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Biology 1st Semester Final Exam Review 18-19

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The statement, "the worm's scar appears old" is a(n)

a)

Quantitative observation

b)

Qualitative observation

c)

Inference

d)

Hypothesis

2.

When you test the water at the Salamonie Reservoir to see if it’s drinkable, you don’t test every drop of water. You take samples at different locations and make a(n)

a)

Quantitative observation

b)

Qualitative observation

c)

Inference

d)

Hypothesis

3.

In order for a hypothesis to be useful, it has to be

a)

Measurable

b)

Observable

c)

Correct

d)

Testable

4.

Redi performed an experiment with meat and maggots to test the hypothesis called

a)

Spontaneous Generation

b)

Biogenesis

c)

Biology

d)

Evolution

5.

Which of the following statements about a controlled experiment is true?

a)

Scientists can always perform controlled experiments.

b)

Only one variable is changed at a time.

c)

Controlled experiments cannot be performed on living things.

d)

All the variables must be kept the same.

6.

A well tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations is called a(n)

a)

Inference

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Experiment

d)

Theory

7.

The process of a new organism forming from a single parent is called

a)

Asexual reproduction

b)

Sexual reproduction

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Development

8.

The process of maintaining internal balance when the external changes is called

a)

Metabolism

b)

Genome

c)

Evolution

d)

Homeostasis

9.

Which of the following is NOT a goal of science?

a)

To investigate and understand the natural world

b)

To explain events in the natural world

c)

To use data to support a particular point of view

d)

To use derived explanations to make useful predictions

10.

A scientist observes that a plant has grown 2 cm over a three-week period. This would be considered

a)

An inference

b)

A hypothesis

c)

Qualitative data

d)

Quantitative data

11.

Which of the following is a way that scientists generate hypotheses?

a)

An informed feeling

b)

Logical inference

c)

Informed, creative opinions

d)

Prior beliefs

12.

The level of biology that contains all the ecosystems is called

a)

Population

b)

Community

c)

Biome

d)

Biosphere

13.

When a scientist performs a controlled experiment, it allows him/her to isolate and test

a)

A single conclusion

b)

A single variable

c)

All the variables in the experiment

d)

A mass of information

14.

The ability to reproduce results is an important part of any

a)

Experiment

b)

Theory

c)

Law

d)

Hypothesis

15.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?

a)

Growth and development

b)

Ability to move

c)

Response to an environment

d)

Ability to reproduce

16.

Pain and sound are examples of

a)

Factors necessary for feeling

b)

Factors necessary for life

c)

Factors to which living things respond

d)

Factors that affect reproduction

17.

Which is NOT a step in the scientific method?

a)

Ask a question

b)

Form an opinion

c)

Set up a controlled experiment

d)

Record and analyze results

18.

The smallest level of biology that scientists study is the

a)

Community

b)

Cell

c)

Population

d)

Organism

19.

Biology is the study of

a)

Animals only

b)

Life

c)

Plants only

d)

The environment

20.

When you come to Mr. Luthy’s class and it’s 100 degrees in the classroom, your body starts to sweat in order to keep you cool. This process is known as

a)

Evolution

b)

Metabolism

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Photosynthesis

21.

A herd of buffalo live together in the same place. This would be an example of

a)

Biosphere

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Population

d)

Environment

22.

You set meat outside in the hot sun and soon notice flies landing on the meat. After a day or so, you notice there are maggots on the meat. You suggest that the maggots came from the flies. This would be an example of a(n)

a)

Conclusion

b)

Experiment

c)

Inference

d)

Hypothesis

23.

You are very hungry so you go to a pizza parlor for dinner. As soon as you step inside you smell the pizza. All of a sudden your mouth starts watering. What would be considered the stimulus?

a)

The smell

b)

Your hunger

c)

Your mouth watering

d)

Opening the door to go inside

24.

What is evidence or information gathered from observations called?

a)

Manipulated variable

b)

Responding variable

c)

Data

d)

Hypotheses

25.

What was the responding variable in Redi's experiment with the meat and maggots?

a)

The gauze covering the jars

b)

The type of meat

c)

The amount of jars

d)

Whether or not maggots appeared on the meat

26.

While studying a venomous duck, you notice that it has two feet. This would be an example of

a)

Quantitative data

b)

Qualitative data

c)

An inference

d)

A hypothesis

27.

What was the manipulated variable in Redi's experiment with the meat and maggots?

a)

The gauze covering the jars

b)

The type of meat

c)

The amount of jars

d)

Whether or not maggots appeared on the meat

28.

We, as humans, would be considered

a)

Unicellular

b)

Multicellular

c)

Amphibians

d)

Arachnids

29.

Which of the following characteristics of living things would best explain why birds fly south for the winter?

a)

Living things respond to their environment

b)

Living things maintain internal balance

c)

Living things are made up of units called cells

d)

Living things are based on a universal genetic code

30.

Observation

a)

Process of gathering ideas

b)

Proposed explanation (an educated guess)

31.

Hypothesis

a)

Process of gathering ideas

b)

Proposed explanation (an educated guess)

32.

Cell

a)

Smallest functional unit of living things

b)

Keep variables the same

33.

Controlled experiment

a)

Smallest functional unit of living things

b)

Keep variables the same

34.

Inference

a)

Based on prior knowledge/experience

b)

Need two parents

35.

Sexual reproduction

a)

Based on prior knowledge/experience

b)

Need two parents

36.

Multicellular

a)

Signal to which an organism responds

b)

More than one cell

37.

Unicellular

a)

Single-celled organism

b)

Break things down for energy

38.

Manipulated variable

a)

Variable that is changed

b)

Signal to which an organism responds

39.

Metabolism

a)

Single-celled organism

b)

Break things down for energy

40.

Stimulus

a)

Signal to which an organism responds

b)

More than one cell

41.

The main function of the cell wall is to

a)

Help the cell move

b)

Direct the activities of the cell

c)

Support and protect the cell

d)

Store DNA

42.

The thin, flexible barrier around a cell is called the

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Envelope

d)

Cell Membrane

43.

Which organelle would you expect to find in plant cells?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Mitochondrion

44.

Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?

a)

Breaks down waste

b)

Stores DNA

c)

Synthesizes lipids

d)

All of the above

45.

Which cell structure contains the cell's genetic material and controls many of the cell's activities?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Cell envelope

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleus

46.

When a particle is too large to diffuse on its own and it needs help to get across the cell membrane, this process is called what?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Hypertension

47.

The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called

a)

Osmosis

b)

Osmotic pressure

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

48.

Which of these provide support and structure to the cell?

a)

Cytoplasm and ribosomes

b)

Microtubules and microfilaments

c)

Nucleolus and nucleus

d)

Chromosomes

49.

Eukaryotes usually contain

a)

Genetic material

b)

Specialized organelles

c)

A nucleus

d)

All of the above

50.

Which of the following organelles synthesize and package lipids?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Rough E.R.

d)

Smooth E.R.

51.

Which of the following is NOT found in animal cells?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

DNA

d)

Ribosomes

52.

Which of the following structures serve as the cell's boundary for its environment?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Channel proteins

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Cell membrane

53.

Which organelle converts sunlight into energy that the cell can use?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Chloroplast

54.

Cells fall into two broad categories, depending on whether they

a)

Have a nucleus

b)

Contain genetic material

c)

Have a cell wall

d)

Contain chloroplasts

55.

Diffusion is the movement of particles from

a)

An area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration

b)

An area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

c)

An area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

d)

All of the above

56.

Which organelle makes proteins using coded instructions that come from the nucleus?

a)

Vacuole

b)

Ribosome

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Golgi apparatus

57.

Prokaryotes lack

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Genetic material

c)

A cell membrane

d)

A nucleus

58.

Who was the first person to identify and see cells?

a)

Robert Hooke

b)

Matthias Schleiden

c)

Mr. Herrera

d)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

59.

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

a)

Regulates which materials enter and leave the cell

b)

Keeps the cell wall in place

c)

Stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates

d)

Breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods

60.

Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?

a)

Helps a cell keep its shape

b)

Contains DNA

c)

Helps make proteins

d)

Surrounds the cell

61.

Molecules tend to move from an area where they are more concentrated to an area where they are less concentrated. This process is called

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Diffusion

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Osmosis

62.

The ______ converts food into energy that the cell can use; it acts as a power generator for the cell.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Chloroplast

63.

Proteins and lipids are delivered to the __________ in order to be packaged and shipped out to different parts of the cell.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Chloroplasts

64.

According to the cell theory, new cells are created from existing ____.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Cells

d)

Ribosomes

65.

Unlike smooth endoplasmic reticulum, rough endoplasmic reticulum has _______ attached to it.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Cells

d)

Ribosomes

66.

When molecules diffuse from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Active Transport

c)

Osmosis

67.

The amount of solutes dissolved in a solution.

a)

Lipid bilayer

b)

Organelles

c)

Concentration

68.

The basic units of life.

a)

Cells

b)

Organelles

c)

Osmosis

69.

When molecules are taken into the cell.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

70.

Makes up the cell membrane.

a)

Channel proteins

b)

Lipid bilayer

71.

When certain molecules are "helped" in diffusing across the cell membrane

a)

Active transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion

72.

When molecules are released by the cell.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

73.

"Tiny organs"

a)

Organelles

b)

Cells

c)

Channel proteins

74.

Assists specific molecules as they move across the membrane.

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Channel proteins

c)

Organelles

75.

The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane.

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Concentration

d)

Facilitated diffusion

76.

Energy is released from ATP when

a)

A phosphate group is added

b)

Adenine bonds to ribose

c)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

d)

A phosphate group is removed

77.

Look at the photo above. All of the following are parts of an ADP molecule EXCEPT

a)

Structure A

b)

Structure B

c)

Structure C

d)

Structure D

78.

Which structures shown in 8-1 make up an ATP molecule?

a)

A and B

b)

A, B, and C

c)

A,B,C, and D

d)

C and D

79.

In figure 8-1, the bond must be broken between which parts of the molecule for ATP to release energy and form an ADP molecule?

a)

A and B

b)

B and C

c)

C and D

d)

All of the above

80.

A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight. The gas being collected is probably

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

Vaporized water

81.

Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into

a)

Oxygen

b)

High-energy sugars and starches (glucose)

c)

ATP and oxygen

d)

Oxygen and high-energy sugars are starches (glucose)

82.

Which of the following is(are) used in the overall reactions for photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Water

c)

Light

d)

All of the above

83.

Plants take in the sun's energy by absorbing

a)

High-energy sugars

b)

Chlorophyll A

c)

Chlorophyll B

d)

All of the above

84.

Most plants appear green because chlorophyll

a)

Does not absorb green light

b)

Reflects violet light

c)

Absorbs green light

d)

None of the above

85.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 +C6H12O6 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 +C6H12O6 + Energy --> 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O --> 6O2 +C6H12O6 + Energy

86.

What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?

a)

Oxygen and lactic acid

b)

Carbon dioxide and water

c)

Glucose and oxygen

d)

Water and glucose

87.

Which of these is the product of cellular respiration?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

All of the above

88.

Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nuclei

89.

What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for all living things?

a)

Sugar

b)

Sun

c)

Moon

d)

Carbon dioxide

90.

Which gas is released into the atmosphere as a product of cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Nitrogen

91.

As a cell becomes larger, its

a)

Volume increases faster than its surface area

b)

Surface area increases faster that its volume

c)

Volume increases, but its surface area stays the same

d)

Surface area stays the same, but its volume increases

92.

All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT

a)

DNA overload

b)

Excess oxygen

c)

Obtaining enough food

d)

Expelling wastes

93.

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

a)

Only during interphase

b)

Only when they are being replicated

c)

Only during the mitosis phase

d)

Only during the G1 phase

94.

Which pair is correct?

a)

G1 phase, DNA replication

b)

G2 phase, organelles are being replicated

c)

S phase, cell division

d)

M phase, cell growth

95.

When during the cell cycle is a cell's DNA replicated?

a)

G1 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

96.

Which event occurs during interphase?

a)

The cell grows

b)

Chromosomes appear

c)

Chromosomes split apart

d)

Nuclear envelope breaks down

97.

Which of the following represents the phases of MITOSIS in their proper sequence?

a)

PMAT

b)

IPMAT

c)

IPMT

d)

PMATC

98.

The two main stages of CELL DIVISION are called

a)

Mitosis and interphase

b)

Synthesis and cytokinesis

c)

The M phase and the S phase

d)

Mitosis and cytokinesis

99.

Which of the following explains why normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing once they have covered the bottom of the dish?

a)

The cells lack cyclin

b)

The petri dish inhibits cell growth

c)

Contact with other cells stop growth

d)

Most cells growth in petri dishes have a defective p53 gene

100.

Cyclins are a family of closely related proteins that

a)

Regulate the cell cycle

b)

Produce p53

c)

Cause cancer

d)

Work to heal wounds

101.

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Spindle fibers

c)

Growth

d)

Bladder

102.

Which of the following is a phase in the CELL CYCLE?

a)

G1 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

M phase

d)

All of the above

103.

The structure labeled A is called the

a)

Centromere

b)

Centriole

c)

Sister chromatid

d)

Spindle

104.

The structures labeled B are called

a)

Centromes

b)

Centrioles

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Spindles

105.

In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes become visible?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

106.

The division of the nucleus

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

107.

The cell grows

a)

G1 phase

b)

Interphase

108.

Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes and nuclear envelope dissolves

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

109.

Organelles are replicated

a)

G2 phase

b)

Cytokinesis

110.

Chromosomes are pulled apart by the spindle

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

111.

Chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

112.

The division of the cytoplasm

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

113.

DNA is replicated

a)

S phase

b)

M phase

114.

DNA uncondenses and nuclear envelope re-forms around each set of chromosomes

a)

Telophase

b)

Anaphase

115.

What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria?

a)

The mice develop pneumonia

b)

The harmless bacteria died

c)

The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria

d)

The mice were unaffected

116.

DNA is made up of units called nucleotides. Nucleotides are made up of what three parts?

a)

Glucose + phosphate group + adenine

b)

5 carbon sugar + hydrogen bond + nitrogenous base

c)

5 carbon sugar + phosphate group + nitrogenous base

d)

ribose + phosphate group + nitrogenous base

117.

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,

a)

One with two new strands and the other with two original strands

b)

Each with two original strands

c)

Each with two new strands

d)

Each with one new strand and one original strand

118.

What holds two complimentary nitrogenous bases together?

a)

Helicase

b)

Nitrogen bond

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

A hydrogen bond

119.

Avery's experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

120.

Chromatin contains proteins called

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Glucose

c)

Helicase

d)

Histones

121.

At the beginning of DNA replication, what enzyme "unzips" the two strands of a DNA molecule?

a)

Kinase

b)

ATP synthase

c)

Helicase

d)

DNA polymerase

122.

A virus that infects bacteria by injecting its own genetic material into the bacteria is called what?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

E. coli

d)

DNA polymerase

123.

Who came up with the first 3D model of the structure of DNA?

a)

Frederick Griffith

b)

Oswald Avery

c)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

d)

James Watson and Francis Crick

124.

According to the principle of _______, adenine can only bond with thymine, and guanine can only bond with cytosine.

a)

X-ray diffraction

b)

DNA replication

c)

Transformation

d)

Base pairing

125.

DNA is copied during a process called

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transformation

d)

Transcription

126.

In eukaryotes, DNA

a)

Is located in the ribosomes

b)

Is circular

c)

Is located in the nucleus

d)

Floats freely in the cytoplasm

127.

Who developed the technique of using X-ray diffraction to determine the structure of DNA?

a)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

Frederick Griffith

d)

James Watson and Francis Crick

128.

What enzyme attaches complementary base pairs to complete the process of replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

ATP synthase

d)

Kinase

129.

The sites where DNA is unzipped are called what?

a)

Chromatin

b)

Lagging strands

c)

Leading strands

d)

Replication forks

130.

The _________ is the strand of DNA that is replicated in short segments

a)

Leading strand

b)

Lagging strand

131.

Adenine and Thmine are said to be what?

a)

Purines

b)

Complimentary

c)

Templates

d)

Pyrimidines

132.

Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(n) (THE ENTIRE STRUCTURE)

a)

RNA molecule

b)

DNA molecule

c)

Amino acid

d)

Protein

133.

The structure labeled X is a

a)

Cytosine

b)

5 Carbon Sugar

c)

Phosphate Group

d)

Nucleotide

134.

If one strand of DNA has the following sequence, AATCATGGA, what would the complementary strand be?

a)

AATCATGGA

b)

TTAGTACCT

c)

GGATAUCUA

d)

UUAGUACCU