bronchoconstriction, skin perfusion

c)

Stable heart rate, unchanged airflow, renal vasodilation

d)

Elevated insulin, decreased glucose, hepatic glycogenesis

103.

Which adrenal cortex hormone primarily regulates extracellular electrolyte balance by conserving sodium and excreting potassium?

a)

Aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid

b)

Cortisol, a glucocorticoid

c)

Adrenal androgens, sex steroids

d)

Epinephrine, a catecholamine

104.

What is the main metabolic effect of cortisol on glucose availability during fasting between meals?

a)

Prevents fatty acid release from adipose tissue

b)

Blocks hepatic gluconeogenesis pathways

c)

Directly increases glycogen breakdown in muscle

d)

Stimulates glucose formation from noncarbohydrates

105.

Which pituitary hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol?

a)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

b)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

c)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

d)

Growth hormone (GH)

106.

Negative feedback in the hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis primarily acts by cortisol inhibiting secretion of which upstream hormones?

a)

CRH and ACTH secretion

b)

FSH and LH secretion

c)

Insulin and glucagon secretion

d)

TSH and TRH secretion

107.

Blood sodium and potassium concentrations primarily regulate secretion of which adrenal cortex hormone?

a)

Epinephrine secretion rate

b)

Adrenal androgen release

c)

Cortisol secretion levels

d)

Aldosterone secretion levels

108.

Adrenal androgens mainly serve which role in the endocrine system?

a)

Supplement gonadal sex hormones

b)

Drive acute fight‑or‑flight response

c)

Regulate blood electrolyte balance

d)

Control thyroid hormone synthesis

109.

Which statement best describes aldosterone’s classification and primary action?

a)

Mineralocorticoid regulating ion concentrations

b)

Glucocorticoid modulating carbohydrate metabolism

c)

Peptide hormone controlling pituitary output

d)

Catecholamine enhancing heart rate and BP

110.

During acute stress, the HPA axis increases cortisol. What mechanism ensures levels return toward baseline afterward?

a)

Sympathetic afterdischarge summation

b)

TSH-mediated positive feedback

c)

Enhanced insulin feedforward signaling

d)

Cortisol-mediated negative feedback

111.

Which upstream signal originates in the hypothalamus to stimulate pituitary ACTH release?

a)

Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)

b)

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

c)

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

d)

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

112.

Which structure is the inner part of the adrenal gland?

a)

Adrenal medulla

b)

Renal hilum

c)

Zona glomerulosa

d)

Adrenal cortex

113.

Which layer forms the outer section of the adrenal gland?

a)

Renal capsule

b)

Pituitary lobe

c)

Adrenal medulla

d)

Adrenal cortex

114.

Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla during stress?

a)

Renin

b)

Cortisol

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Aldosterone

115.

Which statement best describes norepinephrine in this context?

a)

A neurotransmitter also secreted as a stress hormone

b)

A kidney peptide controlling blood pressure

c)

An enzyme that degrades synaptic catecholamines

d)

A cortical steroid regulating glucose metabolism

116.

Which adrenal cortical hormone primarily regulates blood sodium and potassium levels?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Cortisol

117.

Mineralocorticoids primarily affect which aspect of body homeostasis?

a)

Electrolyte concentrations in body fluids

b)

Heart rate during acute stress

c)

Neurotransmitter release at synapses

d)

Rate of protein synthesis in muscle

118.

Which hormone is classified as a glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Cortisol

119.

Glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex primarily affect which processes?

a)

Neuromuscular junction depolarization

b)

Bone calcium deposition rates

c)

Electrolyte balance and fluid volume

d)

Carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism

120.

Which description best defines the adrenal gland itself?

a)

Exocrine organ within the renal pelvis

b)

Pancreatic islet near the duodenum

c)

Endocrine gland on the superior kidney

d)

Thyroid tissue attached to the trachea

121.

Which statement best describes the pancreas as a dual-function gland?

a)

Stores bile and secretes glucagon and insulin

b)

Acts as exocrine and endocrine in one organ

c)

Only endocrine tissue produces all pancreatic secretions

d)

Secretes insulin and digestive enzymes together

122.

Which cells in pancreatic islets secrete glucagon?

a)

Alpha cells in the islets

b)

Beta cells near ducts

c)

Acinar cells around capillaries

d)

Delta cells in exocrine tissue

123.

Which hormone lowers blood glucose by promoting cellular uptake of glucose?

a)

Insulin from beta cells

b)

Glucagon from alpha cells

c)

Epinephrine from adrenal medulla

d)

Somatostatin from delta cells

124.

Which process is stimulated by glucagon to raise blood glucose?

a)

Enhanced glucose uptake by adipocytes

b)

Increased insulin receptor expression

c)

Formation of glycogen in muscle

d)

Breakdown of glycogen in liver

125.

During the hours after a meal, which secretion pattern is expected?

a)

Increased glucagon secretion

b)

Reduced insulin secretion

c)

Increased insulin secretion

d)

Equal insulin and glucagon secretion

126.

Which best explains negative feedback regulation of insulin?

a)

High glucose increases insulin release

b)

Low glucose increases insulin release

c)

Insulin rises independent of glucose

d)

Insulin release raises blood glucose

127.

Which pairing correctly matches cell type with hormone?

a)

Acinar cells produce insulin

b)

Alpha cells produce glucagon

c)

Beta cells produce glucagon

d)

Alpha cells produce insulin

128.

Which outcome follows increased insulin after a carbohydrate-rich meal?

a)

Ketone formation in liver

b)

Cellular uptake of glucose

c)

Glycogen breakdown predominates

d)

Noncarbohydrates convert to glucose

129.

In Type 1 diabetes, which mechanism primarily leads to hyperglycemia?

a)

Peripheral tissues become resistant to insulin binding

b)

GLUT4 overexpression causes continuous glucose influx

c)

Excessive hepatic glucose uptake lowers blood glucose

d)

Autoimmune destruction reduces beta-cell insulin

130.

Which feature distinguishes Type 2 diabetes?

a)

Complete absence of beta cells from birth

b)

Insulin resistance with gradual production decline

c)

Immediate restoration of glucose channel opening

d)

Exclusive involvement of alpha cells of pancreas

131.

Which statement best defines the pancreas in the context of glucose regulation?

a)

Neural tissue that controls blood sugar via nerves

b)

Gland that only releases digestive enzymes into intestines

c)

Muscular organ that stores glycogen in the liver

d)

Endocrine organ that secretes insulin and glucagon

132.

Which hormone primarily raises blood glucose concentration during fasting?

a)

Insulin produced by pancreatic islets

b)

Somatostatin from delta cells

c)

Glucagon released by pancreatic islets

d)

Epinephrine from adrenal medulla

133.

A patient’s blood glucose is high after a meal. Which hormone will most directly lower it, and by what cellular action?

a)

Glucagon by inhibiting glycogen synthesis

b)

Insulin by increasing hepatic glycogenolysis

c)

Glucagon by converting amino acids to glucose

d)

Insulin by stimulating cellular glucose uptake

134.

Which hormone from the pineal gland primarily helps regulate circadian rhythms tied to the light–dark cycle?

a)

Melatonin secretion during daylight exposure

b)

Melatonin released in response to darkness

c)

Cortisol produced by adrenal cortex daily

d)

Serotonin synthesized in gastrointestinal tract

135.

Where is the thymus located relative to major organs in the thorax?

a)

Just above the heart in mediastinum

b)

Below diaphragm beside liver

c)

Behind lungs near spinal column

d)

Within neck anterior to trachea

136.

Thymosins are best described as which type of biological molecules?

a)

Group of peptides acting as hormones

b)

Amino acids functioning as neurotransmitters

c)

Glycoproteins made by placenta

d)

Steroid derivatives from cholesterol

137.

What is a primary effect of thymosins on the immune system?

a)

Stimulate erythrocyte oxygen transport

b)

Affect lymphocyte production and differentiation

c)

Enhance neutrophil phagocytic activity

d)

Increase platelet aggregation in vessels

138.

Which stimulus most directly modulates melatonin secretion from the pineal gland?

a)

Circulating thyroid hormone levels

b)

External light conditions detected by retina

c)

Body temperature fluctuations overnight

d)

Blood glucose concentration changes

139.

Which set lists hormones produced by the placenta?

a)

Testosterone, inhibin, oxytocin

b)

Insulin, glucagon, somatostatin

c)

Estrogens, progesterone, gonadotropin

d)

Aldosterone, cortisol, catecholamines

140.

What best describes a circadian rhythm in human physiology?

a)

Irregular behavior during acute stress

b)

Random fluctuations in body temperature

c)

Pattern of repeated behavior over months

d)

Pattern of behavior linked to night and day

141.

What hormone is primarily elevated in the resistance stage to sustain the stress response?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Melatonin

d)

Insulin

142.

Which sequence correctly traces the HPA axis during prolonged stress?

a)

Cortisol → ACTH → CRH

b)

ACTH → CRH → cortisol

c)

CRH → cortisol → ACTH

d)

CRH → ACTH → cortisol

143.

Which immediate physiological change occurs in the alarm stage?

a)

Body temperature drops

b)

Urine volume increases

c)

Blood calcium decreases

d)

Blood glucose increases

144.

In the alarm stage, which circulatory effect is typical?

a)

Blood pressure increases

b)

Blood pressure decreases

c)

Hematocrit decreases

d)

Platelet count increases

145.

Which change supports enhanced ventilation during the alarm stage?

a)

Alveolar fluid increases

b)

Diaphragm relaxes fully

c)

Air passages dilate

d)

Air passages constrict

146.

Which stage keeps the fight-or-flight response persistently active, leading to sustained cortisol release?

a)

Resistance stage with prolonged cortisol

b)

Alarm stage with acute catecholamines

c)

Recovery stage with parasympathetic tone

d)

Exhaustion stage with hormone depletion

147.

Which long-term consequence is most directly linked to sustained activation in the resistance stage?

a)

Enhanced immunity against pathogens

b)

Persistent hypoglycemia and fatigue

c)

Hypertension and cardiovascular strain

d)

Decreased blood amino acid levels

148.

Define stressor using correct terminology suitable for physiology.

a)

Emotional outcome after coping efforts

b)

Factor capable of stimulating a stress response

c)

Neural reflex that resolves homeostasis

d)

Hormone secreted during alarm stage

149.

Which statement best distinguishes stress from a stressor?

a)

Both describe life-threatening pathogens

b)

Both are hormones released by adrenal glands

c)

Stress is the factor; stressor is the reaction

d)

Stress is the response; stressor is the factor