wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

WKHS EOC REVIEW (Vaughan Spring 2022)

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement can best be concluded from these data?

a)

The respiration rate in both species is independent of both temperature and oxygen consumption.

b)

The respiration rate of midge larvae increases more rapidly than the rate for seabird ticks at all temperatures.

c)

As the temperature increases, there is an inverse relationship between oxygen consumption and the respiration rate in both species.

d)

As the temperature increases, the respiration rate in both species increases, with the rate for midge larvae being higher than that for seabird ticks at all temperatures.

2.

Marine scientists monitor atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide. As atmospheric levels rise, more of the gas dissolves in the oceans. Calcium carbonate (CaCO3) dissolves as more carbon dioxide enters the oceans. Marine organisms such as clams need CaCO3 to build their exoskeletons. Based on this information, which change is most likely to be a direct result of these increasing levels of oceanic carbon dioxide?

a)

Frequent rainfall will dilute the effect of the carbon dioxide in the water.

b)

There will be an overpopulation of oysters and other shelled marine species.

c)

The water level will rise and cause floods, damaging coastal ecosystems with contaminated water.

d)

Many species of marine organisms will be weakened, making them unable to produce and maintain their shells.

3.

A landscaper researched five grass types recommended for use in South Carolina lawns. The landscaper decides to select a grass type that does not require much fertilizer, does not need constant watering, and grows best in direct sunlight. Which grass type best fits the criteria?

a)

perennial ryegrass

b)

Bermuda grass

c)

buffalo grass

d)

zoysia grass

4.

A student constructed a model to illustrate some of the processes involved in the production of proteins in a eukaryotic cell.

Which statement correctly describes the structure and activity identified by the letter X?

a)

A tRNA molecule reacts with an amino acid to produce ribosomal RNA.

b)

A tRNA molecule transports an amino acid for incorporation into a polypeptide.

c)

An rRNA molecule carries an amino acid away from the site of protein synthesis.

d)

An mRNA molecule transports a single amino acid to the site of protein synthesis.

5.

Examine the data table.

Select two statements that support the data and explain the movement of molecules across the cell membranes.

a)

As the NaCl moved into the potato cells, the potato increased in mass.

b)

The potatoes in the 0.00 g/mL solution increased in mass as water molecules moved into the potato cells.

c)

As the NaCl concentration decreased, the mass of the potato increased as water molecules moved out of the potato cells.

d)

The potatoes in the 0.050 g/mL solution lost the greatest amount of mass as water molecules moved out of the potato cells.

e)

As the NaCl concentration increased, the mass of the potato increased as more NaCl moved into the potato cells.

6.

Scientists can measure the DNA content of cells by using a dye that binds to DNA. After treating a sample of cells with the dye, the dye will appear more intense in cells where the quantity of DNA is higher

During which stage or stages of the cell cycle would scientists observe the highest measurements of dye intensity?

a)

only during G1

b)

only during mitosis and cytokinesis

c)

the entire time that the cell is in interphase

d)

from late S through G2 and mitosis

7.

The yew tree is a rare and slow-growing tree. Paclitaxel is an anticancer compound obtained from the bark of the yew tree. The extraction of the compound is expensive and damages the yew tree. Scientists have isolated and grown stem cells from a yew tree that could be used to produce paclitaxel.

Which statement describes an advantage of using stem cells from a yew tree to produce paclitaxel?

a)

Stem cells can be grown and reproduced in a laboratory

b)

Stem cells can differentiate into cells of a different species.

c)

Stem cells from plants are more useful in producing animal protein.

d)

Stem cells from plants are less likely to cause unfavorable mutations than stem cells from animals.

8.

In a controlled experiment, a limited quantity of glucose was provided for cellular respiration. Researchers measured the quantity of reactants and products at the beginning of the experiment and again after 10 minutes.


How will the quantities of glucose, oxygen, and carbon dioxide most likely change after 10 minutes have passed?

a)

glucose will increase

oxygen will increase

carbon dioxide will decrease

b)

glucose will decrease

oxygen will decrease

carbon dioxide will increase

c)

glucose will decrease

oxygen will increase

carbon dioxide will increase

d)

glucose will increase

oxygen will decrease

carbon dioxide will decrease

9.

This diagram represents part of the process of translation. One tRNA molecule has transported the amino acid methionine (met) to the mRNA. Another tRNA molecule has transported the amino acid tryptophan (trp) to the mRNA.


Which step is next during translation?

a)

The tRNA will attach to nucleotides in the cytoplasm.

b)

A peptide bond will form between the two amino acids.

c)

The mRNA carrying the amino acids will drop off the ribosome.

d)

The amino acids will be carried to the Golgi apparatus for packaging.

10.

The table shows some of the alleles for one of the genes for fur color in rabbits. Use this table to answer the question.


Which genotype should have Himalayan fur coloring?

a)

cd ch

b)

clcl

c)

clch

d)

chc

11.

Examine the diagram.


Which process is best explained by the diagram?

a)

the exchange of genetic material, resulting in genetic variation

b)

the transfer of DNA between alleles, allowing for new phenotypes

c)

the replication of sister chromatids during meiosis, preventing mutations

d)

the separation of alleles during gamete formation, resulting in identical offspring

12.

The graph represents the outcome of natural selection in a population of Darwin's finches.


Which statement best describes this outcome?

a)

Finches that are best suited to survive and reproduce (points 1 and 3) are more likely to pass on beneficial traits to their offspring; those less suited (point 2) fail to pass on their traits to their offspring.

b)

Finches that are least suited to survive and reproduce (points 1 and 3) are more likely to pass on beneficial traits to their offspring; those more suited (point 2) fail to pass on their traits to their offspring.

c)

Finches that are best suited to survive and reproduce (point 2) are more likely to pass on beneficial traits to their offspring; those less suited (points 1 and 3) fail to pass on their traits to their offspring.

d)

Finches that are least suited to survive and reproduce (point 2) are more likely to pass on beneficial traits to their offspring; those more suited (points 1 and 3) fail to pass on their traits to their offspring.

13.

Hawaiian honeycreepers include a number of related bird species with different beak types, as shown.


According to evolutionary theory, what most likely led to high biodiversity among these birds?

a)

Birds with a variety of adaptive traits migrated to the islands.

b)

Individual birds adapted to better utilize their ancestors’ traits.

c)

Ancestor bird populations adapted to survive a variety of habitats.

d)

Unrelated birds reproduced to create new species with adaptive traits.

14.

These diagrams show the changes in a population when exposed to a parasite.

Which statement describes the population after parasite exposure?

a)

Individuals with dominant traits survived the parasite.

b)

Individuals that were weakened by the parasite randomly mated.

c)

Individuals that were homozygous recovered from the parasite.

d)

Individuals whose phenotype resisted the parasite increased in frequency.

15.

Scientists have collected data showing that carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in our atmosphere are increasing.

Which statement is best supported by the information in the graph?

a)

N2O levels will begin to decrease, stopping ozone layer depletion.

b)

CO2 levels will continue to rise, increasing average global temperatures.

c)

CH4 levels will increase further, decreasing average global temperatures.

d)

All greenhouse gases will have a rapid decline, returning to levels prior to the 1500s.

16.

A laboratory technician grew two types of microorganisms in separate containers for 18 days. The results are shown below.

Which statement best evaluates the technician’s prediction and the resulting data?

a)

The data support the prediction: both organisms reached a maximum population in the mixed culture.

b)

The data do not support the prediction: both organisms initially thrived in the mixed culture.

c)

The data do not support the prediction: the presence of organism 2 negatively affected the population of organism 1.

d)

The data support the prediction: both organisms initially thrived, but only organism 2 reached carrying capacity in the mixed culture.

17.

The homeostasis of an ecosystem is disrupted when decomposers are unable to perform which activity?

a)

absorb sunlight in order to produce proteins

b)

break down organic matter to release nutrients

c)

recycle dissolved oxygen to reduce temperatures

d)

transform nitrogen from the air into a usable form

18.

As birds prepare for their migration, they go through many changes. Which equation shows the cellular process that occurs more as a bird prepares to fly thousands of kilometers?

a)

6 H2O + 6 CO2 → C6H12O6 +6O2

b)

C6H12O6 +6O2 → 6 H2O + 6 CO2

c)

6 H2O+2O2 + 6 CO → C6H12O6+ 10 CO2

d)

C6H12O6 + 10 CO2 → 6 H2O+2O2+ 16 CO

19.

Migrating tundra swans are seen in large groups, at times covering an entire field. If an ecosystem is 10,000 acres and each adult tundra swan needs 1/10 of an acre, how many adult tundra swans can the ecosystem support?

a)

1,000 adult tundra swans

b)

10,000 adult tundra swans

c)

100,000 adult tundra swans

d)

1,000,000 adult tundra swans

20.

A student notices that many migrating birds that are flying south for the winter stop to rest and eat in South Carolina. The feeding of these migrant birds causes a temporary disturbance in the local ecosystem. The student hypothesizes that when the birds leave, stability will return to the ecosystem. Which statement best supports the student’s hypothesis?

a)

The amount of space per organism is reduced so it stabilizes the environment.

b)

As the birds leave for the winter there are fewer food sources available for other organisms.

c)

The food sources are limited so the birds’ departure reduces the stress on the food sources.

d)

When there are fewer organisms in the ecosystem, more water is available in the system to replenish the lakes and rivers.

21.

A species of Great Blue Heron, shown in the image below, feeds on small fish in a freshwater ecosystem. What would be the most direct result of a sudden decrease in the Great Blue Heron population?

a)

An increase in the grass population.

b)

An increase in the fish population.

c)

The fish would occupy the bird’s role in the ecosystem

d)

An increase in competition for resources between the fish and the grass.

22.

Based on the information in the table, would this ecosystem be considered stable? Why or why not?

a)

Unstable, because the population size never stays the same.

b)

Unstable, because the lynx population shows exponential growth

c)

Stable, because the lynx population is always greater than the hare population.

d)

Stable, because there is a correlation between the patterns of growth and decline for both species.

23.

The diagram shows part of a forest ecosystem. Tussock moths are native to the forest ecosystem. In the fall, tussock moths lay eggs on Douglas fir trees. In the spring, tussock moth larvae eat the needles of the Douglas fir trees.

Which change to the forest ecosystem would most likely have an immediate impact on the growth of the tussock moth population?

a)

Decrease in competition

b)

Reduction in disease

c)

Fewer predator

d)

Loss of habitat

24.

The graph below gives information about the populations of three species: the Red Squirrel, the Gray Squirrel, and a predator of one of these squirrel species. Based on the data shown in the graph, which squirrel species is the primary prey for this predator?

a)

Red squirre

b)

Gray squirrel

c)

Both species of squirrel

d)

Neither species of squirre

25.

The table below contains information about the area and population of 3 major countries.Calculate the population density of each country, then determine the correct order of nations when ranked from MOST dense to LEAST dense.

a)

USA, Great Britain, Indonesia

b)

Great Britain, Indonesia, USA

c)

Indonesia, Great Britain, USA

d)

Great Britain, USA, Indonesia

26.

Recently, a population of field mice were introduced into a meadow. The graph shows the growth of the mouse population. Which statement accurately describes the factors that affect the population at the intervals represented on the graph?

a)

During interval A, the mice do not have enough food and shelter

b)

During interval B, many predators keep the mice population low

c)

During interval C, freezing temperatures kill off most of the mice.

d)

During interval E, the mice have reached the carrying capacity of the meadow

27.

Which of the following is a density-dependent factor that may be the cause of the mouse population reaching its carrying capacity?

a)

The meadow is plowed by a farmer

b)

A flood causes the mice to lose their shelter

c)

A family of foxes sets up a den at the edge of the meadow

d)

A forest fire wipes out the wheat grain that grows in the meadow

28.

Which of the following belongs in the box numbered “13”?

a)

Atmospheric CO2

b)

Oceanic CO2

c)

Respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

e)

Combustion

29.

Which of the following belongs in the box numbered “14”?

a)

Atmospheric CO2

b)

Oceanic CO2

c)

Respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

e)

Combustion

30.

Which of the following belongs in the box numbered “15”?

a)

Atmospheric CO2

b)

Oceanic CO2

c)

Respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

e)

Combustion

31.

Which of the following belongs in the box numbered “16”?

a)

Atmospheric CO2

b)

Oceanic CO2

c)

Respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

e)

Combustion

32.

Which of the following belongs in the box numbered “17”?

a)

Atmospheric CO2

b)

Oceanic CO2

c)

Respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

e)

Combustion

33.

The graph below provides information about CO2 concentration and anomalies in average surface air temperature between 1955 and and 2015. An anomaly in temperature is the amount that it varies from a long-term or well-established “average” global temperature.

Based on the information in the graph, what is the relationship between the carbon dioxide concentration and anomalies in surface air temperature over time?

a)

As carbon dioxide concentration increases, the overall global temperature decreases.

b)

As carbon dioxide concentration increases, the overall global temperature increases.

c)

As carbon dioxide concentration decreases, the overall global temperature decreases.

d)

As carbon dioxide concentration decreases, the overall global temperature increases.

e)

There is no relationship between the carbon dioxide concentration and anomalies in surface air temperature.

34.

Use the information in the chart to answer the following question:

Which of these ecosystems would be least stable in the event of a disruption and why?

a)

Ecosystem 1 because it has less biodiversity

b)

Ecosystem 1 because fewer animals would be affected by the loss of the over-harvested species.

c)

Ecosystem 2 because it has more biodiversity.

d)

Ecosystem 2 because more animals would be affected by the loss of the over-harvested species.

35.

What would most likely happen to the stability of the ecosystem if the mountain lions (top predator on the right) were driven from this habitat by humans?

a)

The stability would most likely increase

b)

The stability would most likely decrease

c)

The stability would most likely stay the same

d)

It’s impossible to tell without more information.

36.

The graph shows the change in eggshell thickness of two types of birds over fifty years. During that time, DDT, an insecticide, was used to kill mosquitoes and stop the spread of malaria.

Decreasing eggshell thickness has been shown to decrease hatching rate. What can be inferred based on an analysis of the data?

a)

Hatching rate of these bird species decreased in the years DDT was used

b)

DDT caused a permanent decline in the size of these bird populations.

c)

DDT had a much greater impact on bird Species B than on bird Species A.

d)

Birds in Species A and Species B produced fewer eggs in the years DDT was used.

37.

A lab technician needs to determine whether cells in a test tube are prokaryotic or eukaryotic. The technician has several dyes she could use to stain the cells. Four of the dyes are described in the table below:

Which dye could the technician use to determine whether the cells are prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

a)

acridine orange

b)

osmium tetraoxide

c)

Eosin

d)

Nile blue

38.

During a lab activity, a biology student was instructed to examine various prepared slides under a microscope. The student noted his observations in the chart below. Based on the information in the chart, which of the statements is true?

a)

All 3 slides are of eukaryotes.

b)

Slides 1 and 2 are slides of eukaryotes, and slide 3 is a prokaryote.

c)

Slides 1 and 3 are slides of eukaryotes, and slide 2 is a prokaryote

d)

Slides 1 and 3 are slides of prokaryotes and slide 2 is a eukaryote

39.

According to the classification system in the chart below, which statement is true? There is only one answer.

a)

Organisms classified in Group 1 and Group 2 are plants.

b)

Organisms classified in Group 3 and Group 4 are animals

c)

Organisms classified in Group 1 are animals, and in Group 2 are bacteria.

d)

Organisms classified in Group 3 are plants, and in Group 4 are bacteria.

40.

Dr. Peppers is at work one day and sees a sick patient who complains of several symptoms commonly seen in people who have either a viral or bacterial infection. While he is not able to accurately treat the patient until lab results come back, he can narrow down some treatment options to use, depending on the type of infection the patient has. In the table below is some information about the two treatments Dr. Peppers might prescribe:

Considering the information given about the treatment plans, which of the treatment plans should be used to treat a virus and which should be used to treat a bacteria?

a)

Treatment 1 should be used to treat a bacterial infection, and Treatment 2 should be used to treat a viral infection

b)

Treatment 1 should be used to treat a viral infection, and Treatment 2 should be used to treat a bacterial infection

c)

Both treatments could be used to treat either type of infection

d)

There is not enough information given to determine which treatment would be effective for either type of infection

41.

A student preparing for a hike wants to pack a snack that provides quickly available energy but few excess calories. Which nutrition label lists the best combination of macromolecules that provide quickly available energy while providing the fewest calories from other types of macromolecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
42.

Carmen is a long distance runner and wants to determine which food will give her the most energy. She monitors her times over a three week period. For every race she runs one mile, at the same time of day, in the same weather conditions. Her data is shown in the table:


What is changing or being manipulated (independent variable) in this experiment?

a)

Week

b)

Food Eaten

c)

Time

d)

Proteins

43.

Carmen is a long distance runner and wants to determine which food will give her the most energy. She monitors her times over a three week period. For every race she runs one mile, at the same time of day, in the same weather conditions. Her data is shown in the table:


What is being measured (dependent variable) in this experiment?

a)

Week

b)

Food Eaten

c)

Time

d)

Proteins

44.

Based on the data chart, which molecule gives Carmen the most immediate energy?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

All of the above

45.

Which letter labels a the section of the graph that indicates a reaction that uses an enzyme?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

46.

George is planning an investigation to determine whether or not the enzyme Pepsin will breakdown a piece of chicken.

Pepsin is an enzyme which aids in the breakdown of proteins and is secreted in the stomach of most animals. After reading background information he comes up with the following hypothesis:

If I increase the pH by adding baking soda, then the chicken will breakdown faster.

Based on the background information and data chart was George’s hypothesis supported or refuted?

a)

Supported.T he enzyme works at a low pH and a pH of 10 is considered low.

b)

Refuted. The higher the pH, the more time it takes to breakdown the chicken.

c)

Supported. The higher the pH the longer the reaction takes place

d)

Refuted. Pepsin works best at a low pH. As a result the chicken was broken down the

fastest at a pH of 5.

47.

27. The graph ​ shows the data collected from reactions at different temperatures of a substrate at pH 6. Based on the data, what amount of product can be predicted at a temperature of 5°C?

a)

No prediction can be made

b)

The same amount of product made at 20°C

c)

The same amount of product made at 35°C

d)

Little or no product would be made

48.

The contents of the small intestine have a pH greater than 7. When the enzyme ​gastric ​protease, enters the small intestines, the activity of the gastric protease will probably:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the same

d)

Increase at first, then decrease

49.

What is the optimum pH for the action of the enzyme intestinal protease?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

50.

Amylase is an enzyme that affects the breakdown of starches. The table shows the results of an investigation in which amylase solution was added to carbohydrate samples. The reaction times were measured and recorded.

What is the best prediction of the amount of amylase solution required for a reaction time of 37.5 seconds?

a)

6.0 mL

b)

10.0 mL

c)

14.0 mL

d)

16.0 mL

51.

What factor most likely contributed to increased photosynthetic activity in May, June, and July?

a)

Warmer temperatures

b)

Lower atmospheric CO​2​ levels

c)

More hours of sunlight during summer days

d)

Higher atmospheric O​2​ concentrations

52.

The picture shows a student’s experiment with Elodea, a common aquatic plant. Which change in this experiment is most likely to increase the volume of oxygen gas that collects in the top of the tube?

a)

Use fewer plants

b)

Replace the beaker with a large container

c)

Move the light source closer to the beaker

d)

Reduce the amount of water

53.

Which of the following is true, based on the data provided?

a)

The rate of photosynthesis did not change from April through June

b)

The rate of photosynthesis increased from June through December.

c)

The rate of photosynthesis was highest from May through July.

d)

The rate of photosynthesis decreased from January through June.

54.

The process of glycolysis is represented by letter ___ and takes place in the ____.

a)

A, mitochondria

b)

A, cytoplasm

c)

C, mitochondria

d)

C, cytoplasm

55.

If oxygen is present after glycolysis, the citric acid cycle begins, which is indicated by letter __.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

56.

Letter E indicates which step of aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Citric acid cycle

c)

Electron transport chain

d)

Krebs cycle

57.

The process represented in the diagram above produces a molecule that is single stranded and has copied nucleotide sequences from the template strand of DNA. What type of molecule is produced in this process?

a)

New DNA

b)

Polypeptide

c)

mRNA

d)

Carbohydrate

58.

Four different segments of a DNA molecule are represented above. There is an error in the DNA in which segment?

a)

Segment 1 only

b)

Segment 3 only

c)

Segment 2 and 3

d)

Segment 2 and 4

59.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
60.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
61.

A diagram of a cellular process is shown below. Which of the following identifies the process shown at point Z?

a)

Translation

b)

Mutation

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

62.

The diagram below shows the DNA analysis of a blood sample found at a crime scene and the DNA analysis of three people suspected of the crime. Which suspect’s DNA was found at the crime scene?

a)

Suspect #1

b)

Suspect #2

c)

Suspect #3

d)

All of the suspects

e)

None of the suspects

63.

During transcription, the DNA base sequence is transcribed into an mRNA sequence. A codon chart like the one shown below lists the amino acids coded for by particular triads of mRNA bases. A segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which one nucleotide has been changed. The original sequence was ATA, and the mutated sequence is ATG. Use the codon table to determine whether or not this mutation will cause a change in the protein of the organism.

a)

Yes, the protein of the organism would change because a new amino acid will be coded for.

b)

Yes, the protein of the organism would change because changes in the DNA sequence will always cause a change in proteins.

c)

Even though the DNA sequence changed, the sequence still codes for the same amino acid, so no change in the protein will occur.

d)

It is impossible to determine if a change in proteins will occur using only the DNA sequence.

64.

The section of the image labeled #1 is representing:

a)

Interphase

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

Prophase

e)

Mitosis

65.

The section of the image labeled #2 is representing:

a)

Interphase

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

e)

Mitosis

66.

The section of the image labeled #3 is representing:

a)

Interphase

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

e)

Mitosis

67.

The section of the image labeled #5 is representing:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Mitosis

68.

The section of the image labeled #6 is representing:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Mitosis

69.

The section of the image labeled #7 is representing:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Mitosis

70.

The section of the image labeled #8 is representing:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Mitosis

71.

The section of the image labeled #9 is representing:

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Mitosis

72.

The model represents the change in the amount of DNA in a cell during the cell cycle.

Which part of the model represents the S phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

73.

What process might the information in the graph above help you to investigate?

a)

How chemicals cause cancer

b)

How UV exposure causes cell differentiation

c)

How UV exposure causes skin cancer

d)

How the growth rate of organisms is affected by UV exposure

74.

Which answer choice is a true statement about these cells?

a)

The cells contain different DNA

b)

The cells have the same function

c)

The cells were produced by meiosis

d)

The cells underwent the process of differentiation

75.

The separation of chromosomes that occurs during meiosis results in a -

a)

Decrease in the total number of cells per organism

b)

Reduction in the number of chromosomes per cell

c)

Group of genetically identical cells

d)

Single fertilized egg cell

76.

How many generations are represented on this pedigree?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

77.

Which individuals in this family are affected by the disorder (they have it)? a. b. c. d.

a)

1, 2, 5, and 8

b)

3, 6, and 10

c)

4, 7, and 9

d)

It is impossible to know who is affected based on the given information

78.

What is the relationship between individuals 1 and 7?

a)

Grandmother and grandson

b)

Grandfather and granddaughter

c)

Mother and son

d)

Uncle and niece

79.

Which of the Punnett squares above represents the correct cross of a red flower and a white flower?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

80.

Using your knowledge about codominance, and the understanding that the O allele is recessive, find the potential offspring blood types for all four couples. Based on your findings, which of the following is the only correct match between the four babies and the parents that they belong to?

a)

Baby 1: Frink , Baby 2: Zeeb,

Baby 3: Youngblood, Baby 4: Smith

b)

Baby 1: Smith, Baby 2: Youngblood,

Baby 3: Frink, Baby 4: Zeeb

c)

Baby 1: Youngblood, Baby 2: Zeeb

Baby 3: Frink, Baby 4: Smith

d)

Baby 1: Zeeb, Baby 2: Youngblood

Baby 3: Smith, Baby 4: Frink

81.

Which conclusion is most likely supported based on the information in the pedigree?

a)

The trait is dominant, and the female parent is homozygous

b)

The trait is dominant, and the male parent is heterozygous

c)

The trait is recessive, and the female parent is homozygous

d)

The trait is recessive, and the male parent is heterozygous

82.

The transmission of a genetic disorder is shown in the pedigree below.

According to the pedigree, what is the mode of inheritance for this disorder?

a)

According to the pedigree, what is the mode of inheritance for this disorder?

b)

According to the pedigree, what is the mode of inheritance for this disorder?

c)

According to the pedigree, what is the mode of inheritance for this disorder?

d)

According to the pedigree, what is the mode of inheritance for this disorder?

83.

The diagram shown below represents a process that occurs during meiosis. This process contributes to the genetic variation in a population of organisms by:

a)

Limiting the production of new traits.

b)

Creating more dominant alleles than recessive alleles.

c)

Combining genetic material in new ways, which get passed to offspring.

d)

Allowing offspring to be identical to their parents.

84.

Which of the following statements belongs in the box labeled #1?

a)

One parent

b)

Two parents

c)

No parents needed

d)

Unique DNA in offspring

85.

Which of the following statements belongs in the box labeled #3?

a)

Unique DNA in offspring

b)

Offspring is identical to the parent

c)

Involves gametes made by meiosis

d)

Involves several processes like budding or binary fission

86.

Which of the following statements belongs in the box labeled #6?

a)

Offspring is identical to parents

b)

Involves gametes made by meiosis

c)

Involves one of several processes like budding or binary fission

d)

Genetic variation caused by mutations can occur

87.

A diagram showing the evolution of eight bird species is shown

The differences in the species are most likely a result of....

a)

length of the mating season

b)

population size

c)

the color of feathers

d)

available food source

88.

Using the graph below, which shows the survival rates of two species over time, match the method of reproduction with the species it belongs to.

Which animal in the graph above represents Asexual Reproduction?

a)

Animal A

b)

Animal B

89.

Which evidence of evolution does the following image represent?

a)

Anatomical Evidence

b)

Embryology

c)

Paleontology

d)

Biochemistry

90.

Which evidence of evolution does the image represent?

a)

Anatomical Evidence

b)

Embryology

c)

Paleontology

d)

Biochemistry

91.

Which evidence of evolution does the image represent?

a)

Anatomical Evidence

b)

Embryology

c)

Paleontology

d)

Biochemistry

92.

The image is an example of what type of structures?

a)

Vestigial

b)

Homologous

c)

Divergent

d)

Convergent

93.

The scientific theory of evolution is supported by different types of evidence. The diagrams below show the skeletons of two different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?

a)

It provides information about the organisms’ diets

b)

It shows possible common ancestry between organisms.

c)

It provides information to determine the organisms’ ages

d)

It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.

94.

The table compares a human protein with the protein of other organisms. Each numbered column (1-22) is a different amino acid in the protein. If an organism’s amino acid is the same as the human’s, then a dash (-) is shown. If it is different, an abbreviation for the organism’s amino acid at that location is given.

Based on the information in the table, what conclusion can be made about the relationship of humans to the other organism?

a)

Humans and chickens cannot be traced to a common ancestor

b)

Humans and dogfish are the most closely related organisms.

c)

Humans and pigs are likely related to a common ancestor.

d)

Humans are not related to any of the other organisms.

95.

Based on the information shown in the cladogram below, which trait would most likely be observed in amphibians, but not ray-finned fish or sharks?

a)

Amniotic egg

b)

Bony skeleton

c)

Four limbs

d)

Hair

96.

Which of the following species is least closely related to primates?

a)

Rodents & rabbits

b)

Amphibians

c)

Sharks

d)

Birds

97.

This diagram shows a cladogram of six species based on amino acid similarities.

Which two species are most closely related?

a)

I and III

b)

II and IV

c)

I and IV

d)

V and VI