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AP Biology A Review Questions

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Describe the difference between rough ER and smooth ER.

a)

Rough ER compartmentalizes cell; Smooth ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis

b)

Rough ER functions in ribosome synthesis; Smooth ER functions in lipid synthesis

c)

Rough ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis; Smooth ER compartmentalizes cell

d)

Rough ER functions in lipid synthesis; Smooth ER functions in ribosome synthesis

2.

Which organelle is a membrane-bound structure that functions in correct folding/chemical modification of proteins?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

3.

Which is membrane-enclosed sacs that contain hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

4.

Which is responsible for storage and release of macromolecules and cellular waster products. In plants, aids in turgor.

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

5.

Describe the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratios.

a)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio increases

b)

As cells decrease in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

c)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

d)

Cell size has no effect on the SA:V ratio

6.

Describe the characteristics of a membrane-bound protein.

a)

Entire protein is hydrophilic

b)

Entire protein is hydrophobic

c)

Hydrophilic R group exterior cell & hydrophobic R group interior membrane

d)

Hydrophilic R group interior membrane & hydrophobic R group interior cell

7.

Identify which of the following will bind to a membrane protein (and will not enter the cell).

a)

Water

b)

Protein Hormone

c)

Steroid Hormone

d)

Charged Ion

8.

Which of the following requires an input of energy for membrane transport?

a)

Charged ion moving against concentration gradient

b)

Water moving into a hypertonic cell

c)

Charged ion moving with concentration gradient

d)

Water moving out of a hypotonic cell

9.

What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?

a)

Endocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell entering

b)

Endocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to bring materials in cell

c)

Exocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell exiting

d)

Exocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to remove material from cell

10.

Which of the following correctly describe the movement of water?

a)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 1.0M exterior solution

b)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

c)

Cell with 1.0M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

d)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will lose water to the 0.5M exterior solution

11.

Why is a eukaryotic cell able to be larger than a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Membrane-bound organelles compartmentalize intracellular processes

b)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

c)

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

d)

Absence of membrane-bound organelles allows for enzymatic reactions.

12.
When cells are placed in a __________ solution they begin to swell.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Isotonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Equalized
13.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
14.
Which way would the purple molecules move through the semi-permeable membrane?
a)
From the  A side  to the B-side
b)
From the B side to the A side
c)
none of the purple molecules would move
d)
they would move equally back and forth in a state of dynamic equilibrium
15.
What is the approximate sucrose concentration in the potato core?
a)
.43 M
b)
.30 M
c)
0.0 M
d)
1.0 M
16.
Active transport is happening in 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D nowhere in this pricture
17.
Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?
a)
phosphorylated tyrosine kinase dimer
b)
ligand-gated ion channel
c)
receptor tyrosine kinase
d)
G protein-coupled receptor
18.
Which of the following is characterized by a cell releasing a signal molecule into the environment, followed by a number of cells in the immediate vicinity responding?
a)
paracrine signaling
b)
endocrine signaling
c)
long distance signaling
d)
hormonal signaling
19.
Which is not a part of a signal transduction pathway?
a)
response
b)
transcription
c)
transduction
d)
receptor
20.
When a plant cell, such as one from a tulip stem, is submerged in a very hypotonic solution, what is likely to occur?
a)
The cell membrane will lyse.
b)
The cell will burst.
c)
The cell will become turgid.
d)
Plasmolysis will shrink the interior.
21.
A HYPERTONIC solution has a _____ concentration of solute than the interior of the cell and a cell will ______ when placed into this solution.
a)
lower; shrink
b)
lower; swell
c)
higher; shrink
d)
higher; swell
22.
Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling in animals?
a)
neurotransmitter acetylcholine
b)
hormone epinephrine
c)
neurotransmitter norepinephrine
d)
growth factor
23.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
24.
Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
a)
central vacuole
b)
chloroplast
c)
wall made of cellulose
d)
mitochondrion
25.
Which statement is correct about diffusion?
a)
It's very rapid over long distances.
b)
It's a passive process which molecules move from a region of higher to lower concentration.
c)
It requires an energy expenditure by the cell.
d)
It's an active process where molecules move from a region of lower to higher concentration.
26.
Which statement about diffusion is false?
a)
Diffusion does not require ATP
b)
Simple diffusion depends upon specific carrier proteins
c)
In diffusion, molecules move from areas of greater concentration to areas of lesser concentration
d)
Diffusion continues until the molecular concentrations are in equilibrium
27.
In a hypothetical study, cells are placed in a solution of glucose in which the concentration of glucose is gradually increased. At first, the rate at which glucose enters the cells is found to increase as the concentration of the glucose solution is increased. But when the glucose concentration of the solution is increased above 10 M, the rate no longer increases. Which of the following is the likely mechanism for glucose transport into these cells?
a)
Facilitated diffusion via a carrier protein
b)
Facilitated diffusion via a channel protein
c)
Pinocytosis
d)
Tertiary active transport
28.
Prokaryotic cell
a)
a cell that lacks a nucleus and other membrane bound organelles; includes achaea and bacteria
b)
a cell containing a nucleus and other membrane bound organelles
c)
the idea that the mitochonria and chloroplasts were once free living and were engulfed by other prokaryotic cells.
d)
 part of the cell containing DNA and RNA and responsible for growth and reproduction
29.
What 4 structures are common between plant, animal, and bacterial cells?
a)
Golgi Apparatus, Chloroplasts, Ribosomes, Nucleus
b)
Cell Wall, Mitochondria, Cell Membrane, Cytoplasm
c)
Rough ER, Smooth ER, Nucleus, Ribosomes
d)
DNA, Cytoplasm, Ribosomes, Cell membrane
30.

If a cells Ψp\Psi p = 3 bars and its  Ψs\Psi s = -4.5 bars, what is the resulting  Ψ\Psi  ?

a)

-7.5

b)

7.5

c)

-1.5

d)

1.5

31.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

32.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

33.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

34.

Which of the following is NOT a role of mitosis?

a)

gametes

b)

tissue repair

c)

growth

d)

asexual reproduction

35.

Which checkpoint is responsible for ensuring nondisjunction does not take place?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

36.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

37.

Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

38.

An RNA strand has the following sequence of nucleotides: uracil, adenine, guanine, cytosine, cytosine. What is the nucleotide sequence in the DNA that was transcribed?

a)

adenine, thymine, thymine, cytosine, guanine, guanine

b)

adenine, thymine, thymine, uracil, guanine, guanine

c)

guanine, adenine, cytosine, thymine, guanine, guanine

39.

What do we call the region that joins two sister chromatids?

a)

centriole

b)

chromatin

c)

centromere

d)

chromosome

40.

What do we call the region that joins two sister chromatids?

a)

centriole

b)

chromatin

c)

centromere

d)

chromosome

41.

In which phase of mitosis are the chromosomes separated from their duplicates?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase

42.

Which is the cellular basis for sexual reproduction?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

43.

What is a diploid cell?

a)

A cell that has only one representative of each chromosome pair.

b)

The number or homologous pairs in a cell.

c)

A cell with chromosomes that come in homologous pairs.

d)

The figure produced when the chromosomes of a species during metaphase are arranged according to their homologous pairs.

44.

A cellular reproduction process results in two diploid cells. Is this mitosis or meiosis?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

45.

Cellular reproduction that only requires one parent cell and produces an identical offspring is ____________.

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

gametes

d)

chromosomes

46.

____________________________requires two parents and results in offspring that share traits of both parents DNA.

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

diploid

d)

chromosomes

47.

During which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up down the middle of the cell?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

48.

Once the cell has undergone cell division and has completely separated, it is known as which of the following?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

cytokinesis

49.

Which of the following are a form of asexual reproduction?

a)

budding

b)

binary fission

c)

regeneration

d)

all of the above

50.

Which phase of mitosis is depicted below?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

51.

What stage of interphase is characterized by protein and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S phase

d)

M Phase

52.

This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity.

a)

crossing over

b)

random fertilization

c)

independent assortment

d)

gene flow

53.

What phase of meiosis describes the law of segregation?

a)

telophase I

b)

anaphase I

c)

telophase II

d)

anaphase II

54.

Describe the process of nondisjunction.

a)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information

b)

The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate

c)

Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase

d)

The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote

55.

Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.

a)

2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division

b)

4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division

c)

4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division

d)

2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division

56.
The replication of DNA is...
a)
conservative
b)
dispersive
c)
semi-conservative
d)
random
57.
Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of mRNA?
a)
addition of poly-A tail
b)
addition of 5' cap
c)
removal of introns
d)
removal of exons
58.
The two strands in a DNA molecule are held together by ...
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
phosphodiester bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
ionic bonds
59.
Since most amino acids are encoded for by more than one codon, the genetic code is said to be ...
a)
semi-conservative
b)
a triplet code
c)
universal
d)
redundant
60.
The synthesis of a new strand of DNA ...
a)
starts at an operator sequence.
b)
involves DNA ligase.
c)
is always in fragments.
d)
occurs from the 5' end to the 3' end.
61.
RNA is similar to DNA in that ...
a)
it is a polymer of nucleotides
b)
it is double-stranded 
c)
it is only found in the nucleus
d)
there is only one type of RNA
62.
A codon is to mRNA as an anti-codon is to ...
a)
DNA
b)
an amino acid
c)
rRNA
d)
tRNA
63.
Which of the following statements about ribosomes is FALSE?
a)
They have 3 'sites' - E, P and A sites.
b)
They read mRNA from the 3' end to the 5' end.
c)
They consist of 2 subunits.
d)
They make proteins.
64.
The codons UAA, UAG and UGA are unique since they ...
a)
are redundant
b)
encode for the same amino acid
c)
encode for a 'start'
d)
encode for a 'stop'
65.
A DNA molecule made from 2 different sources is called ...
a)
recombinant DNA
b)
nuclear DNA
c)
modified DNA
d)
mutant DNA
66.
Which of the following enzymes is NOT needed in replication?
a)
DNA ligase
b)
RNA primase
c)
DNA polymerase III
d)
RNA polymerase
67.
Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
a)
GGCCCG
b)
AATGGC
c)
AACGTT
d)
CCUTGG
68.
In gel electrophoresis ....
a)
 15N is needed to weigh down the DNA samples
b)
DNA molecules move towards the negative pole
c)
larger molecules travel faster
d)
smaller DNA fragments travel faster
69.
The genetic code is ...
a)
a triplet code
b)
species specific
c)
RNA-based
d)
still unknown
70.

Gel electrophoresis

a)

The method of copying strands of DNA

b)

The method for cutting strands of DNA

c)

The method for separating strands of DNA

71.

A 2021bp plasmid is cut at the 5th base, the 1000th base, and the 1540th base. How many pieces are there and what's the longest piece?

a)

3, 995bp

b)

4, 540bp

c)

3, 486bp

d)

none of these

72.

What is the enzyme responsible for DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleolus

73.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
74.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
75.

What is transcription?

a)

A molecule that contains the genetic code for organisms.

b)

The RNA → Protein part of the central dogma

c)

The DNA → RNA part of the central dogma of molecular biology

d)

The process in which cells make proteins

76.

What is translation?

a)

The RNA → Protein part of the central dogma

b)

The DNA → RNA part of the central dogma of molecular biology

c)

The process in which cells make proteins

d)

A molecule that contains the genetic code of organisms.

77.

What is a mutation?

a)

change the chromosome structure

b)

Anything in the environment that can cause a mutation

c)

A change in the sequence of bases in DNA or RNA

78.

3'-ATATTTAGGCGTGTAAT-5'

Is sequence of non-coding strand, What would be the sequence of mRNA ?

a)

5'-AUAUUUAGGCUGUAAU-3'

b)

3'-AUAUUUAGGCUGUAAU-5'

c)

5'-UAUAAAUCCGACAUUA-3'

d)

None of the above

79.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
80.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
81.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
82.

TRANSLATION:

This is

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

DNA

d)

a ribosome

83.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has prokaryote DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

84.

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?

a)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

b)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

c)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

d)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

85.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines.

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

c)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

86.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

87.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

88.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA strands?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

89.

Which enzyme is requires RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

90.

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

91.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

92.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

c)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

93.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

intron removal

c)

poly-A tail

d)

TATA box

94.

During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?

a)

Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

b)

Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

c)

Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

d)

Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

95.

Where does translation take place in prokaryotes & eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or nucleus

b)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or rough ER; Eukaryotes - cytosol

c)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or rough ER

d)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or nucleus; Eukaryotes - cytosol

96.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

97.

How do retroviruses violate the central dogma?

a)

Retroviruses are responsible for using DNA to synthesize more viral RNA

b)

Retroviruses are pre-historic and existed prior to the central dogma

c)

Retroviruses use enzymes to make DNA from RNA & integrate into host DNA

d)

Retroviruses use host DNA to make viral RNA, then incorporate into host DNA

98.

Which of the following describes epigenetic changes that affect gene expression?

a)

alternative RNA splicing

b)

post-transcriptional modification

c)

DNA methylation or histone acetylation

d)

operon inhibition

99.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

100.

Identify the primary source of genetic variation

a)

crossing over

b)

mutations

c)

random fertilization

d)

independent assortment

101.

What determines the level of effect of a mutation?

a)

environmental context

b)

codon-anticodon pairing

c)

structure of protein

d)

process of meiosis

102.

Which of the following is NOT a process of horizontal acquisition of genetic information by prokaryotes?

a)

transformation

b)

transposition

c)

transduction

d)

transjugation

103.

Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described?

a)

Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge

b)

Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells

c)

PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes

d)

DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule

104.

What is the best explanation for a meniscus of water in a graduated cylinder?

a)

Cohesive property is stronger than adhesive

b)

Adhesive property is stronger than cohesive

c)

Surface tension is causing water molecules to be pulled down

d)

Adhesive and cohesive properties are of the same strength

105.

Which of the following functional groups would you always find in an amino acid?

a)

-OH

b)

-NH2

c)

-CO

d)

-CH3

106.

Which of the following is true of RNA?

a)

Double stranded helix

b)

Has the base Thymine

c)

Is single stranded

d)

Has the sugar deoxyribose

107.

Amino acids are classified according to

a)

the properties of the amine group

b)

the properties of the carboxyl group

c)

the properties of the R group

d)

the properties of its hydrogen atoms

108.

The tertiary structure of a protein is dependent on

a)

the sequence of amino acids

b)

interactions between the amino acid backbone

c)

the interactions of the R groups

d)

binding of two or more polypeptides together

109.

 

Cysteine is one of only a few amino acids that contains sulfur, which can form disulfide bonds between 2 cysteines. What level of protein structure would this most impact?

a)

Primary Structure

b)

Secondary Structure

c)

Tertiary Structure

d)

Quaternary Structure

110.

The image shows two different fatty acid chains which might be part of a phospholipid. Which one would most likely be found in a fish living in the Arctic?

a)

The top fatty acid because it is saturated and will give fluidity to the membrane

b)

The bottom fatty acid because it is saturated and will give rigidity to the membrane

c)

The top fatty acid because it is unsaturated and will give fluidity to the membrane

d)

The bottom fatty acid because it is unsaturated and will give the membrane more fluidity

111.

Which molecules would contain the element phosphorus?

a)

Carbohydrates and lipids

b)

Proteins and carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic acids and lipids

d)

Proteins and nucleic acids

112.

Why is ice less dense than liquid water?

a)

Partial charges of water molecules repel each other

b)

Water has a high surface tension, keeping ice on the surface

c)

As water cools the hydrogen bonds keep molecules separate from each other

d)

As water cools the hydrogen bonds keep molecules separate from each other

113.

What is the monomer of proteins?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Monosaccharides

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

114.

Which biological molecule has no true monomers,

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

115.

What type of reaction is shown in the image?

a)

Dehydration Synthesis

b)

DNA Replication

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Tertiary

116.

 

Which of the following might denature proteins?

a)

Increased temperature

b)

Change in pH

c)

Ultraviolet Light

d)

All of these would denature proteins

117.

Hemoglobin is a protein that consists of four polypeptide subunits held together by hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds, which indicates that hemoglobin has ____________________ structure.

a)

Primary level only

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary level

d)

Quaternary Lvel

118.

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

a)

Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.

b)

Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.

c)

Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.

d)

Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.

119.

DNA & RNA are examples of this type of macromolecule.

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

120.

What determines the function of a protein?

a)

Number of peptide bonds

b)

Types of side chains

c)

Its specific structure

d)

The type of cell that produces the protein

121.

Phosphorus is essential for living things because it is a primary component of

a)

carbohydrates and nucleic acids

b)

carbohydrates and proteins

c)

nucleic acids and some lipids

d)

nucleic acids and proteins

122.

When starch is digested in the human small intestine, the final product is simple

a)

nucleotides

b)

monosaccharides

c)

fatty acids

d)

amino acids

123.

What do all lipids have in common?

a)

comprised of phosphorus

b)

hydrophobic

c)

provides structure in plants

d)

able to hydrogen bond with water

124.

What is the force that holds the 2 strands of DNA together?

a)

hydrophobic interactions

b)

salt bridges

c)

hydrogen bonding

d)

disulfide bonds

125.

Which of the following is NOT a component of an mRNA monomer?

a)

sugar

b)

phosphate

c)

nitrogenous base

d)

amino acid

126.

Type of sugar found in DNA

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribose

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

127.
The image depicts which level of structure in proteins?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quaternary
128.

If two glucose molecules (C6H12O6) undergo a dehydration reaction, which of the following represents the chemical formulas for the product(s)?

a)

2 C6H12O6

b)

C12H24O12

c)

C12H22O11 + H2O

d)

C12H24O12 + H2O

129.

Which of these is specific to eukaryotic cells?

a)

DNA inside a nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Circular DNA

d)

Phospholipid cell membrane

130.
Which statement is correct about diffusion?
a)
It's very rapid over long distances.
b)
It's a passive process which molecules move from a region of higher to lower concentration.
c)
It requires an energy expenditure by the cell.
d)
It's an active process where molecules move from a region of lower to higher concentration.
131.

The cell membrane is made up of

a)

chromosomes

b)

carbohydrates

c)

phospholipid bilayer

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

132.

Organelle that provides ATP (energy) from carbohydrates

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Chloroplast

133.
A protein that will be modified with carbohydrates will pass through 
a)
the lysosome and the rough ER
b)
the rough ER and the Golgi body
c)
the rough ER and smooth ER
d)
the Golgi body and the smooth ER
134.
Which of the following would likely move through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?
a)
CO2
b)
an amino acid
c)
starch
d)
glucose
135.
As a cell’s size increases, its ratio of surface area to volume decreases.
a)
True
b)
False
136.
What is the difference between active and passive transport?
a)
Active does not need energy and passive uses ATP (energy)
b)
Active uses ATP (energy) and passive does not need energy
c)
Active stores transport proteins and passive releases 
d)
Active uses hormones and passive does not 
137.
What macromolecule makes up the cell membrane's lining?
a)
Saturated Fatty acid chains
b)
Phospholipids
c)
Polypeptide chains
d)
Cellulose polysaccharide Chains
138.
The absorption of nutrients is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's ribosomes
d)
The cell's DNA
139.
What molecule plays and important role in controlling cell membrane fluidity? 
a)
Insulin
b)
Testosterone
c)
Triglyceride
d)
Cholesterol 
140.

What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

hydrophilic heads

d)

lipids

141.

Allows molecules to cross the plasma membrane freely.

a)

Channel Protein

b)

Cell Recognition Protein

c)

Enzymatic Protein

d)

Junction Proteins

142.
Osmosis is the movement of __________ across a membrane? 
a)
Glucose
b)
Water
c)
N+ ions
d)
Hydrogen Peroxide
143.

Diffusion with the help of transport proteins is called

a)

phagocytosis

b)

Na-K Pump

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Active Transport

144.

Fusion of membrane-bound vesicle with membrane and dumping contents outside cell is known as

a)

endocytosis

b)

diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

exocytosis

145.

The tail of a phospholipid is?

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophillic

c)

Amphiphathic

146.

Aquaporins are involved in which type of transport?

a)

active transport

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

phagocytosis

d)

simple diffusion

147.

What happens to a cell when exposed to a hypertonic solution?

a)

shrivels

b)

swells

c)

stays the same

148.

When you are sick and your white blood cells engulf the foreign bacteria, how would this occur?

a)

By diffusion

b)

By phagocytosis

c)

By pinocytosis

d)

By facilitated diffusion

149.

Why is apoptosis required?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Cell division: Meiosis and mitosis

c)

Elimination of threats such as viruses and DNA damage

150.
Which of the following statements correctly matches a cell part with its function
a)
The cell membrane packages lipids for export
b)
The mitochondria perform photosynthesis
c)
The lysosome digests molecules
d)
The nucleus produces energy
151.

Keratin is a protein found in hair. Where in a cell is keratin made?

a)

nucleus

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

152.

When organisms maintain a stable internal environment it is known as

a)

homeostasis

b)

differentiation

c)

maintenance

d)

transformation

153.
"Endosymbiosis" means
a)
Living together
b)
Living inside
c)
Entering together
d)
Joining together

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