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Biology Review

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Enzymes catalyze reactions by ___________ Activation Energy.
a)
Increasing
b)
Decreasing
2.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
3.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
4.

Which of the following converts food into energy for the cell?

a)

vacuole

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

5.
What is something that prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have in common?
a)
They have a nucleus. 
b)
They are multi-cellular. 
c)
They have DNA. 
d)
They have organelles that are membrane-bound.
6.
Active transport does not require energy.
a)
True 
b)
False 
7.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
8.
These molecules represent which organic molecule?
a)
proteins
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
carbohydrates
9.

The light independent reactions (Calvin Cycle) of photosynthesis happen where?

a)

stroma of chloroplast

b)

mitochondrial matrix

c)

stem

d)

thylakoid membrane

10.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
11.
What are the two reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
C6H12O6 & 6CO2
b)
6 CO2 & 6H2O
c)
C6H12O& 6O2
d)
6CO2 & 6O2
12.
Name structure #5.
a)
rough ER
b)
nucleus
c)
vesicle
d)
cytoplasm
13.

Plant cells are able to produce their own food. This process happens in which structure?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

vacuole

14.

These diagrams show a variety of cells from the same organism.

How can cells from the same organism have such different shapes and functions?As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different DNA once it reaches maturity.

a)

As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different

b)

Mutations in the cells’ nuclei lead to new combinations of DNA, resulting in different shapes and functions in the different types of cells.

c)

During differentiation, different parts of the DNA in each type of cell are activated, resulting in the different structure and function of the cells.

d)

During differentiation, different types of cells produce proteins which destroy the nonactive DNA, leading to cell specialization.

15.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentrations in cells

b)

It regulates body temperature

c)

It maintains water balance

d)

It maintains sugar balance in cells

16.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

17.

Which statement best explains why animals are considered heterotrophic?

a)

They are able to produce food through the process of photosynthesis.

b)

They are able to produce food through the process of respiration.

c)

They are able to obtain nutrients by decomposing plant and animal tissue.

d)

They are able to obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms or their products

18.

In some ecosystems, wolves have been eliminated due to their threats to humans. How can the reintroduction of wolves benefit the ecosystem?

a)

It can eliminate weak animals from a prey population, thereby decreasing competition for natural resources

b)

It can eliminate the most fit animals among the prey population, which will cause an increase in birth rates of the prey

c)

It can cause the prey population to migrate to other areas, resulting in more fit prey.

d)

It can cause the prey population to better blend in with their environment.

19.

What will most likely be the result as humans move into new areas, forests are clear cut and housing developments are built?

a)

Global temperatures will decrease because trees are removed.

b)

Many organisms will lose their homes because their habitats have been destroyed.

c)

Better sanitation in the area will reduce the amount of pollution.

d)

The rainfall in the area will increase because there will be increased runoff.

20.

What activity most contributes to the depletion of the ozone layer?

a)

burning of fossil fuels

b)

release of CFCs

c)

deforestation

d)

overuse of fertilizers

21.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)

The protein produced will have a different identity

b)

The protein produced will have a coiled shape.

c)

The protein produced will produce excess nitrogen.

d)

The protein produced will produce excess water

22.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

23.

Which process does photosynthesis and respiration have in common?

a)

The water cycle

b)

The nitrogen cycle

c)

The carbon cycle

24.

What impact would the absence of nitrogen fixing bacteria have on consumers?

a)

could not make proteins

b)

could not make carbonhydrates

c)

could not make lipids

d)

could not make fatty acids

25.
How do plants return water to the atmosphere?
a)
Precipitation
b)
Respiration
c)
Transpiration
d)
Condensation
26.

Mosses are short due to the absent of which tissues?

a)

vascular

b)

non-vascular

27.
What is an example of a non-vascular plant?
a)
Rose
b)
Apple Tree
c)
Ferns
d)
Moss
28.

All of the following are characteristics of nonvascular plants EXCEPT:

a)

Do not have tube like cells to water water and nutrients

b)

Grows tall

c)

Near a water source

d)

Grows close to the ground

29.
When two members of different species have a relationship that benefits them both, it is called _____________.
a)
Parasitism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
30.
What happens to a prey population if the predator population decreases?
a)
The prey population will decrease.
b)
The prey population will increase.
c)
The prey population will not change.
d)
The prey population will not be impacted.
31.

An increase in human population leads to _______________ in natural resources.

a)

the increase

b)

the depletion

c)

no change

32.

______________ causes tree leaves to have brown spots.

a)

Acid rain

b)

Acid water

c)

Pesticides

d)

mutualism

33.

Planting trees reduces which gas in the air?

a)

carbon

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

34.

What is the benefit of planting different crops during the same year?

a)

There is no benefit.

b)

increase carbon monoxide

c)

decrease phosphorus

d)

improve soil quality

35.

Adding lime to a flower garden changes the pH of the soil. What can happen to the flower?

a)

Nothing.

b)

It changes color.

c)

It grows taller.

d)

It dies.

36.

All of the following are examples of good stewardship (help preserve the environment) EXCEPT:

a)

Recycling

b)

Conserve resources

c)

Planting trees

d)

Increase CO2

37.

What are the effects of deforestation?

a)

increase of biodiversity, loss of wildlife, and decreased soil erosion

b)

loss of biodiversity, loss of wildlife, and increased soil erosion

38.

A dog salivates each time it hears a bell. This is what type of learned behavior?

a)

estivation

b)

habituation

c)

imprinting

d)

classical conditioning

39.

What can lead to an increase of the moose population?

a)

Increase in predators

b)

Decrease in moose predators

c)

Decrease in food

40.

Cowbirds lay their eggs in other nests. What type of behavior is this?

a)

learned behavior

b)

innate (instinct) behavior

c)

social behavior

41.

When fossil fuels are formed and stored, what happens to atmospheric CO2?

a)

Nothing happens

b)

CO2 increases.

c)

CO2 decreases.

42.

What are two characteristics of AEROBIC HETEROTROPHS?

a)

Uses CO2 and makes own food

b)

Uses CO2 and cannot make own food

c)

Uses O2 and makes own food

d)

Uses O2 and cannont make own food

43.

Why should limits be placed on pesticide use?

a)

to decrease pesticide resistance

b)

to increase pesticide resistance

c)

to save money

44.

What three factors influence ecosystem stability?

a)

food, shelter, and amount of CO2

b)

shelter, disease, and amount of CO2

c)

disease, amount of CO2, and food

d)

food, shelter, and disease

45.

A section of DNA has these bases: TAG CAG TAC

Which mRNA sequence is produced from this DNA section?

a)

ATC GTC ATG

b)

AUC GUC AUG

c)

AUG CUG AUC

d)

UTC GTC UTG

46.

What is the difference between the DNA of a dog and the DNA of a fly?

a)

the type of sugar building blocks

b)

the sequence of nucleotides

c)

the strength of hydrogen bonds

d)

the strength of covalent bonds

47.

Waxes create a waterproof layer on the outside of some living organisms. To which group of organic molecules do waxes belong?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

48.

Which best summarizes the role of DNA in the production of proteins?

a)

DNA moves to the cytoplasm to build proteins.

b)

DNA transports amino acids to the ribosomes to make proteins.

c)

DNA contains the instructions used to make proteins.

d)

DNA breaks hydrogen bonds between amino acids.

49.

A student noticed that the freshwater plant, Elodea, produced bubbles when placed in direct light. What could the student most likely conclude?

a)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

b)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

c)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

d)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

50.

Plant cells are able to produce their own food. This process happens in which structure?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

vacuole

51.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentrations in cells.

b)

It regulates body temperature.

c)

It maintains water balance.

d)

It maintains sugar balance in cells.

52.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)

The protein produced will have a different identity.

b)

The protein produced will have a coiled shape.

c)

The protein produced will produce excess nitrogen.

d)

The protein produced will produce excess water.

53.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

54.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in humans that breaks down starches. What substance would humans have difficulty digesting without this enzyme?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

55.

Which best explains why the rate of a biochemical reaction decreases at high temperatures?

a)

The activation energy increases.

b)

The shape of the enzyme changes.

c)

The enzyme-substrate complex forms.

d)

The bonds between substrates are broken.

56.

A contractile vacuole helps protists eliminate excess liquid. This is a “pumping" process which reduces pressure inside the cell and prevents the cell from bursting. What is most likely the source of energy for this process?

a)

DNA

b)

lipids

c)

ATP

d)

ribosomes

57.

During translation, what does the tRNA deliver to the ribosomes?

a)

amino acids

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

proteins

58.

Which molecules are joined together to make proteins?

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

amino acids

d)

acetic acids

59.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose → oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water → carbon dioxide + glucose

60.

How does the body of a runner keep up with the demand for energy when cellular oxygen levels are low?

a)

through energy production in the mitochondria

b)

through aerobic respiration in the plasma membrane

c)

through ATP produced directly from sunlight

d)

through anaerobic respiration in the cytoplasm

61.

What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell?

a)

It will be unable to carry out respiration.

b)

It will lose water through osmosis.

c)

It will break down the ribosomes in the cell.

d)

It will be unable to photosynthesize.

62.

During strenuous exercise, body temperature increases. The body responds to the increase in temperature by sweating, which helps to reduce the body temperature. Which is demonstrated in this situation?

a)

excretion

b)

metabolism

c)

homeostasis

d)

synthesis

63.

Which statement best describes the relationship that exists among proteins, DNA, and cells?

a)

Proteins combine to produce cells, which produce DNA.

b)

Proteins are made up of DNA, which determines the cells that are produced.

c)

DNA is made up of proteins, which tell a cell how to function.

d)

Cells contain DNA, which controls the production of proteins.

64.

What type of organic molecules are enzymes?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

65.

What are the subunits of DNA and their function?

a)

nucleotides that store information

b)

monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell

c)

lipids that store energy and provide insulation

d)

proteins that provide the building blocks for the structural components of

organisms

66.

How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration results in less energy.

b)

Aerobic respiration results in more energy.

c)

Each process results in equal amounts of energy.

d)

Each process results in variable amounts of energy.

67.

A segment of DNA has this sequence: ATA GCA CAT GTA. What is the mRNA sequence transcribed from this segment?

a)

TAT CGT GTA CAT

b)

TAT GCT CTA GAT

c)

UAU CGU GUA CAU

d)

UAU GCU CUA CAU

68.

This chart shows which amino acids are coded for by different combinations of mRNA nucleotides. Which amino acids are coded for by an mRNA segment that reads CAG GUG?

a)

arginine and valine

b)

isoleucine and arginine

c)

glutamine and valine

d)

valine and isoleucine

69.

Which type of molecule do whales use for energy storage and insulation?

a)

DNA

b)

glucose

c)

fat

d)

starch

70.

Which most directly controls the rate at which food is broken down to release energy?

a)

enzymes

b)

hormones

c)

nucleic acids

d)

vitamins

71.

If energy is needed to move materials into or out of a cell, what is most likely occurring?

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

osmosis

d)

diffusion

72.

How does DNA code for proteins in a cell?

a)

by creating a new double helix structure

b)

by using its phosphate and sugar molecules

c)

by adding more hydrogen bonds to its structure

d)

by arranging certain nitrogen bases of the cell in a particular order

73.

Which factor most affects the order of amino acids in a protein?

a)

the DNA located in the nucleus of the cell

b)

the cell in which the protein is located

c)

the amount of ATP available for the cell’s use

d)

the area in a cell where proteins are produced

74.

Which statement best compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Less ATP is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

b)

More water is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

c)

More oxygen is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

d)

Less lactic acid is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

75.

Which would be the best evidence that a cell is using active transport to move a substance across its cell membrane?

a)

Substances are moving rapidly across the cell membrane.

b)

ATP is being rapidly consumed near the cellular membrane.

c)

Substances are moving from high to low concentrations.

d)

Substances are moving through channels in the cell membrane.

76.

Which nitrogen base makes RNA different from DNA?

a)

guanine

b)

uracil

c)

adenine

d)

cytosine

77.

Which may cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction?

a)

an increase in temperature

b)

a decrease in substrate

c)

a change in substrate color

d)

a decrease in enzyme

78.

A green plant cell is making glucose and giving off oxygen. Which process is taking place?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

anaerobic respiration

79.

Which best describes the role of translation in helping cells code for proteins?

a)

The bases in transfer RNA code for the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

b)

The bases in messenger RNA code for the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

c)

The nucleotides in RNA and DNA determine the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

d)

The bases in ribosomal RNA code for the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

80.

Which process uses energy to maintain homeostasis?

a)

active transport

b)

osmosis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

diffusion

81.

What are the main molecules that make up muscle fibers?

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acids

82.

Which causes plants to produce more oxygen on sunny days?

a)

There is more energy for photosynthesis

b)

There is more water available for transpiration.

c)

There is more carbon dioxide for respiration.

d)

There is more chlorophyll for fermentation.

83.

Which substance provides the instructions for producing proteins?

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

H2O

d)

CO2

84.

Which best represents a long-term energy storage molecule in animals?

a)

cellulose

b)

cholesterol

c)

glycogen

d)

starch

85.

Which statement explains how producers are dependent upon consumers for their survival?

a)

Consumers supply oxygen for producers to undergo aerobic respiration.

b)

Consumers produce carbon dioxide for producers to use during photosynthesis.

c)

Consumers provide chemical energy needed by producers for cellular respiration.

d)

Consumers make lactic acid that producers use in photosynthesis.

86.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve the use and release of gases. Which statement correctly identifies the role of gases in the two processes?

a)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

b)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

c)

Cellular respiration uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide, while photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.

d)

Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

87.
What is one of the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
energy
b)
glucose
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
88.
______________ produces the most ATP.
a)
photosnthesis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis
89.
What type of respiration requires oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
90.
The mitochondria is responsible for ...
a)
photosynthesis
b)
anaerobic respiration
c)
aerobic respiration
d)
fermentation
91.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
92.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
93.
Cellular Respiration's goal is to
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
94.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
95.
Where does aerobic respiration occur?
a)
glucose molecule
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
chloroplast
96.
This means that oxygen is needed
a)
anaerobic 
b)
aerobic
97.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
98.
Autotroph or heterotroph?
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
99.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
100.
What gas is released by plants during photosynthesis?
a)
nitrogen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen
d)
hydrogen
101.
Autotroph or heterotroph?
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
102.
Where are the proteins that carry out the light-dependent reactions located? 
a)
thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma
c)
thylakoid space
d)
cytoplasm
103.
Autotroph or heterotroph?
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
104.
The reactants of photosynthesis are
a)
sugar and water.
b)
sugar and oxygen.
c)
carbon dioxide and water.
d)
carbon dioxide and oxygen.
105.
Where does the Calvin Cycle occur?
a)
thylakoid
b)
stroma
c)
lumen
d)
mitochondria
106.
Use the diagram to answer the question. In order the make an ADP molecule, the bonds between ______  must be broken.
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
107.
What supplies the replacement electrons when chlorophyll passes their electrons to the ETC?
a)
oxygen
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
rubisco
108.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO+ light + H2O --> O+ Sugar
b)
CO+ sugar + H2O --> O+ light
c)
O+ light + H2O --> CO+ Sugar
d)
CO+ O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
109.
Why is photosynthesis an important process for life?
a)
it creates oxygen for animals to breathe
b)
it becomes a food source for other organisms
c)
it creates glucose for plants to use as energy
d)
all of these are correct
110.
How do plant leaves get the carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis?
a)
it is absorbed by the roots
b)
it is made during the Calvin cycle
c)
it enters through the stomata in the leaves
d)
it enters through the flowers
111.
Adding a phosphate group to make ATP ______ energy.
a)
stores
b)
releases
112.
ATP and NADPH made during the light-independent reactions 
a)
give electrons to ATP synthase
b)
give electrons to chlorophyll
c)
are used to make sugar in the Calvin cycle
d)
combine with oxygen to make glucose
113.
Chlorophyll absorbs all of these wavelengths of light well EXCEPT
a)
red
b)
blue
c)
violet
d)
green
114.
Plants store their glucose for later as
a)
starch
b)
glycogen
c)
cellulose
115.
Most plants appear green because chlorophyll
a)
absorbs green light.
b)
reflects green light
116.
Electron transport chain proteins using energy from moving electrons to pump ________ into the thylakoid space.
a)
H+ ions
b)
phosphates
c)
glucose
d)
Oxygen atoms
117.
During the light-dependent reactions, the final electron acceptor at the end of the ETC is
a)
NADP+
b)
chlorophyll
c)
ATP synthase
d)
glucose
118.
Place where H+ ions build up during the light-dependent reactions.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
119.
The movement of _____ through ATP synthase produces ATP.
a)
electrons
b)
H+ ions
c)
water
d)
glucose
120.
The oxygen that ends up in glucose comes from 
a)
water
b)
CO2
c)
chlorophyll
d)
ATP
121.
The oxygen atoms released when water splits
a)
are added to glucose during the Calvin cycle
b)
combine and are released to the atmosphere
c)
combine with ATP to make NADPH
d)
move down ETC and are added to NADP+
122.

When we say a process requires oxygen, we call it what?

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Aerobic

c)

Oxyphillic

d)

Oxygenphilia

123.

When we say a process that does not require oxygen, we call it what?

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Aerobic

c)

Oxyphillic

d)

Oxygenphilia

124.

True or False: An anaerobic process is one that does not require oxygen to take place.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

True or False: We call the first phase of cellular respiration glycolysis.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

Which of the following is a reactant of cellular respiration?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Glucose

d)

Glucose and Oxygen

127.

Glycolysis is responsible for breaking glucose down into what?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

2 Pyruvic Acids

128.

True or False: This is the cellular respiration equation:

C6H12O6 + O2 ------> CO2 + H2O

a)

True

b)

False

129.

True or False: Only heterotrophs need to perform cellular respiration.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

During which phase of cellular respiration is the most ATP harvested?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Citric Acid Cycle

131.

Which of the following is NOT a product of cellular respiration?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Energy in the form of ATP

d)

Glucose

132.

Many different chemical reactions occur during cellular respiration. It is a process that requires certain resources to get started and in turn it produces resources when it is finished. With all of that being said, why do organisms want to perform cellular respiration? What is the main purpose?

a)

To make H2O from CO2

b)

To harvest energy from food

c)

To create much needed O2

d)

To create glucose

133.

In each phase of cellular respiration there is a certain amount of chemical energy harvested in the form of ATP. On a perfect day, with everything running at 100% efficiency, how many molecules of ATP can we harvest from 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

38

b)

23

c)

4

d)

2

134.

When an organism is in a low oxygen situation, such as running sprints, cellular respiration ceases and the organism must use a different metabolic pathway for creating energy without oxygen. What do we call this process?

a)

Acidification

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Fermentation

d)

Citric Acid Cycle

135.

During the Krebs cycle, pyruvic acid molecules are broken down to harvest 2 ATPs. What is created and released as a byproduct of that reaction?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

Neither of these

d)

Both of these

136.

Many electrons are excited during the first two phases of cellular respiration. These electrons hitch a ride on special electron carriers and are dropped off at the Electron Transport Chain. These electrons travel down the ETC and eventually get oxidized. Once this happens, O2 gets converted into…

a)

C6H12O6

b)

H2O

c)

CO2

d)

O2

137.

Where do the reactions of cellular respiration occur?

a)

Thylakoid & Stroma

b)

Cytoplasm & Mitochondria

c)

Mitochondria only

d)

None of these

138.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
139.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
140.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
141.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
142.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
143.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
144.

In eukaryotes, which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

145.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
146.
The building block of nucleic acids are nucleotides.  Nucleotides are composed of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a _________________ base.
a)
oxygen
b)
hydrogen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon
147.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
148.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
149.
The drawing shows the structure of what molecule?
a)
A DNA molecule
b)
A lipid molecule
c)
A carbohydrate molecule
d)
A protein molecule
150.
The rules of DNA pairing states that Adenine (A) always pairs up with
a)
Thymine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Adenine
d)
Guanine
151.

What base pairs with guanine?

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

sugar

152.

If a DNA sequence it GAATGCCT, what are the matching base pairs?

a)

ACGTACCTG

b)

AEIOU and sometimes Y

c)

CTTACGGA

d)

GCCTATGC

153.

If a DNA sequence is CATCAT, what are the matching base pairs?

a)

ACGTAC

b)

MEOW

c)

GTAGTA

d)

GCCTAT

154.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
155.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
156.
I am single stranded.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
157.
I am arranged as a double helix or "twisted ladder."
a)
Both DNA and RNA
b)
DNA
c)
RNA
158.
I have the sugar deoxyribose.
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
159.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
160.

Based on the DNA sequences shown, the unknown species is most closely related to ________.

a)

Species I

b)

Species II

c)

Species III

d)

Species IV

161.

The example shown of these 2 mammals incubating their offspring in a pouch provides evidence that they______.

a)

belong to the same species

b)

must range great distances to eat

c)

have very similar skeletal structures

d)

are descended from a common ancestory

162.

Based on the map shown, which organisms are more closely related?

a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 6

c)

7 and 8

d)

2 and 3

163.

Based on the table, which organisms are more closely related?

a)

G. atlantica and G. stehini

b)

G. galloti palmae and G. stehini

c)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. stehini

d)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti palmae

164.

Which beetles are more fit for the environment?

a)

Green beetles

b)

Brown beetles

165.

What is biological fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring.

d)

Being ale to survive long enough to reach adult age.

166.

Based on the cladogram, the chimp will be more closely related to the _________.

a)

Hagfish

b)

Salamander

c)

Lizard

d)

Mouse

167.

Based on the dichotomous key, which organism is purple and has a pointy hump?

a)

Deerus octagis

b)

Deerus humpis

c)

Derus purplinis

d)

Derus deafus

168.

Which two trees are the most closely related?

a)

Taiwan beech and Taiwan catkin yew

b)

Taiwan catkin yew and Lodgepole pine

c)

Lodgepole pine and Japanese maple

d)

Japanese maple and Taiwan beech

169.

Which organisms belong to the kingdom bacteria?

a)

Organisms 1 and 2

b)

Organisms 3 and 4

c)

Organisms 1 and 4

d)

Organisms 2 and 3