WorksheetsPMA 2 REVIEW
Total questions: 155
Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
If students would like to examine the inner structure of chloroplasts, what microscope would be best suited for this task?
a)
Light Microscope
b)
Dissecting Microscope
c)
Scanning Electron Microscope
d)
Transmission Electron Microscope
2.
What can you conclude about this?
a)
Green plants need light for cell division
b)
Plants grow in the absence of light
c)
Green water plants release a gas in the presence of light
d)
Roots of water plants absorb minerals in the absence of light
3.
A student wants to view a live S. enterica cell as it reproduces. What microscope should the student use to examine the cell?
a)
Light Microscope
b)
Scanning Electron Microscope
c)
Transmission Electron Microscope
d)
Dissecting Microscope
4.
Which is a true statement about the relationship between pH and enzyme action?
a)
All enzymes work best at a neutral pH
b)
Adding more acid does not affect the rate of activity of an enzyme
c)
Enzymes function only in a pH range of 4.0 to 5.5
d)
The activity of an enzyme is affected by pH
5.
Jon viewed the surface of red blood cells while researching a new medication. What type of microscope did he use?
a)
Light Microscope
b)
Dissecting Microscope
c)
Scanning Electron Microscope
d)
Transmission Electron Microscope
6.
This graph represents changes in human population over a period of 2,000 year.
What can be concluded from the graph?
a)
Human population grew at a constant rate over the last 2,000 years
b)
Human population grew exponentially over the past 200 years
c)
Human population reached its carrying capacity around the year 1900
d)
Human population will begin to level off around 2010
7.
What can be concluded from this graph?
a)
Salivary amylase works the best at a pH range of 1 to 4
b)
All enzymes work best at 25C or room temperature
c)
Alkaline Phosphatase works the best at a pH range of 1 to 4
d)
The activity of an enzyme is affected by the pH
8.
These are bacterial cells that have been stained. Which microscope would have been used to take this image?
a)
Light Microscope
b)
Dissecting Microscope
c)
Transmission Electron Microscope
d)
Scanning Electron Microscope
9.
A scientist wants to change the DNA of a sexually reproducing organism and have the new DNA present in every cell of the organism. In order to do this after fertilization, she would change the DNA in which of the following?
a)
zygote
b)
placenta
c)
testes of the father
d)
ovaries of the mother
10.
A cladogram is shown.
All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of
a)
claws or nails
b)
fur
c)
lungs
d)
jaws
11.
A large island in the Pacific Ocean supports isolated populations of two groups of frogs. The following observations of these frogs were recorded by scientists.
(A) Are different in color
(B) Excrete different products
(C) Live in different, isolated habitats
(D) Can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
Which observation best supports the inference that these frogs belong to the same species?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
12.
The diagram below summarizes some of the steps in the development of humans.
All the genetic information needed for the organism to develop is first present at
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
13.
he opossum, which is native to North America, and the kangaroo, which is native to Australia, are marsupials.
The fact that both these mammals incubate their immature offspring in a pouch provides evidence that they
a)
belong to the same species
b)
must range great distances to eat
c)
have very similar skeletal structures
d)
are descended from a common ancestor
14.
Some orders of land and marine mammals are closely related. Molecular data recently collected from dolphins, camels, deer, and hippopotamuses have shown that hippopotamuses are the closest living relatives of dolphins.
Which cladogram models this evolutionary relationship?
a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
How does natural selection affect populations?
a)
by creating variation in individuals that allows them to better adapt to changing environmental conditions
b)
by increasing the rate of beneficial mutations which allow individuals to increase their rate of reproduction
c)
by reducing variation between individuals in a population thereby making the population more homogeneous and likely to survive
d)
by acting on variations between individuals that make some better adapted to their environment and more likely to survive and reproduce
16.
What is the function of autotrophs in the carbon cycle?
a)
to use oxygen to produce glucose
b)
to take in excess water
c)
to use carbon dioxide to produce glucose
d)
to feed on herbivores
17.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
18.
What trait separates sharks from ray-finned fish?
a)
Vertebrae
b)
Bony skeleton
c)
Four limbs
d)
None
19.
Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support:
a)
carrying capacity
b)
primary succession
c)
denitrification
d)
mutualism
20.
Organism that makes its own food by using sunlight or chemicals; another word for autotroph:
a)
biome
b)
producer
c)
consumer
d)
herbivore
21.
Which statement correctly compares a eukaryote and a prokaryote?
a)
eukaryotes have a cell wall while prokaryotes have a cell membrane
b)
eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles are prokaryotes have few specialized structures
c)
eukaryotes use active transport to move substances across a cell membrane, while prokaryotes use facilitated diffusion
d)
eukaryotes use flagella to move themselves through substances, while prokaryotes can't move at all
22.
The genetic code is nearly universal. That means, with few exceptions, the same codons code for the same amino acids in all organisms. What does the near universality of the genetic code suggest?
a)
All life-forms can reproduce with one another
b)
All life-forms have the same number of genes.
c)
All life-forms have a common evolutionary ancestor.
d)
All life-forms arose about the same time in Earth’s history.
23.
The chart shows the embryos and adult forms of animals from different classification groups. What do the embryos suggest about these three animals?
a)
The animals are not related.
b)
The animals share a common ancestor and are therefore related
c)
Fish are more closely related to humans than are chickens.
d)
Fish and chickens ar closely related, but humans are not related to either fish or chickens.
24.
Fossils show that cyanobacteria evolved at least 3.5 billion years ago. How did cyanobacteria change Earth's environment?
a)
They made it hotter.
b)
They added oxygen to the atmosphere.
c)
They added nitrogen to the soil.
d)
They added carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
25.
The genetic variation that leads to evolution can occur when genes from one population are introduced into the gene pool of a different population. This process is known as
a)
mutation
b)
crossing over
c)
natural selection
d)
gene flow
26.
What type of molecule is a protein that acts as a catalyst by speeding up chemical reactions in living things?
a)
substrate
b)
product
c)
reactants
d)
enzymes
27.
Under which environmental condition would primary succession occur?
a)
bare rocks exposed as glaciers melt
b)
meadow following a controlled burn
c)
forest after trees fall during a severe storm
d)
farm field no longer being used to cultivate crops
28.
An organism has a nucleus, is multicellular but has no cell wall and no chloroplast?
a)
Fungi
b)
Plantae
c)
Animalia
d)
Eubacteria
29.
A population of salamanders that lice in a river require clear, fresh water to survive. A flood causes tons of sediment to be suspended in the river. Which of these most likely will happen to the salamander population?
a)
The salamanders will adapt to life on land
b)
The salamanders will move to another river
c)
The salamanders will adapt to living in the muddy water
d)
The salamanders will decrease in number because of the water quality
30.
Polar bears swim across large expanses of ocean while hunting for seals, their main source of food. The bears use sea ice as a resting spots during their long swims. However, the sea ice is rapidly melting as a result of global warming. Which statement describes what most likely happen if global warming continues at its present rate?
a)
Polar bear and seal populations will both increase
b)
Polar bear populations will decrease, and seal populations will increase.
c)
Polar bear populations will increase, and seal populations will decrease.
d)
Polar bear populations will decrease, and seal populations will remain the same
31.
The loss of habitat in a forest region has caused some plant species to become extinct, while others survive. The process by which some plant species survive and others do not in a changing environment is best explained by
a)
natural selection
b)
law of segregation
c)
biological magnification
d)
alternation of generations
32.
Which of the following statements is not part of the cell theory?
a)
Cells are the basic unit of structure and function in all living things.
b)
All cells are produced from other cells.
c)
Only animal cells are composed of cells.
d)
All living things are composed of cells.
33.
Which statement reflects one of the major components of the cell theory?
a)
All living things are multi-cellular.
b)
Organs are the basic unit of structure and function for all living things.
c)
All cells come from previously existing cells.
d)
Every organism has a reproductive system to ensure survival of the species.
34.
What type of cell is pictured?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Animal
35.
Which of the following in NOT a characteristic of eukaryotic cells?
a)
DNA is separated from the cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane
b)
Large
c)
Complex
d)
Lack membrane-bound organelles
36.
Which microscope would you use to see the outside of a bee with a magnification under 100X.
a)
Compound Light
b)
Scanning Electron
c)
Dissecting
d)
Transmission Electron
37.
Which characteristics best describes the Animal Kingdom?
a)
unicellular, eukaryote, autotroph
b)
multicellular, prokaryote, heterotroph
c)
multicellular, eukaryote, autotroph
d)
multicellular, eukaryote, heterotroph
38.
Which characteristics best describe the Kingdom Protista?
a)
multicellular, eukaryote, heterotroph and autotroph
b)
multicellular and unicellular, heterotoph and autotroph, eukaryote
c)
unicellular, autotroph, prokaryote
d)
multicellular and unicellular, prokaryote, heterotroph
39.
Which characteristics best describes the Plant Kingdom?
a)
unicellular; eukaryote; autotroph
b)
multicellular, prokaryote, autotroph
c)
multicellular, eukaryote, autotroph
d)
unicellular, prokaryote, heterotroph
40.
Which characteristics best describe the Kingdom Fungi?
a)
multicellular and unicellular, eukaryote, autotroph
b)
multicellular and unicellular, prokaryote, heterotroph
c)
multicellular, eukaryote, heterotoph
d)
multicellular and unicellular, eukaryote, heterotroph
41.
Which characteristics best describes the Kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria?
a)
unicellular, prokaryote, heterotroph
b)
unicellular, prokaryote, heterotroph and autotroph
c)
multicellular, eukaryote, autotroph
d)
multicellular, prokaryote, heterotroph and autotroph
42.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring?
a)
Evolution
b)
Variation
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
43.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
44.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
45.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
46.
The struggle for existence against other members of an organisms species is
a)
Competition
b)
Natural Selection
c)
gene flow
d)
genetic drift
47.
protein sequences in one organism that resemble those of another suggest a
a)
coincidence
b)
lack of evolutionary relationship
c)
great number of mutations
d)
shared ancestry
48.
What increases genetic variation when animals move from one population to another
a)
genetic drift
b)
sexual selection
c)
bottleneck effect
d)
gene flow
49.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
50.
Why do frogs and other organism reproduce so many eggs or offspring?
a)
so that their babies can have friends to play with
b)
the more offspring the more likely the offspring will survive
c)
the more offspring the less likely offspring will survive
d)
the more offspring the less competition
51.
A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g. dropped the population from 8000 to 800). In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 of the remaining seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific Ocean. Which of the following statements would accurately describe the new population?
a)
The new seal population is genetically less diverse than the original population
b)
The new seal population is genetically more diverse than the original population
c)
There is equal genetic variety compared to the original population
d)
None of the answers
52.
Why was having a larger brain advantageous for early hominins?
a)
It made them able to walk upright
b)
It helped them to see better
c)
It increased intelligence and helped them hunt and survive
d)
It prevented them from making dangerous weapons
53.
Scientists have found evidence that about 2.4 million years ago a gene regulating jaw muscles mutated and may have led to the more graceful human jaw we see today. The diagram below shows the skulls of 3 hominid species
Which statement below most closely explains the link between JAW size and hominid evolution?
a)
The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time.
b)
The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time.
c)
There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.
d)
The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size.
54.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree. Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree?
a)
Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8.
b)
Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3.
c)
Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7.
d)
Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6.
55.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source.
56.
What might happen if you remove a primary consumer from the ecosystem?
a)
There would be more food for secondary consumers.
b)
The number of primary consumers would increase.
c)
The number of plants would increase.
d)
The number of secondary consumers would increase.
57.
In this food chain, what will happen if the frogs become extinct?
a)
The snakes will increase.
b)
The grasshoppers will decrease.
c)
The eagles will remain the same.
d)
The grasshoppers will increase.
58.
When individuals join a population
a)
Aliens
b)
migration
c)
Immigration
d)
Emigration
59.
How can a population grow?
a)
Emigration and death
b)
Immigration and death
c)
Immigration and birth
d)
Emigration and birth
60.
Secondary succession is most likely to occur
a)
on a volcanic island
b)
after a rainstorm
c)
after a Thanksgiving Turkey dinner
d)
after a forest fire
61.
How do living organisms return carbon to the atmosphere in the carbon cycle?
a)
respiration and photosynthesis
b)
decomposition and respiration
62.
What is the water cycle?
a)
the 3 forms of water
b)
the movement of water on, above, or below the surface of the Earth
c)
when water melts
d)
when clouds form
63.
What property of water allows it to be such a versatile solvent that it is often called the "universal solvent?"
a)
Purity
b)
Polarity and cohesion
c)
High heat capacity
d)
Expansion upon freezing
64.
Water striders can walk across the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, but they do not break the surface. Why?
a)
The insects are light enough so they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together
b)
The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water’s surface and they only skim it with their feet.
c)
The insect’s feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water’s surface.
d)
The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next
65.
Which lobe is the yellow area?
a)
Occipital lobe
b)
Parietal lobe
c)
Temporal lobe
d)
Frontal lobe
66.
Which lobe is represented by the purple area?
a)
Occipital lobe
b)
Temporal lobe
c)
Parietal lobe
d)
Frontal lobe
67.
How does the resting heartbeat of an active person compare to a nonactive person?
a)
lower
b)
higher
c)
the same
68.
If arteries decrease in size, then the blood pressure will....
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
69.
If you have a decrease in blood volume, then your blood pressure will......
a)
decrease
b)
increase
c)
stay the same
70.
what is the function of the epididymis?
a)
tube that sperm leaves the body
b)
stores mature sperm
c)
produces fluid for semen
71.
What is the function of the vas deferens?
a)
sperm is made there
b)
stores mature sperm
c)
Sperm travels through it
72.
what is the function of the fallopian tubes?
a)
eggs leave the body through them
b)
eggs travel through them
c)
stores all the eggs
73.
What is the correct order of forming the fetus?
a)
Fertilization - Zygote - Blastocyst - Embryo
b)
Embryo - Zygote - Fertilization - Blastocyst
c)
Fertilization - Embyro - Blastocyst - Zygote
74.
What is developing during the beginning of pregnancy?
a)
lungs
b)
Mouth
c)
brain and heart
75.
Where does fertilization usually occur?
a)
ovary
b)
uterus
c)
vagina
d)
fallopian tube
76.
Fallopian tubes are the structures that carry the released eggs from the ovaries.
a)
true
b)
false
77.
the process when a sperm cell joins an egg
a)
penis
b)
ovaries
c)
menstrual cycle
d)
fertilization
78.
sac of skin surrounding the testicles
a)
scrotum
b)
semen
c)
vagina
d)
ejaculation
79.
A fertilized egg undergoes several stages before it is successfully implanted. The diagram below shows these stages as the fertilized egg travels through the female reproductive system. In which of the following structures of the female human reproductive system is the blastocyst implanted during normal human
a)
ovary
b)
uterus
c)
vagina
d)
amniotic sac
80.
The drinking of alcoholic beverages by a pregnant woman is harmful to the development of her fetus. This is most damaging early in a pregnancy because during this time
a)
the lungs of the fetus become functional.
b)
alcohol can easily enter the mouth of the fetus.
c)
many of the essential organs of the fetus are forming.
d)
the fetus cannot excrete wastes.
81.
Below is a diagram of the male reproductive system. Which structure is represented by the letter D?
a)
scrotum
b)
testes
c)
prostrate gland
d)
epididymus
82.
Abnormalities present in the cells that line the uterus may prevent the production of offspring by directly interfering with which process?
a)
the development of the embryo
b)
the differentiation of gametes into zygotes
c)
the secretion of estrogen by the ovary
d)
the production and release of egg cells
83.
Which produces egg cells and female hormones?
a)
cervix
b)
fallopian tube
c)
vagina
d)
ovaries
84.
Which statement best describes blood pressure?
a)
The force applied by the heart and amount of blood pumped determine blood pressure.
b)
It’s normal and healthy to have extended periods of high blood pressure.
c)
Your blood pressure is higher when you sleep.
d)
Being nervous can decrease your blood pressure.
85.
Which of the following describes high blood viscosity?
a)
There is a high concentration of blood cells and solutes
b)
The blood is more thick and the heart has to pump harder
c)
Blood pressure goes up
d)
All are correct
86.
When an individual has high cholesterol, certain substances, such as calcium and fats, form plaque in arteries. How is this plaque, known as arterial plaque, most likely to affect blood flow?
a)
Arterial plaque clogs the arteries, limiting or stopping blood flow.
b)
Arterial plaque changes the direction of blood flow, which forces oxygenated blood to the heart.
c)
Arterial plaque changes the size of blood cells, which prevents blood from flowing in the arteries.
d)
Arterial plaque clears the arteries, increasing blood flow.
87.
Elasticity in blood vessels allows the vessels to stretch and move based on changes in blood volume. A number of factors, including genetic disease, can cause the arteries to harden and lose their elasticity. How would the hardening of the arteries most likely affect blood flow?
a)
The hardening of the arteries would likely cause blood flow to remain constant.
b)
The hardening of the arteries would likely increase blood flow.
c)
The hardening of the arteries would likely cause blood flow to stop completely.
d)
The hardening of the arteries would likely restrict blood flow.
88.
Blood pressure will increase with an increase of what?
a)
heart rate
b)
inactivity
c)
blood volume
d)
oxygen levels
89.
Arteriosclerosis is a disease which clogs arteries in the human body. In arteriosclerosis, artery walls become thick. Fatty deposits build up on inner walls of arteries. This condition reduces the ability of arteries to perform their function. The diagram above shows a comparison between a healthy artery and one with arteriosclerosis. Which body function is most affected by arteriosclerosis?
a)
circulating blood to tissues
b)
assembling amino acids into proteins
c)
replacing damaged cells with new cells
d)
breaking down food particles into molecules
90.
Blood volume and blood pressure are related. What happens to pressure and cardiac output when volume of fluid increases?
a)
increased fluid, decreased cardiac output, and decreased pressure
b)
increased fluid, decreased cardiac output, and increased pressure
c)
increased fluid, increased cardiac output, and decreased pressure
d)
increased fluid, increased cardiac output, and increased pressure
91.
A doctor prescribes a blood thinner to a patient with high blood pressure. What impact will this medication have on blood flow and viscosity?
a)
A doctor prescribes a blood thinner to a patient with high blood pressure. What impact will this medication have on blood flow and viscosity?
b)
The blood flow will decrease and the viscosity will increase.
c)
The blood flow will increase and the viscosity will decrease
d)
The blood flow will increase and the viscosity will increase.
92.
The rate at which blood flows through the human body changes in response to many factors. Which statement describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow?
a)
A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
b)
A low blood pH decreases the rate of diffusion through the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
c)
The changing of the shape of red blood cells to a crescent shape decreases resistance and lead to a faster blood flow.
d)
The narrowing of blood vessels increases pressure and leads to a faster blood flow.
93.
How is the burning of fossil fuels related to global warming?
a)
Magic
b)
Fuels are hot
c)
Greenhouse effect
d)
Photosynthesis
94.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
95.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
96.
If the plant population decreased, the amount of carbon would _________.
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
97.
How do carbon emissions lead to global warming?
a)
By trapping the sun's heat in the atmosphere.
b)
By causing very hot volcanic eruptions.
c)
Rocks become richer in carbon as time goes by.
d)
By increasing the amount of carbon in the earth's crust
98.
The process by which plants release water through the pores in their leaves is called...
a)
accumulation
b)
dormancy
c)
photosynthesis
d)
transpiration
99.
If a rain drop lands in the ocean, it will eventually _______, and return to the clouds.
a)
condense
b)
evaporate
100.
Any form of water that falls from clouds and reaches Earth's surface as rain, snow, sleet, or hail is called...
a)
surface water
b)
precipitation
c)
ground water
d)
runoff
101.
Which of these is the key idea of the endosymbiont theory?
a)
Eukaryotes evolved from early prokaryotic cell that developed internal cell membranes.
b)
Prokaryotic cells evolved from early eukaryotes that were enclosed by cell walls.
c)
Early prokaryotic cells evolved from chloroplasts.
d)
Early prokaryotic cells evolved from chemicals that became joined together using the heat given off by deep ocean vents.
102.
What type of cell is shown?
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic
c)
bacterial
d)
protist
103.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
10
b)
30
c)
45
d)
55
104.
Natural selection is sometimes described as survival of the fittest. In this sence, what is meant by the fitness of an organism>
a)
The strength of the organism
b)
the intelligence of an organism
c)
the ability to survive and reproduce
d)
the tendency to grow larger than others
105.
The legs of crocodiles and mice have similar bone structures and develop in a similar way. What type of structures are the leg bones?
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
fossilized structures
d)
vestigial structures
106.
Which statement describes a main difference between primary and secondary succession?
a)
Primary succession is always followed by secondary succession
b)
Secondary succession always ends in a climax community while primary does not
c)
Primary succession always starts with barren rock; secondary does not
d)
Secondary succession always reaches a climax community of trees while primary succession ends with pioneer species.
107.
The cell theory was first proposed in 1838. Evidence obtained through additional scientific investigations resulted in the current cell theory. Which statement describes a component of the original cell theory that was removed because of the new scientific knowledge?
a)
All living things are made of cells.
b)
All cells come from other preexisting cells.
c)
Cells form through spontaneous generation.
d)
Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.
108.
A team of ecologists observed feeding patterns of several populations in the desert. The energy pyramid shown below depicts the feeding patterns the ecologists observed. Which of the following best explains the difference in the amount of available energy in the trophic levels of the desert ecosystem?
a)
There is less energy available in the producers because their tissues are less dense than those at higher trophic levels.
b)
There is more energy available in the second trophic level because less energy is needed for hunting compared to the higher trophic levels.
c)
There is less available energy in the fourth trophic level because of the loss of energy through metabolism in each of the lower trophic levels.
d)
There is more available energy in the birds of prey because they have greater muscle mass for storing energy than organisms in lower trophic levels have.
109.
What type of cell is pictured?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Animal
110.
Which of these best completes this concept map?
a)
an animal cell
b)
a prokaryotic cell
c)
a plant cell
d)
a bacteria
111.
When comparing the offspring of sexually and asexually reproducing organisms, we would expect the genetic material (DNA) of the sexually reproducing organism to -
a)
contain fewer mutations
b)
be lesser in quantity
c)
be simpler overall
d)
show more genetic variation
112.
What is the original source of almost all energy in most ecosystems?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
sunlight
c)
water
d)
carbon
113.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
114.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
115.
An organism at the second trophic level would be considered a...
a)
Top carnivore
b)
Producer
c)
Herbivore
d)
Carnivore
116.
As you move upward, from level to level, in an energy pyramid, energy _____.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
increases exponentially
117.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms.
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
118.
Which of the following would be the most likely effect, if there were a sudden increase in the cricket population?
a)
There would be a decrease in the small bird population.
b)
There would be a decrease in the grass/flowers population.
c)
There would be a decrease in the mice population.
d)
There would be an increase in the grass/flowers population.
119.
What is evaporation?
a)
The part of the water cycle when the sun heats up water, turning it from a liquid into water vapor or steam. It rises from the ground into the air.
b)
The part of the water cycle when the water vapor in the air gets cold. The water turns back into a liquid and forms clouds.
c)
The part of the water cycle when clouds get heavy and can no longer hold the liquid water. This causes the water to fall from the sky to the earth as rain, snow, sleet, or hail.
120.
What is condensation?
a)
The part of the water cycle when the sun heats up water, turning it from a liquid into water vapor or steam. It rises from the ground into the air.
b)
The part of the water cycle when the water vapor in the air gets cold. The water turns back into a liquid and forms clouds.
c)
The part of the water cycle when clouds get heavy and can no longer hold the liquid water. This causes the water to fall from the sky to the earth as rain, snow, sleet, or hail.
121.
In the energy pyramid here, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
122.
In the energy pyramid below, which organism has the least amount of energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
123.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
124.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the as carbon dioxide.
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Sun
d)
Air
125.
What does not produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
126.
How does the carbon in grass become part of a lion?
a)
The lion eats the grass
b)
Carbon from grass doesn't end up in a lion.
c)
The carbon ends up in the lion's food chain.
d)
The lion breathes in carbon given out by the plant
127.
Which best explains why runoff is important?
a)
It returns water to other locations on Earth
b)
It increases the chance of flooding
c)
It makes evaporation occur faster
d)
It increases condensation
128.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
129.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
Water acts as a buffer.
130.
Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water expands as it freezes.
b)
Water is an excellent solvent.
c)
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
d)
Water is able to moderate temperature.
131.
Why does ice stay at the top of oceans instead of sinking to the bottom?
a)
Ice is colder than liquid water.
b)
Ice is less dense than liquid water.
c)
Ice is more dense than liquid water.
d)
Ice is warmer than liquid water.
132.
A florist places a bouquet of white carnations in water containing blue dye. After a time, the flowers turn blue. What process helped the carnations to change color?
a)
Specific heat
b)
Surface tension
c)
Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules
d)
Formation of covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen molecules
133.
Water makes up approximately 60% of the human body and plays a vital role in regulating body temperature. Which property of water makes it good at regulating temperature?
a)
Water is a good solvent.
b)
Water exhibits strong cohesion.
c)
. Water has an unusual crystalline structure.
d)
Water has a high capacity for heat.
134.
Many fish and aquatic plants can survive a cold winter because the layer of ice that forms at the top of the lake insulates the water below and prevents the lake from freezing solid. What unique property of water contributes to this effect?
a)
Water absorbs heat when it evaporates and forms a gas
b)
Water expands and becomes less dense when it freezes.
c)
Water molecules completely separate into ions in solutions.
d)
Water forms hydrogen bonds with ions and other polar substances.
135.
The carrying capacity of an environment for a particular species at a particular time is determined by the
a)
number of individuals
in the species.
b)
distribution of the
population.
c)
reproductive
potential of the species.
d)
supply of the most
limited resources
136.
What will happen to the population when the death rate is larger than the birth rate?
a)
grow
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same
d)
None of these
137.
What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
138.
LETTER g:
a)
Vulva
b)
Vagina
c)
Ovaries
d)
Uterus
139.
The nesting of a fertilized egg in the wall of the uterus.
a)
Implantation
b)
Fertilization
c)
Conception
d)
Menstruation
140.
Where a baby grows and develops for approximately 9 months.
a)
Stomach
b)
Bladder
c)
Vagina
d)
Uterus
141.
Where does fertilization usually take place?
a)
ovary
b)
fallopian tube
c)
cervix
d)
vagina
142.
What lobe is orange in this picture?
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Occipital
143.
What lobe is bright pink in this picture?
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Occipital
144.
What lobe is green in this picture?
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Occipital
145.
What lobe is pink in this picture?
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Occipital
146.
What structure is red in this picture?
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
147.
What structure is grey in this picture?
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
148.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
149.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme?
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
150.
What type of structures are shown?
a)
Homologous
b)
Analogous
c)
Vestigial
d)
Heterologous
151.
Genetic drift is a process that causes---
a)
The genetic makeup of an entire population to disappear
b)
The genetic makeup of an entire population to be altered
c)
Organisms to better adapt to their environment
d)
Organisms to have the same DNA as their parents
152.
Which of the following statements best explains why some mosquitoes survived after the first spraying?
a)
Some mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the insecticide
b)
A. All mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the insecticide
c)
A. None of the mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the pesticide
153.
A trait that an organism expresses during its lifetime will only cause its species to become better adapted if the trait—
a)
A. Results from isolation of the organism from the rest of the population
b)
A. Is caused by the genetic code that is present in the gametes of the organism
c)
A. Causes a change in the environment surrounding the organism
d)
A. Decreases the number of genes in the body cells of the organism
154.
The table shows the survival rate of two types of beetles in the same environment over a period of three years.
Which statement about the beetles in this environment is best supported by the data?
Which statement about the beetles in this environment is best supported by the data?
a)
Brown beetles have a shorter life cycle than green beetles have
b)
Green beetles are more fit for their environment than brown beetles
c)
brown beetles are undergo more unfavorable mutations than green beetles
155.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to:
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
100 %
