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Worksheets

Year 11 Revision #2

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The response to an infection. Causes the area to redden, swell, and feel warm.

a)

Fever

b)

Mucus

c)

Dilation

d)

Inflammation

2.

Chemical that causes the blood vessels around the infection to dilate (expand) so that more blood can flow to the infection

a)

Stomach acid

b)

Mucus

c)

Epithelial cells

d)

Histamines

3.

What is phagocytosis?

a)

WBCs

b)

When a cells eat other cells

c)

When a cell collapses

d)

When a cell releases nutrients

4.
Which of the following secretes histamine?
a)
B cells
b)
macrophages
c)
neutrophils
d)
mast cells
5.

The innate immune system is...

a)

Always working and doesn't require any special preparation

b)

Needs to be "primed" before it can work to its full effectiveness

c)

Very specific and only defends against a specific pathogen

d)

Not very effective at preventing intruders

6.
What is the function of innate immune response?
a)
Act very rapid as a first line of defense to eliminate the infection
b)
Trap microbes so they cannot spread in our body freely
c)
Coordinate and support adaptive immunity
d)
All of the above
7.
What category of immune response would sneezing and mucus production fall under?
a)
Innate Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
c)
Humoral Immunity
d)
Cell Mediated Immunity
8.
What chemical is released by the immune system in response to an allergen?
a)
Dopamine
b)
Histamine
c)
Insulin
d)
No clue
9.

Cells that provide a physical barrier to resist pathogen invasion, as well as secrete protective substances to discourage the accumulation of pathogens.

a)

Macrophages

b)

White blood cells

c)

Epithelial cells

d)

Helper T Cells

10.
What is the largest outer defense of the body?
a)
Stomach Acid 
b)
Mucous Membranes
c)
White Blood Cells
d)
Skin
11.

Antigens

a)

Are chemical markers on pathogens

b)

Are a type of white blood cell

c)

Are part of the bodies 3rd line of defense against pathogens

12.

Antibodies are part of the 3rd line of defense they

a)

bind to antigens, preventing the spread of pathogens and promoting phagocytosis by white blood cells

b)

Are a type of white blood cell which eats pathogens

c)

Are a type of white blood cell which activates other white blood cells

13.

B cells are a type of white blood cell involved in the 3rd line of defense. B cells

a)

Help to activate other white blood cells such as killer T cells and B cells

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Produce antigens

d)

Kill pathogenic cells

14.

T helper cells are a type of white blood cell involved in the 3rd line of defense. T helper cells

a)

Help to activate other white blood cells such as killer T cells and B cells

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Produce antigens

d)

Kill pathogenic cells

15.

Killer T cells are a type of white blood cell involved in the 3rd line of defense. T cells

a)

Help to activate other white blood cells such as killer T cells and B cells

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Produce antigens

d)

Kill specific pathogenic cells

16.
The bond that joins amino acids are called:
a)
Peptide Bonds
b)
Ester Bonds
c)
Glycosidic Linkages
d)
Phosphodiester Bonds
17.
The diagram shows a bond forming between two amino acids. What is the name of the resulting bond?
a)
Peptide Bond
b)
Glycosidic Linkage
c)
Ester Bond
d)
Hydrogen Bond
18.
The reaction used to digest and break the bond in red is:
a)
Hydrolysis
b)
Dehydration Synthesis
c)
Oxidation
d)
Single Displacement
19.

The illustration shows...

a)

alpha-glucose

b)

beta-glucose

c)

fructose

d)

D-ribose

20.

Alpha-glucose differ from its beta isomer in position of:

a)

OH group at carbon 1

b)

OH group at carbon 4

c)

lack of O at carbon 3

d)

OH group at carbon 2

21.

The illustration shows:

a)

amylose

b)

amylopectin

c)

cellulose

d)

maltose

22.

Tick the subunits of starch:

a)

amylose

b)

amylopectin

c)

cellulose

d)

lactose

e)

maltose

23.

What typ of sugar is glucose?

a)

triose

b)

pentose

c)

hexose

d)

polysaccharide

24.

The process used to split polymers; this is done by adding water

a)

Dehydration

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Condensation

d)

Tetratonic

25.

The image is an example of a

a)

Disaccharide

b)

Polysaccaride

c)

Polypeptide

d)

Triglyceride

26.
Which type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
monsaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
polysaccharide
d)
glyceride
27.

What is a condensation reaction?

a)

Breaking of a hydroxyl bond

b)

Formation of a hydroxyl bond

c)

Formation of a water molecule

d)

Removal of a water molecule

28.

The bond linking these two monomers is called a:

a)

1,4 Glycosidic Bond

b)

1,6 Glycosidic Bond

c)

Peptide Bond

d)

Hydrogen Bond

29.

Which isomer of glucose is this?

a)

Beta glucose

b)

Alpha glucose

30.

Which isomer of glucose is this?

a)

Beta glucose

b)

Alpha glucose

31.
Which two polysaccharides contains 1,6 glycosidic bonds?
a)
Amylose and Amylopectin
b)
Amylopectin and Glycogen
c)
Cellulose and Glycogen
d)
Glycogen and Amylose
32.

Triglycerides are types of

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acid

e)

none of them

33.

One trigyceride molecule is made up of

a)

1 fatty acid + 1 glycerol

b)

2 fatty acids + 1 glycerol

c)

3 fatty acids + 1 glycerol

d)

1 fatty acid + 2 glycerol

e)

1 fatty acid + 3 glycerol

34.

What is the label 1?

a)

phosphate

b)

hydrophobic tail

c)

glycerol

d)

hydrophobic head

35.
Which specific lipid has the following characteristics:
1. Makes up the cell membrane
2. Has a polar, hydrophilic head
3. Has 2 non-polar, hydrophobic tails
a)
waxes
b)
phospholipids
c)
steroids
d)
triglycerides
36.
In the phospholipid, the polar head is considered what type of structure?
a)
hydrophobic
b)
insoluble
c)
hydrophilic
37.

Which diagram is a triglyceride?

a)
b)
c)
d)
38.

How many water molecules would be required to hydrolyse a triglyceride?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

None

39.

What type of bond is being broken when a triglyceride is hydrolysed?

a)

glycosidic

b)

peptide

c)

ester

d)

phosphodiester

40.
a junction at which a neuron meets another cell
a)
axon
b)
dendrites
c)
myelin sheath
d)
synapse
41.
What number(s) on the graph represents the Resting Potential?
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 5
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 and 4
42.
When a neuron is depolarized, what are the first channels to open?
a)
Sodium
b)
Potassium
c)
Calcium
d)
ACTH
43.
When a neuron is resting, the inside of the axon has a ____________ charge.
a)
-55 mV
b)
-70 mV
c)
40 mV
d)
-75 mV
44.
When a neuron is not engaged in an impulse.
a)
Resting potential
b)
Action potential
c)
Neural potential
d)
Synaptic potential
45.
Which ions are involved in the electrical nerve impulse?
a)
Iodine and Sodium
b)
Potassium and Sodium
c)
Iron and Sodium
d)
Calcium and Iodine
46.
What number on the graph represents the Depolarization phase?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
47.
What number on the graph represents the Hyperpolarization phase?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
48.
At what stage does Potassium end outside the neuron, and Sodium ends inside the neuron?
a)
Depolarizarion
b)
Repolarization
c)
Hyperpolarization
d)
Resting Potential
49.
At what stage are both ions present in large concentrations INSIDE the neuron?
a)
Depolarizarion
b)
Repolarization
c)
Hyperpolarization
d)
Resting Potential
50.
Why is hyperpolarization important?
a)
It makes sure the neuron is healthy
b)
It prevents a second, unwanted signal from being sent
c)
It makes sure the neurons are in the correct space
d)
It makes sure the charge is back at -70 mV
51.

Which pattern shows how signals are transmitted from the presynaptic neuron to the post synaptic neuron

a)

electrical --> electrical

b)

electrical --> chemical

c)

chemical --> electrical --> chemical

d)

electrical --> chemical --> electrical

52.

Which side of the synapse contains ligand-gated ion channels?

a)

presynaptic

b)

postsynaptic

c)

both

53.

A chemical message is known as

a)

a phosphatase

b)

a phosphate

c)

a ligand

d)

a charge

54.

Select the correct term for the following definition:

"The water transport system in plants."

a)

Villi

b)

Bronchi

c)

Bolus

d)

Xylem

55.

Recall what is dissolved in the water in the xylem.

a)

Glucose

b)

Amino acids

c)

Mineral ions

d)

Starch

56.

Recall the main funtion of a phloem cell.

a)

To transport nutrients (mainly sucrose) to different parts of a plant.

b)

To transport water to different parts of a plant.

c)

To make energy for the plant via photosynthesis.

d)

To provide structural support to a plant.

57.

Recall which of the following form part of the phloem.

a)

Sieve-tube elements

b)

Trachieds

c)

Vessels

d)

Companion cells

58.

Recall that the movement of food in the phloem is called.

a)

Translocation

b)

Transpiration stream

c)

Evaporation

d)

Respiration

59.

When the forces of cohesion and adhesion work together, water can move up the plant against the force of gravity by....

a)

Phototropism

b)

Geotropism

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Capillary Action

60.

Xylem tubes are made of...

a)

Dead cells

b)

Living cells

61.

Phloem tubes are made of...

a)

Dead cells

b)

Living cells

62.

Xylem tubes transport..

a)

Water

b)

Mineral ions

c)

Food substances (e.g. sucrose)

63.

Which process are the phloem tubes part of?

a)

Translocation

b)

Transpiration

64.

Which process are the xylem tubes part of?

a)

Translocation

b)

Transpiration

65.
What is the evaporation of a liquid to cool the body?
a)
Shivering
b)
Sweating
c)
Vasodilation
d)
Vasoconstriction
66.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
67.
Water diffusing with the concentration gradient from high water concentration to low water concentration across a cell membrane is....
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
68.

Name structure A

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Glomerulus

69.

Name Structure B

a)

Bowmans Capsule

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

proximal Convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting duct

70.

Name structure C

a)

Distal convoluted tubule

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of henle

d)

Glomerulus

71.

Name structure D

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Bowmans Capsule

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Loop of henle

72.

Name structure E

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Collecting Duct

c)

Loop of henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

73.

What is the function of structure A?

a)

For the selective re-absorption of glucose

b)

To filter the small molecules in the blood to create the glomerular filtrate

c)

For osmoregulation

74.

This is a network of capillaries that carries blood at relatively high pressure.

a)

afferent arteriole

b)

efferent arteriole

c)

peritubular capillary network

d)

glomerulus

75.
In a normal human, which substance should be 100% reabsorbed, meaning that it should not be present in the urine
a)
glucose
b)
salt
c)
water
d)
urea
76.

Thermoregulation means?

a)

Maintain temperature

b)

Maintain water levels

c)

Maintain heart rate

d)

Maintain breathing

77.

What toxic substance is excreted in the urine?

a)

Glucose

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Urea

78.

Which of the following is NOT filtered out of the blood in the kidneys?

a)

Blood cells

b)

Amino acids

c)

Urea

d)

Glucose

79.

Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is released by which gland of the endocrine system

a)

Thyroid

b)

Pituitary

c)

Ovaries

d)

Adrenal

80.

If you are over-hydrated (high water potential in the blood), the body must excrete excess water. To do so, the brain triggers the pituitary gland to ...

a)

release MORE ADH, making the collecting duct MORE permeable

b)

release LESS ADH, making the collecting duct LESS permeable

c)

release MORE ADH, making the collecting duct LESS permeable

d)

release LESS ADH, making the collecting duct MORE permeable

81.

Release of ADH is caused by...

a)

Excellent feedback

b)

Bad feedback

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Negative feedback

82.

Structures B and C are the site of...

a)

selective reabsorption

b)

ultrafiltration

c)

water reabsorption

d)

macrofiltration

83.

Where do the dark reactions (Calvin cycle) take place?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

lumen

c)

stroma

84.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
85.
What is the main purpose of the light dependent reactions?
a)
To provide the energy for the calvin cycle
b)
To capture energy and make sugar
c)
To reflect green light
d)
To make sugars
86.
What happens to NADPH and ATP after they are used in the Calvin Cycle?
a)
they recycle back to the light reactions
b)
they are used to make G3P
87.
Which of the following is NOT a product of the dark reactions? 
a)
NADP+
b)
NADPH
c)
ATP
d)
G3P (to form glucose)
88.
Which of the following is NOT a reactant of the Calvin Cycle?
a)
NADPH
b)
ATP
c)
Oxygen
d)
Carbon dioxide
89.
What is the name of the simple sugar that is produced in photosynthesis?
a)
Sucrose
b)
Dextrose
c)
Glucose
d)
Lactose
90.
Which enzyme joins CO2 and RuBP?
a)
NADP+ reductase
b)
rubisco
c)
ATP synthase
91.
Where do NADP+ and ADP produced in the Calvin cycle go? 
a)
Back to the light reactions
b)
out of the chloroplast
92.
The Calvin Cycle occurs in the ___________.
a)
Stroma
b)
Thylakoid Membrane
c)
Enzyme ATP Synthase
d)
Chlorophyll
93.
In the Calvin Cycle, carbon from CO2 is added to one molecule of RuBP to create _________.
a)
RUDP
b)
An Unstable 6 Carbon Molecule
c)
PGA
d)
2 3-carbon molecules
94.
After reaching an excited state, electrons jump from the chlorophyll molecules to the __________.
a)
Stroma
b)
Electron transport chain
c)
Photosystem 2
d)
H+ ion reservoir 
95.
The 5-Carbon molecules that the Calvin Cycle starts and ends with, is called _____________.
a)
PGA
b)
G3P
c)
RuBP
d)
RuDp
96.
The light dependent phase occurs in the __________.
a)
Stroma
b)
Thylakoid Membrane
c)
Chlorophyll
d)
Chloroplast Membrane
97.
The CO2 used in the Calvin Cycle originates from ___________.
a)
The light phase
b)
The breakdown of the remaining G3P's
c)
Diffusion through the stoma
d)
Lumen of the Thylakoid
98.
The loss of H2O through stomata is referred to as:
a)
Transpiration
b)
Respiration
c)
Evaporation
d)
Photorespiration
99.

Main products of the Calvin Cycle

a)

Oxygen, NADP+, ADP

b)

Glucose, CO2, ADP

c)

ADP, NADP+, Glucose

d)

ATP, NADPH, Oxygen

100.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
101.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
102.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
103.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
104.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
105.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
106.
Where can you find the chloroplast? 
a)
Only Plants
b)
Only Animals
c)
Plants & Animals
d)
Animals & Bacteria
107.
Where in the cell are proteins made? 
a)
Ribosome
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
108.
What does the cell wall do for the cell?
a)
Allows things in and out
b)
Provides protection and structure
c)
Controls the cell
d)
Makes protein 
109.
The Golgi apparatus _____.
a)
packages cell products for export
b)
eliminates waste
c)
stores DNA
d)
makes energy
110.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell? 
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
111.
This organelle creates energy.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Mitochondria
d)
ER
112.
Where is DNA stored in a cell? 
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Golgi Complex
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Nucleus
113.
This organelle helps plants keep their rigid structure. 
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
114.
This organelle moves materials throughout the cell. 
a)
ER
b)
Ribosomes
c)
FedEx
d)
Golgi Complex
115.
This organelle eliminates waste. 
a)
Nucleus
b)
ER
c)
Vacuole
d)
Lysosome
116.
This organelle contains only fluid.
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondrion
c)
central vacuole
d)
cell membrane
117.
This is part of the endoplasmic reticulum that is used to make proteins that will be used by other cells. It is lined with ribosomes.
a)
Vesicles
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Rough ER
d)
Smooth ER
118.
Where does glycolysis take place in cells?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Ribosomes
119.
Glycolysis results in the net gain of:
a)
2 ATP
b)
4 ATP
c)
4 NADH
d)
2 Acetyl CoA
120.
Which is not part of the net products of Glycolysis?
a)
2 ATP
b)
2 NADH
c)
2 Pyruvate
d)
2 CO2
121.
Which of the following is not a product of glycolysis?
a)
FADH2
b)
NADH
c)
ATP
d)
Pyruvate
122.

After the NAD+ receives electrons, what does it change to?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

ADP

123.

Where does the link reaction take place

a)

inner mitochondrial membrane

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondrial matrix

d)

ribosome

124.

The products of the link reaction are

a)

pyruvate and carbon dioxide

b)

carbon dioxide and co-enzyme A

c)

carbon dioxide, acetyl coA and NADH

d)

NADH and carbon dioxide

125.

The removal of carbon from a molecule in the form of carbon dioxide is known as

a)

decarboxylation

b)

dehydrogenation

c)

phosphorylation

d)

oxidation

126.

Krebs Cycle takes place in the:

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondrial Matrix

c)

Ribsome

d)

InterMembrane Space

127.
Prior to entering the Krebs Cycle, each pyruvate molecule loses electrons, hydrogen ions, and a carbon, forming an energy-rich molecule of
a)
Acetyl-CoA
b)
Citrate
c)
Oxaloacetate
d)
Malate
128.

The number of ATP molecules produced out of Krebs Cycle for 1 molecule of glucose is:

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

0

129.

How many FADH molecules are produced by 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

130.

How many FADH molecules are produced by 1 turn of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

131.

How many NADH molecules are produced by a molecule of glucose through the Krebs' Cycle for 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

132.
How many CO2 molecules are produced by the Krebs Cycle for a molecule of glucose?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
3
133.
After the Krebs Cycle only a small portion of the energy of glucose has been converted to ATP. At this point the majority of usable energy is contained in
a)
NADH and FADH2
b)
Carbon Dioxide 
c)
Acetyl-CoA
d)
Citrate
134.

The "regenerator" molecule of the Krebs Cycle is:

a)

Oxaloacetate

b)

Acetyl-CoA

c)

Citrate

d)

α-Ketoglutarate

135.
Folds in the mitochondrion are called:
a)
Cristae
b)
Matrix
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Carbuncles
136.
The inner most interior of the mitochondrion is called the:
a)
Cristae
b)
Matrix
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Carbuncles
137.

After Acetyl-CoA is added to an oxaloacetate molecule, __________ is immediately formed. This is why the Kreb's cycle is sometimes called the citric acid cycle.

a)

malate

b)

succinate

c)

citrate

d)

ketoglutarate

138.

What type of conditions do xerophytes live in?

a)

wet

b)

damp

c)

humid

d)

dry

139.
Which is the following is represented by the letter A?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Cell Body 
c)
Nucleus
d)
Myelin Sheath
140.

Type of neuron that carries messages from the body to the brain/spinal cord:

a)

Afferent/sensory

b)

Efferent/motor

141.

Type of neuron that carries messages from the brain/spinal cord to the body

a)

Afferent/Sensory

b)

Efferent/Motor

142.

When you are dehydrated what out of the following options will happen? [3]

a)

Less ADH will be secreted by the pituitary.

b)

More water will be reabsorbed back into the blood.

c)

Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus will detect increased blood concentration.

d)

The volume of urine will increase.

e)

More ADH will be secreted by the pituitary.

143.

The proteins found on the surface of RBCs that allow us to type blood as A, B, O or AB are called

a)

antigens

b)

antibodies

c)

aggluntates

d)

Rh factors

144.

What is produced by your body in response to foreign antigens, such as the wrong type of blood?

a)

agglutinates

b)

clotting factors

c)

phagocytes

d)

antibodies

145.
If a red blood cell has no antigens on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
146.
Someone who has Type O blood has what for antibodies (clumping proteins)?
a)
No antibodies
b)
A antibodies
c)
B antibodies
d)
A and B antibodies
147.

Someone with Type A blood also has...

a)

Type A antibodies

b)

Type B antibodies

c)

both Type A & B antibodies

d)

neither Type A nor B antibodies

148.

Someone with both Type A & B antibodies is which blood type?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

149.

Someone with Type A blood has...

a)

A antigens

b)

A antibodies

c)

B antigens

d)

A & B antigens

150.

Someone with Type AB blood has...

a)

Both A & B antibodies

b)

No antibodies

c)

only A antigens

d)

only B antigens

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