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Final Exam Review Physical Science

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A Helium atom is emitted during which type of decay?

a)

Gamma

b)

Fusion

c)

Beta

d)

Alpha

2.

An electron is emitted during what type of decay?

a)

Gamma

b)

Fusion

c)

Beta

d)

Alpha

3.

Which definition best describes radioactivity?

a)

The distance from which the valence electrons reside from the charged nucleus 

b)

The process by which radio waves are received 

c)

The process by which people get superpowers 

d)

The emission of energy from an unstable atom or element

4.

Which definition best describes a half life? 

a)

The time in which it takes for half of a substance to decay 

b)

The time in which it takes for all of a substance to decay 

c)

The time in which it takes for one fourth of a substance to decay 

d)

The time in which it takes to decay 22 percent of a substance

5.

Select the type of decay that is the strongest. (Hint: think about which one needs a lead block in order to stop)

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

d)

Fission

6.

Which type of decay is the weakest? (HINT: these particles can be stopped by your shirt)

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

d)

Fission

7.

Thorium undergoes nuclear decay by the following equation. Complete the equation.

a)
b)
c)
8.

Neptunium undergoes nuclear decay by the following equation. Complete the equation.

a)
b)
c)
9.

Write the equation for the following process:

The alpha decay of Radon-198

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.

A radioactive substance is going through nuclear decay. It has a half life of 22 days. If I start with 250 grams of this substance, how much is left after 88 days?

a)

31.3 g

b)

15.6 g

c)

62.5 g

d)

125 g

11.

Cesium-137 has a half life of 30 years. If I have 10 grams left after 120 years, how many grams did I start with?

a)

320

b)

80

c)

160

d)

40

12.

Based on the Bohr Model shown, where on the periodic table would you most likely find this element?

a)

Group 3

b)

Group 14

c)

Group 1

d)

Group 2

13.

How many valence electrons are present in the Bohr Model shown?

a)

4

b)

12

c)

14

d)

10

14.

If the atom in the Bohr Model shown was neutral, how many protons would it have in its nucleus?

a)

14

b)

10

c)

2

d)

4

15.

Which part of the atom has the most mass?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

neutron

d)

nucleus

16.

Which of the following pictures does NOT accurately represent a noble gas?

a)

b)

c)

d)

17.

Of the following, which is most likely to form an anion?

a)

b)

c)

d)

18.

Which of the following needs to gain only one electron to satisfy the octet rule?

a)

b)

c)

d)

19.

How many electrons will Sodium-23 have if it is neutral?

a)

23

b)

12

c)

11

d)

13

20.

Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope. How many protons does Carbon-14 have?

a)

12

b)

2

c)

6

d)

14

21.

Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are common isotopes of carbon.  What question makes the most sense to ask if you are trying to determine what each atom is made of?

a)

Why are the atomic numbers different?

b)

Why are the masses different?

c)

Why are the ions different?

22.

Most of the periodic table is made of...

a)

gases

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

metals

23.

When looking at the periodic table, what question would be the best to ask to understand its organization?

a)

Why aren’t the elements in alphabetical order?

b)

Why aren’t the elements in evenly distributed rows and columns?

c)

Why are there so many transition metals?

24.

What charge would a halogen like Fluorine have when it forms an ion?

a)

-1

b)

-7

c)

+1

d)

+7

25.

Germanium (Ge) is a lustrous, hard-brittle, grayish-white element in the carbon group.  It is a semiconductor that is stable in air and water.

Is it a.....?

a)

metal

b)

nonmetal

c)

metalloid

26.

Which of the following Lewis Dot Structures would accurately represent lithium?

a)

b)

c)

d)

27.

Based on periodic table trends, where would an element that is a gas probably be located?

a)

the bottom

b)

the right side

c)

no connection can be made

d)

the left side

28.

When looking at the Lewis dot diagrams for elements in the same group, what would be the best question to ask about their connection?

a)

Why can't the electrons be represented by squares?

b)

Why do all elements in the same group have the same amount of valence electrons?

c)

Why don't elements have more than 8 electrons represented?

d)

Why does the element symbol go in the middle?

29.

Which Lewis Dot Diagram accurately represents an alkaline earth metal?

a)

b)

c)

d)

30.

An element is described as being lustrous, malleable, and ductile. It has two valence electrons. When it forms an ion it has a 2+ charge. Which element would this most likely describe?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Fluorine

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

31.

What do the elements N, O, F, Cl, and P have in common? 

a)

They are all in the same period

b)

They are all in the same group

c)

They are all nonmetals

d)

They are all metals

32.

What do the elements F, Cl, Br, and I have in common?

a)

They are all in the same period

b)

They are all solids at room temperature

c)

They are all in the same group

d)

They are all metals

33.

An unknown element is brittle, a gas at room temperature and a poor conductor of heat and electricity. It is also very reactive with other elements. Which of the following would most likely be this element's dot diagram?

a)

b)

c)

d)

34.

 You are experimenting with various elements to try and identify them. You measure their conductivity and realize the element you have is not a good conductor of electricity.  Which one of these would represent the element described?

a)

Metals

b)

Nonmetals

c)

Metalloids

d)

Not enough information is provided

35.

You are trying to identify the metal in a group of elements, so you start with finding the density of each element.  Density is a measure of the amount of matter or compactness of a substance.  The table below is the data you collected. Which element do you think is MOST likely to be a metal?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

36.

Which two families on the periodic table are the MOST reactive?

a)

Alkaline Earth Metals and Rare Earth Metals

b)

Alkali Metals and Halogens

c)

Transition Metals and Noble Gases

d)

Carbon Family and Boron Family

37.

When athletes “carb-load” before exercise or an event, they eat a lot of carb-heavy foods that contain __________ energy. When they exercise or compete, that energy is transformed into _________ energy for motion.

a)

Light; sound

b)

Electromagnetic; nuclear

c)

Chemical; kinetic

d)

Mechanical; chemical

38.

What kind of energy is released through changing the nucleus of an atom through fission or fusion?

a)

Light

b)

Thermal

c)

Chemical

d)

Nuclear

39.

What temperature is the heat of fusion for the substance shown on the heating curve?

a)

50 degrees celsius

b)

100 degrees celsius

c)

-50 degrees celsius

d)

0 degrees celsius

40.

True or False: A substance with a high specific heat will heat up faster than a substance with low specific heat.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The standard unit of energy is:

a)

Velocity

b)

Joule

c)

Mass

d)

Calorie

42.

Specific Heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram (or sometimes one kilogram) of a substance by one degree Celsius. You and your friends decide to go to Panama City Beach, the sand and the ocean both absorb the same amount of sunlight. The sand heats up ________ than the ocean because the ocean’s specific heat is 6 times larger than the sand.

a)

6 times slower

b)

6 times faster

c)

2 times faster

d)

2 times slower

43.

Which of the following allows animals to live in water without being boiled alive?

a)

Water's low specific heat

b)

Water's high specific heat

c)

Water's high specific gravity

d)

Water's nuclear decay

44.

Which of the following is NOT a type of potential energy?

a)

Elastic

b)

Gravitational

c)

Chemical

d)

Radiant

45.

Describe the energy transformation that occurs when fireworks go off.

a)

Solar to electrical

b)

Electrical to light

c)

Chemical to electromagnetic to sound

d)

Solar to chemical

46.

The heating curve of iron is shown below. Describe what is happening between points D and E.

a)

The sample of iron is melting.

b)

The sample of iron is boiling.

c)

The sample of iron is being heated in the solid state.

d)

The sample of iron is being heated in the liquid state.

47.

The sun transfers heat to Earth by which of the following:

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Beta particles

48.

A cinder block sits on a platform that is 20 m high. If it has a mass of 8 kg, find its energy, using one of the formulas listed.

KE = 1/2 * m * v2

PE = m*g*h

a)

160 J

b)

1,568 J

c)

0 J

d)

784 J

49.

A pot of water is boiling on the stove. The pot heats up by heat transferring from the stove to the pot. This is an example of _________________.

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Osmosis

50.

Lauryn serves a volleyball with a mass of 2.1 kg. The ball leaves her hand with a speed of 30 m/s. Find the energy of the ball.

KE = 1/2 * m * v2

PE = m*g*h

a)

31.5 J

b)

1,890 J

c)

945 J

d)

126 J

51.

A boy licks a metal pole in the middle of a very cold winter, and his tongue gets stuck to it. Pick the best scientific explanation of the phenomenon.

a)

The specific heat of the metal pole is very high causing heat to transfer quickly.

b)

The specific heat of the metal pole is very low causing heat to transfer quickly.

c)

The boy’s tongue is a good insulator so heat can be transferred quickly.

d)

The metal pole is a good insulator so heat can be transferred quickly.

52.

Shown is a heating curve for water. What do the blue lines on this graph represent?

a)

Temperature changes

b)

Changes in specific heat

c)

Changes in the amount of water being heated

d)

Phase changes

53.

The amount of energy required to melt one gram of a substance at its melting point is called the _________.

a)

Heat of Vaporization

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Heat of fusion

d)

Heat of solidification

54.

Using the chart shown, you are placing a variety of substances under the sun on a hot day. Which of the following substances would you expect to be the hottest after an hour?

a)

Silver

b)

Copper

c)

Asbestos

d)

Water

55.

Using the chart shown, if you wanted to build a fast-cooking solar oven, would you choose lead, aluminum, wood or concrete?

a)

Lead

b)

Aluminum

c)

Wood

d)

Concrete

56.

If the temperature of 2 kg of lead increases from 25 °C to 35 °C, how much heat has been absorbed by the lead? Use the formula Q=mc∆T to answer this question.

a)

2560 J

b)

2000 J

c)

250 J

d)

250,000 kg

57.

A toaster is plugged into a home outlet of 120 volts. How much current does the toaster draw if the toaster’s resistance is 15 ohms?

a)

0.12 amps

b)

8.0 amps

c)

105 amps

d)

1800 amps

58.

Which term best describes a material that allows electric current to flow freely? Which term best describes a material that blocks the flow of electric current?

a)

Electric Motor; Electromagnet

b)

Electromagnet; Generator

c)

Conductor; Insulator

d)

Insulator; Conductor

59.

To make an electromagnet stronger, you can

a)

Use a wire with a high resistance to wrap around the core

b)

Use an aluminum rod for the core

c)

Use a larger nail for the iron core

d)

Increase the number of coils of wire wrapped around the nail

60.

A person received an electrical shock when reaching for the metal doorknob. The shock was caused by the _________.

a)

Discharge of an imbalance of electrons

b)

A high number of electrons on the doorknob

c)

Highly conductive surface of the doorknob

d)

Low resistance of the person skin

61.

A device that converts electrical current into mechanical energy is a(n)

a)

Generator

b)

Electric Motor

c)

Commutator

d)

Transformer

62.

In a circuit, how do electrons move?

a)

From positive to negative, through a conductor such as a wire.

b)

From negative to positive, through an insulator such as plastic.

c)

From positive to negative, through an insulator such as plastic.

d)

From negative to positive, through a conductor such as wire.

63.

Which claim about current is shown to be mathematically supported from the relationship between voltage, current and resistance?

a)

Claim 3: I=V*R

b)

Claim 2: I=V-R

c)

Claim 1: I=V+R

d)

Claim 4: I=V/R

64.

Many generators create electricity with ___________.

a)

Moving magnets and coils of wire

b)

Energy stored in chemical bonds

c)

Nuclear Isotopes

d)

Motors

65.

 For a current of 2 amperes and a voltage of 12 volts, what is the resistance in ohms? (Use Ohm’s Law to answer this question)

a)

6 ohms

b)

10 ohms

c)

14 ohms

d)

24 ohms

66.

The location of the strongest magnetic forces is the ____.

a)

Magnetic domains

b)

Magnetic poles

c)

Electromagnets

d)

Magnetic fields

67.

Circuit A is wired in _____________, while Circuit B is wired in _______________.

a)

Parallel; Series

b)

Parallel; Parallel

c)

Series; Parallel

d)

Series; Series

68.

When a glass or plastic rod is rubbed with silk, wool, or fur, a static charge is produced because the friction transfers __________.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Molecules

69.

Will the magnets in the picture attract or repel each other?

a)

repel

b)

attract

c)

neither

d)

there is no way to tell

70.

How would increasing the voltage of the battery affect the lightbulb in the circuit in the picture?

a)

There is no way to tell because the lightbulb is independent of the battery’s voltage output

b)

Increasing voltage would not affect the lightbulb at all

c)

Increasing voltage would cause the lightbulb to dim

d)

Increasing voltage would cause the lightbulb to become brighter

71.

What is one drawback of series circuits?

a)

They are prone to overheating and catching on fire.

b)

They require more wire than parallel circuits.

c)

If one bulb goes out, the others may explode from too much power.

d)

If one bulb goes out, all of the bulbs after it will go out as well.

72.

Which of the following opposes the push from voltage?

a)

Resistance

b)

Current

c)

Circuits

d)

Amperes

73.

Current is measured in

a)

Ohms

b)

Voltz

c)

Amps

d)

Watts

74.

What does “induction” mean when referring to charge transfer?

a)

The transfer of electrons through electric fields over a distance.

b)

The transfer of electrons through rubbing objects against one another.

c)

The transfer of electrons through direct contact with another object.

d)

The transfer of electrons through a vacuum.

75.

What is the definition of magnetism?

a)

A charge imbalance that results in the buildup of excess electric charge on an object.

b)

The property of some materials that allows them to give off an attractive or repulsive force.

c)

The sudden flow of electric charge between two charged objects, due to a buildup of static electricity.

d)

The net movement of electric charge in a single direction.

76.

The region around a magnet where the magnetic forces act is the ____.

a)

Magnetic field

b)

Magnetic pole

c)

Electromagnetic domain

d)

Magnetic domain

77.

The highes point of a wave above the line of origin.

a)

Trough

b)

Crest

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

78.

The distance between two consecutive crests.

a)

Wavelength

b)

Medium

c)

Frequency

d)

LIne of Origin

79.

the height of the wave.

a)

Matter

b)

Wavelength

c)

Energy

d)

Amplitude

80.

A wave that moves matter and vibrates our eardrums so we can hear.

a)

Seismic waves

b)

Light waves

c)

Sound waves

d)

Water waves

81.

What type of wave is shown in the picture? (up and down)

a)

Transverse Wave

b)

Longitudinal Wave

82.

What type of wave is shown in the picture?

a)

Transverse Wave

b)

Longitudinal Wave

83.

Transverse waves are made up of.......

a)

Crests and Troughs

b)

Compressions and Rarefactions

84.

Which wave has the largest amplitude?

a)

Green

b)

Blue

c)

Red

85.

The total number of waves produced in one second is called the ________ of the wave.

a)

Vibration

b)

Echo

c)

Frequency

d)

Amplitude

86.

What happens when you increase the amplitude of a sound?

a)

It makes the sound travel faster

b)

It makes the sound louder

c)

It increases the wavelength of the sound

d)

It increases the frequency of the sound

87.

A measure of how high or low a sound is

a)

vibration

b)

sound

c)

pitch

d)

music

88.

The lowest point of a wave below the line of origin

a)

Crest

b)

Frequency

c)

Trough

d)

Valley

89.

The line running through the center of the wave.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Equator

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Middle Line

90.

A disturbance in a medium that transfers energy from place to place.

a)

Science

b)

Solids

c)

Matter

d)

Wave

91.

Waves transfer _________.

a)

Energy

b)

Matter

c)

Candy

d)

Boats

92.

What is A supposed to be?

a)

wavelength

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

amplitude

93.

What is B supposed to be?

a)

wavelength

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

amplitude

94.

What is C supposed to be?

a)

wavelength

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

amplitude

95.

What is D supposed to be?

a)

wavelength

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

amplitude

96.

What is A supposed to be?

a)

short wavelength

b)

long wavelength

c)

high frequency

d)

low frequency

97.

What is B supposed to be?

a)

short wavelength

b)

long wavelength

c)

high frequency

d)

low frequency

98.

What is C supposed to be?

a)

short wavelength

b)

long wavelength

c)

high frequency

d)

low frequency

99.

What is D supposed to be?

a)

short wavelength

b)

long wavelength

c)

high frequency

d)

low frequency

100.

Balance the equation:

CO2 + H2O → C6H12O6 + O2

Answer as _:_:_:_

(a)  

101.

How many atoms of N are present in the following chemical formula? Mg(NO3)2Mg\left(NO_3\right)_2  

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

102.

What is the correct formula created when Calcium and Flourine combine?

a)

CaF

b)

FCa

c)

CaF2CaF_2  

d)

Ca2F2Ca_2F_2  

103.

Al + N2 → AlNAl\ +\ N_2\ \rightarrow\ AlN  

(a)  

104.

How many total atoms are present in the following compound? Ba(NO3)2Ba\left(NO_3\right)_2  

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

9

105.

SiCl4 + H2O → H4SiO4 + HCl

(a)  

106.

Al + HCl → AlCl3 + H2

(a)  

107.

KClO3 → KClO4 + KCl

(a)  

108.

AlBr3AlBr_3   According to the chemical formula shown, how many atoms of Al are present?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

109.

Al2(SO4)3 + Ca(OH)2 → Al(OH)3 + CaSO4

(a)  

110.
A candle wick burning is an example of a _________________________
a)
physical reaction
b)
condensation
c)
neutrons
d)
chemical reaction
111.
In a ___________change, a substance changes into a different substance.
a)
Physical
b)
Chemical
112.

Which of the following IS a physical change?

a)

Getting a haircut

b)

Rusty metal

c)

A compound

d)

sour milk

113.
the starting materials in a chemical reaction
a)
Products
b)
Reactants
c)
Starters
d)
Enders
114.
The substances listed on the right side of a chemical equation are the
a)
Yields
b)
Reactants
c)
Products
d)
Precipitates
115.

The smallest particle of an element; made of electrons, protons, and neutrons

a)

Atoms

b)

Elements

c)

Molecules

d)

Products

116.

The process by which one or more substances change to produce one or more different substances

a)

Chemical Process

b)

Reactant

c)

Chemical Reaction

117.

A chemical reaction or process that releases heat.

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

118.
In the equation,          2Mg + O2 ---> 2MgO, which are the reactants?
a)
Mg and O
b)
MgO
c)
Mg and MgO
d)
O and MgO
119.
In which of these compounds are there twice as many oxygen atoms as hydrogen atoms?
a)
H3PO4
b)
H2SO4
c)
HCIO3
d)
H20
120.
What are Chemical Reactions?
a)
It's when you mix substances.
b)
a process in which atoms rearrange to form new substances
c)
When something bubbles.
d)
letter and numbers showing the types and number of atoms
121.
A different chemical substance is formed when _____.
a)
water boils
b)
metal rusts
c)
ice melts
d)
rock is crushed
122.

Identify the following process: We light a matchstick.

a)

Physical change

b)

Chemical change

123.

Chemicals that help start or speed up a reaction...

a)

Reactants

b)

Products

c)

Catalysts

124.

CH4CH_4  

How many CARBON atoms are in this compound?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

125.

CH4CH_4  

How many HYDROGEN atoms are in this compound?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

126.

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6 CO2+ 6H2OC_6H_{12}O_{6\ }+\ 6O_2\ \rightarrow\ 6\ CO_{2_{ }}+\ 6H_2O  

What type of chemical reaction is this?

a)

Combustion

b)

Double Displacement

c)

Synthesis

127.

6CO2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O26CO_2+\ 6H_2O\ \rightarrow\ C_6H_{12}O_{6\ }+\ 6O_2  

What is a PRODUCT of this reaction?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Glucose

128.

6CO2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O26CO_2+\ 6H_2O\ \rightarrow\ C_6H_{12}O_{6\ }+\ 6O_2  

The carbon atoms are balanced with ____ on each side of the reaction.

a)

1

b)

6

c)

2

129.

Adding chlorine gas to a solution of potassium iodide gives solid iodide and a solution of potassium chloride. This is an example of what kind of chemical reaction?

a)

Combustion

b)

Synthesis

c)

Single Displacement

d)

Double Displacement

130.

a force exerted by an object with mass to

another object with mass. It is also called as gravity.

(a)  

131.

What is force in physics?

a)

A power in star wars

b)

A push or pull on an object

c)

A stop on an object

d)

The start of an object

132.

What can force do to an object?

a)

Accelerate an object

b)

Slow down an object

c)

Have the object remain in place

d)

Have the object change shape

e)

All of the above

133.

What is the measure of force?

a)

Newtons

b)

Light years

c)

Inches

d)

Gallons

134.

What is the unit for FORCE?

a)

N (Newtons)

b)

lbs (pounds)

c)

g (grams)

d)

m/s (meters per second)

135.
If these boys are pulling with the same amount of force.  What will happen?
a)
The boy in blue will win.
b)
They will not move at all.
c)
The boy in red will win.
d)
Both will fall down.
136.
What force holds the planets in motion around the sun?
a)
Magnetic
b)
Electrical
c)
Gravitational
d)
Air Resistance
137.
Jupiter has about 317 times more mass than Earth. What can you infer from this fact? 
a)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much weaker than on Earth’s gravitational force.
b)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much stronger than Earth’s gravitational force.
c)
That Jupiter’s and Earth’s gravitational forces are equal.
d)
Mass has no effect on the gravitational force between two objects
138.
This type of force resist motion between two surfaces that are pressed together
a)
contact
b)
gravity
c)
friction
139.

What type of force was at work in the parachute?

a)

elastic spring force

b)

frictional force (air resistance)

c)

magnetic force

d)

gravitational force

140.
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
141.
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
142.

___________ is an opposing force that makes objects in motion slow down.

a)

force

b)

speed

c)

friction

d)

mass

143.

The girls in this picture represent ________ forces (or 2 objects in equilibrium). 

a)
kinetic
b)
balanced
c)
unbalanced
d)
chemical
144.
What will cause an object to move?
a)
Applied forces
b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
145.
With unbalanced forces, the object will move in the direction of the _______ force.
a)
larger 
b)
smaller 
c)
equal 
146.

Balanced Force

a)

When forces are balanced, there is no change in motion

b)

When two forces act upon each other in opposite directions, and they are both the same size.

c)

Equal in size and opposite in direction

d)

Occurs when objects change in motion and can happen in two different ways.

147.

Which image is an example of a balanced force?

a)

Image 1

(Top Image)

b)

Image 2

(Bottom Image)

148.

Which boy will have an easier time getting down the hill?

a)

Boy A , because he is experiencing less friction than boy B.

b)

Boy B, because he is experiencing more friction than boy A.

149.

How does the mass of an object affect it's motion?

a)

It has no effect

b)

The less the mass the less effect a force will have

c)

The greater the mass the greater the effect a force will have

d)

The greater the mass the less effect a force will have

150.

Why do elements bond?

a)

To be friends

b)

To create a new element

c)

To become stable

d)

To get bigger

151.
What is a valence electron?
a)
The sum of neutrons and protons.
b)
The # of electrons in the last shell.
c)
A type of bond.
d)
A popular compound.
152.

Which of these is not a real bond in chemistry?

a)

James

b)

Ionic

c)

Covalent

d)

Metallic

153.
Ionic bonds are between...
a)
nonmetals and nonmetals
b)
carbon and oxygen
c)
metals and nonmentals
d)
hydrogen and chlorine
154.
Covalent bonds are between...
a)
two or more nonmetals
b)
sodium and chlorine
c)
metals and metals
d)
metals and nonmetals
155.
What is the name for an ion with a positive charge?
a)
cation
b)
anion
c)
onion
d)
union
156.
What is the name for an ion with a negative charge?
a)
cation
b)
anion
c)
onion
d)
union
157.
What kind of bond forms when atoms exchange electrons?
a)
ionic
b)
covalent
c)
artificial
d)
univalent
158.
If an atom loses two electrons what charge will it have?
a)
-2
b)
-1
c)
+1
d)
+2
159.
If an atom gains two electrons what charge will it have?
a)
-2
b)
-1
c)
+1
d)
+2
160.

Which of the following describes covalent bonds?

a)

Bonds form because of opposite charges

b)

electrons are shared to fill outer electron shells

c)

Electrons are transferred between atoms

d)

Covalent bonds are magical

161.

The octet rules states that most elements want to have _____ valence electrons.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

162.
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
a)
the attraction of neutral metal atoms.
b)
the attraction between protons and neutrons.
c)
the attraction between positive metal ions and interlocking electrons.
d)
the attraction between positive metal ions and free floating electrons.
163.
Predict the bond that will form between Be and F.
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
164.
Predict the bond that will form between Se and Cl.
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
165.
Predict the bond that will form between Sr and S.
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
166.

Chemical bond is ...

a)

the physical mixing of two different atoms.

b)

the force that holds two atoms together

c)

the energy used up when two atoms combined.

d)

the temperature that changes the phase of matter.

167.

Which of the following atoms is most likely to bond with another atom?

a)
b)
c)
d)
168.

How many valence electrons does Oxygen (O) have?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

15

d)

16

169.

Which statement best describes the relationship between atoms & molecules.

a)

molecules are made of atoms that are chemically bonded together.

b)

atoms are made of molecules that are chemically bonded together.

c)

molecules are made of a mixture of atoms and compounds.

d)

atoms are made of protons, neutrons & electrons.

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