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Life Science 2

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

nonpolar group that forms hydrophobic amino acids

a)

alkyl

b)

hydroxyl

c)

cat

d)

dog

2.

Amino acids include

a)

glycine

b)

single hydrogen atom w r group

c)

alanine w methyl r group

d)

all the above

3.

a polar group that forms hydrophili amino acids such as serine and threonine

a)

hydroxyl

b)

alkyl

c)

amino

d)

group

4.

amino acids in this group include cysteine and methionine

a)

sulfur

b)

acid

c)

base

d)

amino

5.

2nd cabooxylic acid group is attached as the r group is polar and can be negatively cahrged when attached to water molecule protiens aspartic and glumatic

a)

carboxylic acid

b)

amide

c)

amino

d)

aromatic

6.

the formula for amide is -COHN2 Protiens belonging to this group are glumatine and asparagine

a)

amide

b)

amino

c)

peptide

d)

celluar

7.

this group includes lysine,arginine, and histidine. the double bonded nitrogen atom can take a proton to become positively charged

a)

amino

b)

aromatic

c)

base

d)

acid

8.

this group has a ring structure, and includes the protiens phenylalanine,tyrosine, and trptophan. Tyrosine is polar

a)

aromatic

b)

amino

c)

base

d)

acid

9.

this group includes praline because it is nonpolar its forms a ring rather than a chain

a)

looped

b)

circle

c)

star

d)

acid

10.

process by which energy is made available for ADP to form ATP. Electrons move down the electron transport chain the energy pumps protons to one side of a membrane

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

nuclear fussionm

c)

cell fusion

d)

nucleic acids

11.

____ act as a catalyst by loweing the activation energy necesaary for reaction

a)

catalyst

b)

enzymes

c)

cat

d)

dog

12.

protons diffuse through the membrane as a result the energy of this process fuel phosphorlyation

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

nucleic acid

c)

golgi body

d)

plants

13.
Translation happens:
a)
at the ribosomes
b)
in empty space
c)
in the mitochondria
d)
in the nucleus
14.
Transcription happens:
a)
at the ribosomes
b)
in the cytoplasm
c)
in the mitochondria
d)
in the nucleus
15.

are macromolecules that are composed of nucleo tides

a)

nucleic acids

b)

pepties

c)

protein

d)

lipis

16.

broken down into smaller sugar nitrogenous units called nucleotides

a)

oligonucleotides

b)

bases

c)

acids

d)

peptides

17.

used to synthesis nucleotides for DNA and amino acids for protiens

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

acid

c)

bases

d)

store

18.

store information and energy are also important catalyst

a)

nucleic acids

b)

nucleotide

c)

golgi body

d)

plant cell

19.

used to form nucleic acids made of five carbon sugars and one or more phosphates

a)

nucleotides

b)

nucleous

c)

atom

d)

matter

20.

hydrophobic and are not long polymers main role is to store energy and structural functions

a)

lipids

b)

cells

c)

cell wall

d)

plants

21.

are made of long chains of fatty acid

a)

fats

b)

pigs

c)

nucleous

d)

atom

22.

chains with reduced carbon at one end and a carboxlic acid group at the other

a)

fatty acids

b)

fat

c)

pig

d)

rope

23.

broken down into substances that can be catabolized the processes used to break down this substance include transamination and dehydrogenation

a)

amino acids

b)

acid

c)

base

d)

lipis

24.

in __________ glucose is completely dismantled

a)

respiration

b)

acid

c)

base

d)

plant

25.

glucose is only partially broken down during ________

a)

fermentation

b)

glyosis

c)

bonds

d)

peptide

26.

_____________ gets broken down into glycerol for glycolysis and fatty acids enter at the krebs cycle

a)

lipids

b)

chromosomes

c)

rna

d)

dna

27.

in _____________ glucose is converted into pyruvate and energy is stored in atp bonds is released

a)

glycolysis

b)

dna

c)

rna

d)

messenger

28.

type of glycolysis in which one molecule of glucose becomes two atp and two nadh molecules pyruvic acid is the end product

a)

embden-meyerhop pathway

b)

metabolic pathway

c)

endo pathway

d)

nothing

29.

glycolysis pathway in which one glucose molecules produces one atp and two nadph molecules. 5 cabon sugars metabolized during this reaction broken down into ribsoome

a)

pentose phosphate pathway

b)

mm pathway

c)

rr pathway

d)

all the above

30.

the simple sugars glucose, frutctose, sucrose and disachharides are

a)

monosacchrides

b)

polymers

c)

monemyer

d)

atp

31.

also called the citric acid cycle catabolic pathway in which bonds of glucose occasionally fats or lipids are broken down and reformed into atp it is a respiration process that uses oxygen and produces carbon dioxide water and atp

a)

krebs cycle

b)

canabolic pathway

c)

water cycle

d)

hydro cycle

32.

an anaerobic reaction in which glucose is only partially broken down. it realeased energy through the oxidation of sugars or other types of organic molecules

a)

fermentation

b)

electron transport chain

c)

peptides

d)

acids

33.

_____ can lead to excess waste prodcuts and less efficient that aerobic respiration.

a)

fermentation

b)

idk

c)

cat

d)

dog

34.

refers to lactic acid fermentation in which the sugars are converted to lactic acid only

a)

homolactic fermentation

b)

fermentation

c)

lactic

d)

acid

35.

the sugars are converted to a range of products

a)

heterolactic

b)

homolactic

c)

bug

d)

dog

36.

where electrons are transported from enzyme to enzyme until they reach a final receptor includes a series of oxidizing and reducing molecules

a)

electron transport chain

b)

fermentation

c)

homeostasis

d)

acids

37.

homeostasis in humans is done through the release of

a)

hormones

b)

glycogin

c)

atp

d)

phosphate

38.

insulin and glucagon are a pair of ________ hormones that help regulate the level of glucagon in the blood

a)

antagonistic

b)

acid

c)

base

d)

fermentation

39.

______ feed back loops actually tend to destabilize systems by increasing change

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

additive

d)

acids

40.

_________ feed back loops act to make a system more stable by buffering changes

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

stable

d)

fermentation

41.

the hormones insulin and glucagon are involved in the _______ feeedback loops in the livers control of blood sugar level

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

stable

d)

neutral

42.

secrete glucagon when the concentration of blood glucose decreases

a)

alpha cell

b)

betta cell

c)

follicles

d)

dna

43.

secrete insulin when the concentration of blood glucose increases

a)

beta cells

b)

alpha cells

c)

neutral

d)

stable

44.

_____ stimulating hormone increases the production of estrogen

a)

follicle

b)

neautral

c)

stable

d)

fermentation

45.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
46.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
47.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
48.

What are genes Composed of?

a)

DNA

b)

Clones

c)

Reproduction

49.

Where do you find DNA?

a)

Chromoosomes

b)

Reproduction

c)

Mitosis

50.
one set of instructions for an inherited trait
a)
heredity
b)
allele
c)
trait
d)
gene
51.
A single piece of coiled DNA found in the cells; contains genes that encode traits.
a)
gene
b)
chromosome
c)
trait
d)
DNA
52.

DNA consist of

a)

Nucleotides

b)

acids

c)

base

d)

chromosomes

53.

nucleotides consist of

a)

5 carbon sugar ( pentose)

b)

phosphate group

c)

nitrogenous base

d)

all the above

54.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
55.
What is responsible for holding the two strands of the DNA double helix together?
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
alleles
c)
London dispersion forces
d)
deoxyribose sugars
56.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
57.
In DNA, Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
58.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
59.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
60.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
61.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
62.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
63.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
64.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
65.

Dna replication starts at the ________ bases

a)

A-T

b)

A-G

c)

B-T

d)

A-G

66.

During replication each strand of DNA is transcribed by an

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

Arna

d)

BRna

67.

During replication DNA is copies onto itself base by bas the exception is

a)

thymine

b)

adensine

c)

phospate

d)

none

68.

DNA replication is considered ______ because the two replicated copies of DNA each have one strand of the original parent DNA or half of the original genetic material

a)

Semiconservative

b)

antiparallele

c)

base pairing

d)

all the above

69.

this refers to the fact that during DNA replication the nucleotides on leading and lagging strands run in opposite directions.

a)

antiparallel replication

b)

fermentation replication

c)

osmosis

d)

ladder

70.

explains how RNA transcribes DNA in an intervered fashion. C on DNA is inserted as G on RNA and A on DNA becomes U on RNA

a)

base pairing

b)

helix pairing

c)

no pairing

d)

simple pairing

71.

Unzips the two strands of DNA

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

Ligase

72.

Known as the builder, replicates DNA molecules to build a new strand of DNA

a)

Helicase

b)

Primase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Ligase

73.

Has Proofreading abilities

a)

LIgase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA Polymerase

74.

Known as the gluer, glues DNA fragments together during the lagging stage

a)

Ligase

b)

Primase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Helicase

75.

3' to 5' is an example of which type of DNA strand?

a)

Leading strand

b)

Lagging strand

76.

5' to 3' is an example of what type of DNA strand?

a)

Leading strand

b)

Lagging strand

77.

RNA that is in the ribosome and guides the translation of mRNA into protein; also used as a molecular clock.

a)

molecular cock

b)

mitochondrial DNA

c)

ribosomal RNA

d)

messenger RNA

78.

Which is single stranded?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

both

d)

none

79.

Which of the following types of RNA carries a copy of strand of DNA for making proteins from the nucleous to the cytoplasm?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

all of the above

80.
DNA and RNA are two types of
a)
proteins.
b)
nucleic acids.
c)
lipids.
d)
carbohydrates.
81.
The scientists credited with establishing the structure of DNA are
a)
Avery and Chargaff.
b)
Hershey and Chase.
c)
Mendel and Griffith.
d)
Watson and Crick.
82.
Transcription is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)
a)
RNA molecule.
b)
DNA molecule.
c)
uracil molecule.
d)
transposon.
83.
Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a(n)
a)
mutagen
b)
codon
c)
anticodon
d)
exon
84.

The function of tRNA is to

a)

synthesize DNA.

b)

synthesize RNA.

c)

form ribosomes.

d)

transfer amino acids to ribosomes. found in the cytoplasm

85.

_____ is found only in DNA

a)

thymine

b)

adenine

c)

uracil

d)

guanine

86.

_____ is found only in RNA

a)

thymine

b)

adenine

c)

uracil

d)

guanine

87.

_____ supports the functions carried out by DNA, it aids in gene expression, replication, and transportation.

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

URACIL

d)

thyamin

88.

has two side rails compared to RNA's backbone

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

URACIL

d)

thyamin

89.

this base includes cytosine, thymine, and uracil they are 6 sided and have a single ring shape.

a)

pyrimidine

b)

purine

c)

atp

d)

adp

90.

this base includes adenin and guanine which consist of two attached rings. one ring has 5 sides and the other has six.

a)

pyrimidine

b)

purine

c)

atp

d)

adp

91.

formed from purine bases and end in osine those formed from pyrimidine bases end in idine

a)

nucleosides

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

92.

this kind of bond are in organic compounds that are formed by alcohol and organic acids

a)

ester

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

93.

Group of three nucleotides on the messenger RNA and can be visualised as three rungs of a ldder has the code for a single amino acid and there are 64 of them

a)

codon

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

94.

_____ disorders are the result of DNA mutations

a)

gene

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

95.

_____ can be neutral, beneficial , or harmful. They can also be hereditary

a)

mutations

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

96.

_____ refers to the differences in humans, such as eye and hair color, that may have originally been the result of gene mutation

a)

polymorphism

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

97.

_______ can be devo ( happens only in 6 cells or shortly after fertilizaition), acquired or somatic

a)

mutations

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

98.

A ______ ______ occurs when the normal gene sequence is altered.

a)

dna mutations

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

99.

_______ happens when the broken bonds of mutation attempt to bond with other DNA.

a)

translocation

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

100.

During ________ the damaged C is replicated as a T and paired with a G which is incorrect base pairing. (mutation)

a)

replication

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

101.

When the DNA is unwound during transcription, the _______ makes a complimentary copy of codons.

a)

mRNA

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

102.

During ________ the rRna interprets the code again in a complimentary fashion.

a)

translation

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

103.

The ________ on the tRNA area string of triplet bases that are complementary to the mRNA

a)

anticodons

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

104.

_____ is a genetic mutation in which one piece of chromosome is transferred to another chromosome

a)

translocation

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

105.

burkitt's lymphoma, chronic myelogenous leukemia, and down syndrome are all examples of this

a)

translocation

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

106.

_______ laws are the law of segregaton (1st law) and the law of independent assortment (2nd law).

a)

mendel's

b)

nucleous

c)

atp

d)

adp

107.

The law of _______ states that there are two alleles the half of the total number of alleles are contributed by each parent organism

a)

mendel's

b)

segregation

c)

atp

d)

adp

108.

The law of _______ states that the traits are passed on randomly and are not influenced by other traits.

a)

mendel's

b)

segregation

c)

independent assortment

d)

adp

109.

A ______ _____ can be used to predict the outcome of crosses

a)

mendel's

b)

segregation

c)

independent assortment

d)

punnett square

110.

All ______ form the genotype of an individiual

a)

genes

b)

segregation

c)

independent assortment

d)

punnett square

111.

The _____ ____ includes genes that may not be expressed such as recessive genes

a)

genes

b)

geno type

c)

independent assortment

d)

punnett square

112.

The _____is the physical visual manifestation of genes and deremines the genetic and how genes have been affected by their environment.

a)

genes

b)

geno type

c)

phenotype

d)

punnett square

113.

An _____ is a variation of a gene and also known as a trait it determines the manifestation of the gene

a)

genes

b)

geno type

c)

phenotype

d)

allele

114.

A _____ refers to the location of a gene or alleles

a)

locus

b)

geno type

c)

phenotype

d)

allele

115.

A _________ cross referes to a cross involving only one trati, the ratio is 3:1 ( DD, Dd, dd) which is dominant to recessive 1 dominant 1 recessive

a)

locus

b)

monohybrid

c)

phenotype

d)

allele

116.

A _________ cross referes involving more than one trait and more combinations are possible.

a)

locus

b)

monohybrid

c)

dihybrid

d)

allele

117.

______ are expressed in pairs with an up case letter for dominant and a lower case letter for the recessive trait. (AA, Aa, or aa)

a)

locus

b)

monohybrid

c)

dihybrid

d)

genes

118.

A _______ trait only requires one gene of a gene pair for it to be expressed in a phenotype

a)

locus

b)

monohybrid

c)

dihybrid

d)

dominant

119.

A _______ trait requires both genes in order to be manifested.

a)

recessive

b)

monohybrid

c)

dihybrid

d)

dominant

120.

this refers to the swapping of genetic material between homologous chromosomes and leads to different combinations of genes and is part of gene recombination

a)

crossing over

b)

monohybrid

c)

dihybrid

d)

dominant

121.

when DNA breaks down and is than ressembled

a)

crossing over

b)

gene recombination

c)

dihybrid

d)

dominant

122.

the 6 cells in organisms that reproduce sexually, each one contains hald the genetic information of the parent.

a)

crossing over

b)

gene recombination

c)

gametes

d)

dominant

123.

Having 23 chromosome pairs in humans

a)

crossing over

b)

gene recombination

c)

gametes

d)

haploid

124.

Having 46 chromosome pairs in humans

a)

diploid

b)

gene recombination

c)

gametes

d)

haploid

125.

This involves isolating a trait in an organism and tracing its manifestation, shows how trait can be seen through out generations

a)

diploid

b)

pedigree analysis

c)

gametes

d)

haploid

126.

This calculates the chanes of a particular trait or combination of traits being expressed in an organism

a)

diploid

b)

pedigree analysis

c)

probability analysis

d)

haploid

127.

Refers to traits that are influenced by more than one gene, and takes into account environmental influences on the development

a)

diploid

b)

pedigree analysis

c)

probability analysis

d)

polygenic inheritance

128.

When there are 3 or more possible alleles

a)

mutiple alleles

b)

pedigree analysis

c)

probability analysis

d)

polygenic inheritance

129.

Refers to the situation in which a homozygous pair of dominant alleles (AA) and a heterozygous pair of alleles (Aa) result in the same phenotype

a)

mutiple alleles

b)

complete dominance

c)

probability analysis

d)

polygenic inheritance

130.

Has the following characteristics expressed in each generation, pass on to roughly hald the offspring, a parent that doesnt express the trait cant pass it on.

a)

mutiple alleles

b)

complete dominance

c)

dominant genes

d)

polygenic inheritance

131.

states that one gene consisiting of two alleles is the only factor involved in the creation of a phenotype

a)

mutiple alleles

b)

complete dominance

c)

dominant genes

d)

Mendelen complete dominance

132.

This is when a mutation is an essential gene results in the death of the organism Cystic fibrosis and tay-sachs disease are examples

a)

lethal allele

b)

complete dominance

c)

dominant genes

d)

Mendelen complete dominance

133.

This refers to a gene that affects more than one trait

a)

lethal allele

b)

pleiotropy

c)

dominant genes

d)

Mendelen complete dominance

134.

This refers to the situation in which two or more genes determine a single phenotype

a)

lethal allele

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

Mendelen complete dominance

135.

This is a picture of genes based on a sample of blood or skin

a)

lethal allele

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

karyotype

136.

refers to the expression of both alleles so that both traits are shown.

a)

co dominance

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

karyotype

137.

Is when both the dominant and recessive genes are expressed resulting in a phenotype that is a mixture of the two

a)

co dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

epistasis

d)

karyotype

138.
Blood type is determined by the antigens.
a)
True
b)
False
139.
Mike has type O blood. Mike can receive blood from someone who has Type A or Type B.
a)
True
b)
False
140.
If you are this blood type, you are considered a "universal donor."
a)
O-
b)
A+
c)
O+
d)
AB-
141.
Since the genotypes IA and IB are equally dominant this is called 
a)
blending
b)
codominance
c)
incomplete dominance
142.
Which blood type is he universal recipient (a person with this blood type can get blood from any other type)?
a)
O
b)
AB
c)
A
d)
B
143.

What does codominant inheritance mean?

a)

The person expresses the alleles inherited from both parents

b)

The person expresses the allele inherited from just the other parent

c)

The person doesn’t express an allele inherited from either of the parents

d)

The person expresses the allele inherited from just the mother

144.

proteins secreted by white blood cells that attach to antigens

a)

agglutination

b)

antibodies

c)

red blood cells

d)

lines of convergence

145.
If a red blood cell has no antigens on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
146.

types of molecules that are located on the surface of red blood cells and trigger a response in the immune system to help repel foreign substances.

a)

antigen

b)

antibodies

c)

red blood cells

d)

lines of convergence

147.

Involves characteristics that are on the same chromosome that leads to two different traits being seen together more of than not, is the exception to independent assortment

a)

antigen

b)

linkage

c)

red blood cells

d)

lines of convergence

148.

refers to non sex chromosomes

a)

antigen

b)

autosomal

c)

red blood cells

d)

lines of convergence

149.

in humans there are 22 pairs of ______ and a pair of sex chromosomes

a)

antigen

b)

autosomal

c)

red blood cells

d)

lines of convergence

150.

means there is only one copy of the gene

a)

antigen

b)

autosomal

c)

hemizygous

d)

lines of convergence

151.

Sex pairs are either XX(FEMALE) XY (MALE) which means genes are only manifested in _____ due to females not having a Y

a)

males

b)

females

c)

hemizygous

d)

lines of convergence

152.

Refers to changing or manipulating and organisms genes. also referred to as recombinant DNA, gene splicing, cloning, genetic cloning or manifestation

a)

males

b)

genetics engineering

c)

hemizygous

d)

lines of convergence

153.

refers to altering the genes themselves

a)

males

b)

genetics engineering

c)

indrect gene manipulation

d)

lines of convergence

154.

breeding is controlled based on observable phenotypes

a)

males

b)

indirect gene manipulation

c)

genetic en

d)

lines of convergence

155.

natural cloning that occurs in nature when organisms reproduce asexuaslly and make exact copies of them which happens in bacteria planets birds

a)

cloning

b)

indirect gene manipulation

c)

genetic en

d)

lines of convergence

156.

the most popular definition refered to as the genetic engineering of portions of DNA cells or entire organisms.

a)

cloning

b)

indirect gene manipulation

c)

genetic en

d)

lines of convergence

157.

The proteins found on the surface of RBCs that allow us to type blood as A, B, O or AB are called

a)

antigens

b)

antibodies

c)

aggluntates

d)

Rh factors

158.
If a red blood cell has no antigens on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
159.

Which blood type has Type A antibodies?

a)

Type AB

b)

Type O

c)

Type B

d)

Type B and Type O

160.

Aija is the universal recipient, what blood type does she have?

a)

B-

b)

O+

c)

AB+

d)

AB-

161.

The rH factor determines what part of the blood type?

a)

the number of antigens

b)

+ or -

c)

the number of antibodies

d)

aggulation

162.
If a father is AA and a mother is AB, what is the probability for a child with AB blood? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
163.
Type ____ blood is a universal donor whereas type ____ blood is the universal receiver.
a)
O-, AB+
b)
AB+, O-
c)
AB-, O+
d)
O+, AB-
164.

used to replace defective alleles with normal alleles

a)

cloning

b)

gene therapy

c)

genetic en

d)

lines of convergence