WorksheetsThe Big Biology End of Course Study Guide
Total questions: 117
Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Macromolecule which provides insulation, stores energy and cushions internal organs.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Proteins
c)
Lipids
d)
Nucleic Acids
2.
DNA and RNA are examples of...
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
3.
In what organelle of plant cells does photosynthesis occur?
a)
mitochondria
b)
centrioles
c)
chloroplast
d)
ribosomes
4.
A structure not found in animal cells
a)
cell wall
b)
cell membrane
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
5.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
6.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondria
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
7.
This organelle takes food and turns it into ENERGY for plant and animal cells.
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Lysosome
d)
Ribosome
8.
phospholipid bilayer controlling what enters and exits all cells
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Cytoskeleton
9.
Made of microtubules and microfilaments that provide shape to the cell
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cytoskeleton
c)
Cell Membrane
d)
Cell Wall
10.
Make lipids and transports material throughout the cell
a)
Golgi Apparatus
b)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Lysosomes
11.
Sorts, packages, and ships proteins to their final destination
a)
Ribosome
b)
Lysosome
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Golgi Apparatus
12.
Does NOT contain a nucleus
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
All cells
13.
Contains membrane-bound organelles
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
All cells
14.
Has ribosomes
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
All cells
15.
Always has a cell wall
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
All cells
16.
Only Bacteria
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
All cells
17.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
18.
Osmosis is a form of ______________.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
19.
Movement of materials from high to low concentration through a protein channel.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
20.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
21.
ATP is a form of energy.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
22.
Low to High
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
23.
Solutes move against the concentration gradient, therefore energy is needed.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
24.
What is it called when molecules move across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a carrier protein?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
25.
How does a cell maintain homeostasis?
a)
Regulates what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Flexibility
c)
Protective barrier
d)
Structure and support
26.
The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means...
a)
All materials can enter and leave the cell
b)
Certain things can enter while others cannot
c)
The cell manually sorts through all materials
d)
Only certain cells can interact with the cell.
27.
Against the concentration gradient
low to high
uses energy/ATP
low to high
uses energy/ATP
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
active transport
d)
simple diffusion
28.
A cell will _____________________ in a hypertonic solution.
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
will not change
d)
will explode
29.
Moving "Big stuff" out
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
30.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
31.
If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and 5 percent water outside a cell
a)
more water will move inside the cell
b)
more water will move outside the cell
c)
There will be no movement of water cells
32.
If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into a glass of water with 20% salt, the water is _______ compared to the cell.
a)
hypertonic-
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
33.
If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into a glass of water with 20% salt, the water is _______ compared to the cell.
a)
hypertonic-
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
34.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
35.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
36.
The purpose of photosynthesis is ...
a)
to make glucose
b)
to break glucose
c)
to capture energy from the sun
d)
to change carbon dioxide
37.
How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related?
a)
They have opposite equations
b)
they have the same equation
c)
they both produce carbon dioxide
d)
they both produce oxygen
38.
What gas is released into the air during photosynthesis?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen
c)
water
d)
glucose
39.
What gas is released into the air during cellular respiration?
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
water
d)
glucose
40.
The rabbit's ORIGINAL source of energy is from the...
a)
plant
b)
sun
c)
ATP
d)
glucose
41.
What would happen if the plant population decreased?
a)
photosynthesis would decrease
b)
photosynthesis would increase
c)
photosynthesis would stay the same
42.
Where does cellular respiration take place in the cell?
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Vacuole
43.
What does it mean for something to be anaerobic?
a)
It requires CO2
b)
It does not require CO2
c)
It requires oxygen
d)
It does not require oxygen
44.
What is the function of a carbohydrate?
(Why do I need this before a workout?)
(Why do I need this before a workout?)
a)
Quick energy
b)
Movement
c)
Stores genetic information
d)
Speeds up reactions
45.
What are the products of aerobic respiration?
a)
Glucose and oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide and water
c)
Lactic acid
d)
Carbon monoxide
46.
Which type of respiration is most efficient?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
47.
Lactic acid fermentation occurs in your muscles after a workout because your cells are struggling to get...
a)
Glucose
b)
Sunlight
c)
Oxygen
d)
Water
48.
The process carried out by yeast that causes bread to rise is
a)
alcoholic fermentation
b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
cellular respiration
d)
yeast mitosis
49.
Which process produces CO2 as a waste product?
a)
Lactic Acid Fermentation
b)
Ethanol (Alcoholic) Fermentation
50.
Fermentation is:
a)
Cellular Respiration
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
Aerobic
d)
Anaerobic
51.
How do enzymes speed up chemical reaction?
a)
Increasing activation energy
b)
Decreasing activation energy
c)
Increasing deactivation energy
d)
Decreasing deactivation energy
52.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
53.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants
54.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
55.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction.
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
56.
The pH at which an enzyme is most efficient is called the _________ pH of an enzyme.
a)
neutral
b)
optimum
c)
minimum
d)
experimental
57.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
58.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
59.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
60.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______.
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
61.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
62.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
63.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
64.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
65.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
66.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
67.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
68.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
69.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
70.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
71.
The image illustrates which process?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
72.
Which of the following statements best explains the overall purpose of MITOSIS?
a)
Asexual reproduction of somatic cells
b)
To produce gametes
73.
Which of the following statements best explains the overall purpose of MEIOSIS?
a)
Asexual reproduction of somatic cells
b)
To produce gametes
74.
If a parent cell has 88 chromosomes, following MITOSIS, the daughter cells will have ___ chromosomes.
a)
42
b)
88
c)
Impossible to know
75.
If a parent cell has 88 chromosomes, following MEIOSIS, the daughter cells will have ___ chromosomes.
a)
42
b)
88
c)
Impossible to know
76.
Genetic disorders, such as Down's Syndrome, are a result of errors in __________.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
77.
Only mistakes during ____ can be passed to future generations.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
78.
Process that produces four daughter cells.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
79.
Process that produces somatic daughter cells.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
80.
Process that produces sex cells (gametes).
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
81.
Produces genetically identical daughter cells.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
82.
Produces genetically varied daughter cells.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
83.
Process needed for growth and injury repair
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
84.
Takes place only in reproductive organs
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
85.
Takes place all over the body
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis
86.
Cells of organism must replicate for ?
a)
growth
b)
repair of damaged cells
c)
replacement of dying cells.
d)
All of the above
87.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
obesity
b)
cancer
c)
diabetes
d)
hepatitis
88.
A pair of chromosomes that consists of XX is a __________________.
a)
Male
b)
Female
89.
In the S stage of interphase_______________
a)
the cell grows
b)
the nucleus divides
c)
the cell membrane divides
d)
the DNA is replicated
90.
an organism's appearance or other detectable characteristic
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
genetics
d)
heterozygous
91.
Which of the following is heterozygous?
a)
Hh
b)
gg
c)
HH
d)
GG
92.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
93.
Heredity is the passing of traits from _____________________ to _____________________
a)
predators to prey
b)
water to rain
c)
parents to offspring
d)
fungi to protists
94.
In codominance the alleles are neither dominant or recessive?
a)
True
b)
False
95.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white. What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
96.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
97.
What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
offspring are identical to parents
b)
offspring are resistant to viruses
c)
offspring are born live, rather thna from eggs
d)
offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information
98.
Term for homozygous organisms that display two dominant phenotypes at the same time
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
linked genes
99.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
100.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
101.
Why is the order of amino acids so important?
a)
The order of amino acids dictates what shape the protein will fold into.
b)
It is not important. The protein folding chamber will force the protein to fold into the correct shape.
102.
Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell be passed on to an organism's offspring?
a)
Yes, because any change to the DNA is passed on to the offspring
b)
Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the body's genetic code. It might get the copy of a gene that wasn't mutated.
c)
No. Only mutations that occur in the gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the offspring
d)
Without knowing the animal, it would be hard to tell whether or not the mutation would be passed on.
103.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
104.
When the DNA of an organism is altered it is referred to as…
a)
Mutation
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Sexual Selection
105.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
106.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
107.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
108.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
109.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
110.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
fitness
111.
The reduced genetic diversity that results when a population is descended from a small number of colonizing ancestor that interbreed.
a)
Natural selection
b)
Genetic bottleneck
c)
Founder effect
112.
A catastrophe kills many individuals in a population, leaving a small number of individuals to interbreed. These individuals may have different genes than the original population.
a)
Natural selection
b)
Genetic bottleneck
c)
Founder effect
113.
In Australia, all finches are yellow. In England, all finches are green. A green finch flies into the cargo area of a plane in London. The plane flies to Australia and the bird exits the plane. The bird reproduces and now there are both yellow and green finches in Australia. What mechanism of evolution was described?
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Founders Effect
e)
Sexual Selection
114.
Two bighorn sheep fight over a female. The strongest male with the biggest horns will mate with the female. This is an example of what mechanism of evolution?
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Gene flow
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Founders Effect
e)
Sexual Selection
115.
A population of orange, yellow, and blue butterflies lived in a valley. While the majority of the butterflies were in cocoons, a flood occurred destroying the majority of the cocoons. The few that survived were yellow or orange. No blue butterflies existed after the flood. This is an example of what mechanism of evolution?
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Founders Effect
e)
Sexual Selection
116.
In Madagascar, the flower known as Darwin's Orchid grows in many different colors. A human is hiking in Madagascar. He travels home to the United States. On the bottom of his shoes are seeds from Darwin's Orchid. These seeds fall off his shoes and grow in the United States. All Darwin Orchids in the United States are white. This is an example of what mechanism of evolution?
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Founders Effect
e)
Sexual Selection
117.
How much energy is passed on to each trophic level in an energy pyramid?
a)
10%
b)
90%
c)
50%
d)
80%
100 %
