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Biology 1 Study guide

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How would you define 2n

a)

steroid

b)

diploid

c)

pyrethroid

d)

haploid

2.

How would you define n

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

steroid

d)

paraboloid

3.

What parts make up mitosis

a)

Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis.

b)

 Interphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis.

c)

 Interphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase,

d)

 Interphase, Metaphase, diplophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis.

4.

What does number 3 represent

a)

Chromatin

b)

Centromere

c)

Centriole

d)

chromosome

5.
The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
None of the above
6.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
7.
The structure labeled A is a(n)
a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
8.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
9.

Each chromosome contains two identical _____.

a)

chromotids

b)

chromosomes

c)

first

d)

meiosis

e)

second

10.

Which of the following is considered DNA in its normal, non dividing state, sometimes looks like spaghetti?

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromatids

c)

Centromere

d)

Chromosome

e)

Centriole

11.

DNA that has been wound up into a tight pattern. Seen during Cell division.

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromosome

c)

Centormere

d)

Centriole

12.

The centromere is in the center of a chromosome.

a)

true

b)

false

13.
What is a series of events a cell goes through as they grow and divide?
a)
Cell Division
b)
Cell Cycle
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Mitosis
14.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
15.
During what stage does the G1, S and G2 phases happen?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
16.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
17.
During what phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
S phase
d)
G2 phase
18.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
19.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
Cytokinesis
20.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for mitosis?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
21.
How many stages are in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
22.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
23.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
24.
Put the following in order: G2, G1, S, mitosis, cytokinesis. 
a)
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
c)
G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
d)
G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
25.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
26.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
27.

What is this cell undergoing? (2n=14)

a)

Prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

28.

What is this cell undergoing

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

29.

What is this cell undergoing?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

telephase

30.

What is this cell undergoing

a)

telophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

31.

Chromosomes cannot condense during the cell cycle. In what part of the cell cycle will the cell be found in?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

32.

In which phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes pull apart?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

33.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

34.
The cell cycle is ______________.
a)
the process of cells circling throughout the body
b)
the process of splitting the organelles
c)
a process where one cell gets energy
d)
the sequence of stages of growth and division that a cell undergoes
35.
Replication is when __________.
a)
the cell makes a copy of its DNA in nucleus 
b)
the cell forms 2 identical cells
c)
the cell produces 2 sets of organelles
d)
the cell continues to complete the same function
36.

The following describes ________ during mitosis. The chromosomes line up along the center of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome at the centromere.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

37.
The following describes __________ during mitosis. The chromatin condenses and spindle fibers form at each side of the cell. The nuclear membrane breaks apart.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
38.

When the CYTOPLASM splits in two at the very end of Mitosis...

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

39.

If there are 20 chromosomes in the nucleus before mitosis, how many will there be in each new daughter cell after cytokinesis?

a)

20

b)

10

c)

40

d)

200

40.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here where 2 new nuclei have formed?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

41.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

42.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

43.

During what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the middle?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

44.

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

45.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
46.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
47.
Identify the phase of mitosis.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
48.

How many chromosomes are normally found in human body cells?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

26

d)

44

49.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
50.

A mutation that causes a cell not to be able to go through S phase of the cell cycle occurs. What would happen to the chromosome number of the daughter cells if they were able to go through mitosis without first going through S phase?

a)

The chromosome number of the daughter cell would be that same as the parent cells

b)

The chromosome number of the daughter cell would be double that of the parent cells

c)

The chromosome number of the daughter cell would be half that of the parent cells.

d)

The chromosome number of the daughter cell would be two-thirds of the parent cells

51.

A viral core may contain either DNA or RNA. To identify which nucleic acid [DNA or RNA] is present, a biochemist could analyze the virus for the presence of:

a)

phosphate groups.

b)

ribose sugar.

c)

adenine.

d)

cytosine.

52.

Based on the cell micrograph [picture], which phase of mitosis would be next to occur?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

53.

The nuclear envelope begins to disappear during mitosis:

a)

in prophase.

b)

in cytokinesis.

c)

in metaphase.

d)

in telophase.

54.

 What must a cell do before it can carry out mitosis?

a)

Duplicate its centromeres.

b)

Replicate its DNA.

c)

Undergo cytokinesis.

d)

Separate chromatin fibers.

55.

At the end of telophase of mitosis how many chromosomes must there be as compared to the beginning of mitosis?

a)

double

b)

triple

c)

same

d)

/2

56.

The fusion of egg and sperm cells will make a haploid zygote. Answer and explain if false.

a)

True

b)

False The fusion of egg and sperm cells will make a diploid zygote because both the egg and sperm cells are haploid, and their fusion results in a diploid combination of chromosomes.

57.

What phase of meiosis is labeled G?

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

58.

What phase of meiosis is labeled F?

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

59.

What phase of meiosis is labeled E?

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

60.

What phase of meiosis is labeled D? (This is the 1st phase of Meiosis II)

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

61.

What is the last phase of the 1st division of meiosis? This is the stage where the cell membrane pinches in and two cells start to form from the one original cell.

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

62.

What phase of meiosis is labeled A?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

63.

What phase of meiosis is labeled B?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

64.

What phase of meiosis is labeled C?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

65.

In which phase of meiosis does crossing-over occur?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

66.

In which phase of meiosis are sister chromatids or chromosomes lining up at the equator?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Telophase I

67.

In which phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes being pulled to the poles?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

68.

In which phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes lining up at the equator?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

69.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes are segregated at opposite poles, one group on each side of the cell. Each chromosome consists of two chromatids. (sister chromatids) Cytokinesis begins, forming two daughter cells.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

70.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Homologous chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite sides of the cell by spindle fibers. The sister chromatids of each chromosome remain attached.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

71.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes are pulled by spindle fibers to the mid-line of the cell. Each chromosome is paired with its homologue.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

72.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes are condensed, such that they are visible in the cell. Synapsis (crossing over) occurs; homologous chromosomes pair up. The nuclear membrane dissolves.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

73.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes become attached to spindle fibers. Each cell contains one chromosome(sister chromatid) of each type; there are no homologous pairs. 1st phase of Meiosis II

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

74.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Spindle fibers align the chromosomes (sister chromatids) at the mid-line, or equator, of the cell. The chromosomes are not in pairs.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Prophase II

75.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

By the end of meiosis, 4 haploid cells are formed. Each cell has a unique genetic make-up. A nucleus surrounds each set of chromosomes, and the cell carries out normal metabolic activities.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Prophase II

76.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromatids (sister chromatids) of the chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite sides of the cell by spindle fibers.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Prophase II

77.

In which phase of meiosis are sister chromatids or chromosomes lining up at the equator?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Telophase I

78.

In which phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes being pulled to the poles?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

79.

In which phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes lining up at the equator?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

e)

Telophase I

80.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes are segregated at opposite poles, one group on each side of the cell. Each chromosome consists of two chromatids. (sister chromatids) Cytokinesis begins, forming two daughter cells.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

81.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes are pulled by spindle fibers to the mid-line of the cell. Each chromosome is paired with its homologue.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

82.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes are condensed, such that they are visible in the cell. Synapsis (crossing over) occurs; homologous chromosomes pair up. The nuclear membrane dissolves.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

83.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromosomes become attached to spindle fibers. Each cell contains one chromosome(sister chromatid) of each type; there are no homologous pairs. 1st phase of Meiosis II

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

84.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Spindle fibers align the chromosomes (sister chromatids) at the mid-line, or equator, of the cell. The chromosomes are not in pairs.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Prophase II

85.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

By the end of meiosis, 4 haploid cells are formed. Each cell has a unique genetic make-up. A nucleus surrounds each set of chromosomes, and the cell carries out normal metabolic activities.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Prophase II

86.

In what phase of meiosis does the following occur?

Chromatids (sister chromatids) of the chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite sides of the cell by spindle fibers.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Prophase II

87.

What does helicase do?

a)

Unwinds the double-stranded DNA helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between the nucleotide base pairs, allowing replication to proceed.

b)

Relieves the tension ahead of the replication fork by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands, preventing supercoiling.

c)

Synthesizes short RNA primers that provide a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase

d)

Main enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during replication.

88.

What is Topoisomerase function

a)

Synthesizes short RNA primers that provide a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase.

b)

Removes RNA primers and fills the resulting gaps with DNA nucleotides, repairing any mismatches in the process.

c)

Main enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during replication.

d)

Relieves the tension ahead of the replication fork by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands, preventing supercoiling.

89.

What is primase function

a)

Removes RNA primers and fills the resulting gaps with DNA nucleotides, repairing any mismatches in the process.

b)

Synthesizes short RNA primers that provide a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase.

c)

Main enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during replication.

d)

Joins the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds, creating a continuous DNA strand.

90.

What is DNA Polymerase function

a)

Main enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during replication.

b)

Joins the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds, creating a continuous DNA strand.

c)

Removes RNA primers and fills the resulting gaps with DNA nucleotides, repairing any mismatches in the process.

d)

Unwinds the double-stranded DNA helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between the nucleotide base pairs, allowing replication to proceed.

91.

What is DNA POlymerase I function

a)

Main enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during replication.

b)

Joins the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds, creating a continuous DNA strand.

c)

Removes RNA primers and fills the resulting gaps with DNA nucleotides, repairing any mismatches in the process.

d)

Topoisomerase: Relieves the tension ahead of the replication fork by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands, preventing supercoiling.

92.

What is ligase function

a)

Unwinds the double-stranded DNA helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between the nucleotide base pairs, allowing replication to proceed.

b)

Main enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during replication.

c)

Synthesizes short RNA primers that provide a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase.

d)

Joins the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds, creating a continuous DNA strand.

93.

Compare and contrast the amount of DNA present in a cell before replication and after replication.

a)

Before replication, there is a single copy of DNA in the cell, while after replication, there are two identical copies of DNA.

b)

After replication, there is a single copy of DNA in the cell, while before replication, there are two identical copies of DNA.

c)

Before replication, there is a double copy of DNA in the cell, while after replication, there is a singular copy of DNA.

94.

Understand and apply Chargaff’s Rules (A-T and C-G) - the base pairing rules that dictate how DNA Polymerase works and adds new nucleotides.

a)

Chargaff's Rules: A-T and C-G base pairing rules ensure supplementary base pairing between DNA strands, guiding DNA polymerase during replication to add the correct nucleotides.

b)

Chargaff's Rules: A-T and C-G base pairing rules ensure complementary base pairing between DNA strands, guiding DNA polymerase during replication to add the correct nucleotides.

95.

Explain the significance of one strand being the “leading strand” and the other being the “lagging strand.”

a)

The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments called Okazaki fragments, which are later joined together by DNA ligase.

b)

The lagging strand is synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction, while the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments called Okazaki fragments, which are later joined together by DNA ligase.

96.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
97.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
98.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
99.
If B = brown hair and b = blonde hair, what is the probability of brown hair?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
75%
100.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
101.
If B = brown hair and b = blonde hair, what is the probability of brown hair?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
75%
102.
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). If a rabbit has brown fur, what can you conclude about its genotype?
a)
It is BB.
b)
It is Bb
c)
It is brown
d)
It is bb.
103.
A ________________________ is used to predict the possible genotype from certain parents
a)
Mendel Grid
b)
Genetic Tic Tac Toe
c)
Punnett Square
d)
Pedigree Plot
104.
What is the phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair) 
a)
50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair 
b)
25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair 
c)
75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair 
d)
0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair 
105.
What percent of offspring will have the recessive trait?
a)
25
b)
50
c)
75
d)
100
106.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
107.
What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
100%
108.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
A
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
aa
109.
What is the probability of homozygous dominant offspring?
a)
0%
b)
100%
c)
50%
d)
25%
110.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
111.
What ratio of the offspring from the cross shown will be homozygous recessive for the  trait of tallness? 
a)
0 in 4
b)
1 in 4
c)
2 in 4
d)
4 in 4
112.

Identify and explain how the enzyme responsible for transcription works.

a)

Enzyme responsible for transcription: RNA polymerase binds to the DNA template strand and synthesizes a complementary mRNA strand by adding RNA nucleotides.

b)

hdhdh

113.

Explain how the process of transcription begins at a specific spot on the DNA strand.

a)

Transcription begins at a specific spot on the DNA strand called the promoter region, which is recognized by the RNA polymerase and associated transcription factors.

b)

Transcription begins at a specific spot in the RNA strand called the promoter region, which is recognized by the DNA polymerase I and associated transcription factors.

114.

Understand how base pairing rules apply when synthesizing mRNA strands.

a)

The base pairing rules (A-U and C-G) are followed during transcription, with RNA polymerase adding RNA nucleotides that are complementary to the template DNA strand.

b)

j

115.

Explain how the RNA Polymerase “knows” when to stop transcribing a gene.

a)

DNA polymerase recognizes specific termination signals on the DNA template strand, causing it to detach and release the newly synthesized mRNA molecules

b)

RNA polymerase recognizes specific termination signals on the DNA template strand, causing it to detach and release the newly synthesized mRNA molecule.

c)

DNA polymerase recognizes specific termination signals on the RNA template strand, causing it to detach and release the newly synthesized mRNA molecule

d)

RNA polymerase recognizes specific termination signals on the RNA template strand, causing it to detach and release the newly synthesized mDNA molecule.

116.

Identify three modifications that are done to the mRNA after the process of transcription ends.

a)

addition of a 5' cap (a modified guanine nucleotide) for stability and ribosome recognition

b)

addition of a poly-A tail (a string of adenine nucleotides) for mRNA stability and export

c)

removal of non-coding introns through RNA splicing to produce a mature mRNA transcript.

d)

removal of poly-b tail(a string of adenine nucleotides) for mRNA stability and export.

117.

Identify the organelle responsible for the production of amino acid sequences.

a)

Ribosomes

b)

mitochondria

c)

rough er

d)

smooth er

118.

silent mutation

a)

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, resulting in the premature termination of protein synthesis.

b)

A mutation that does not result in a change in the amino acid sequence due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.

c)

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, leading to the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein sequence.

119.

missense mutation

a)

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, resulting in the premature termination of protein synthesis.

b)

 A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, leading to the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein sequence.

c)

A mutation that does not result in a change in the amino acid sequence due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.

120.

nonsense mutation

a)

A mutation that does not result in a change in the amino acid sequence due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.

b)

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, leading to the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein sequence.

c)

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, resulting in the premature termination of protein synthesis.

121.

fossils

a)

Preserved remains or traces of ancient organisms that provide evidence of past life forms and evolutionary processes.

b)

Study of similarities and differences in early      developmental stages among different species to understand evolutionary relationships.

c)

 Comparison of anatomical structures in different organisms to reveal common ancestry and functional adaptations.

d)

Study of biological processes at the molecular level, focusing on DNA, RNA, proteins, and their interactions to understand genetics and evolution.

e)

Study of species distribution patterns and their relationship to geography and environmental factors, providing insights into evolutionary history and ecological processes

122.

comparitive embryology

a)

Preserved remains or traces of ancient organisms that provide evidence of past life forms and evolutionary processes.

b)

Study of similarities and differences in early      developmental stages among different species to understand evolutionary relationships.

c)

 Comparison of anatomical structures in different organisms to reveal common ancestry and functional adaptations.

d)

Study of biological processes at the molecular level, focusing on DNA, RNA, proteins, and their interactions to understand genetics and evolution.

e)

Study of species distribution patterns and their relationship to geography and environmental factors, providing insights into evolutionary history and ecological processes

123.

comparitive anatomy

a)

Preserved remains or traces of ancient organisms that provide evidence of past life forms and evolutionary processes.

b)

Study of similarities and differences in early      developmental stages among different species to understand evolutionary relationships.

c)

 Comparison of anatomical structures in different organisms to reveal common ancestry and functional adaptations.

d)

Study of biological processes at the molecular level, focusing on DNA, RNA, proteins, and their interactions to understand genetics and evolution.

e)

Study of species distribution patterns and their relationship to geography and environmental factors, providing insights into evolutionary history and ecological processes

124.

molecular biology

a)

Preserved remains or traces of ancient organisms that provide evidence of past life forms and evolutionary processes.

b)

Study of similarities and differences in early      developmental stages among different species to understand evolutionary relationships.

c)

 Comparison of anatomical structures in different organisms to reveal common ancestry and functional adaptations.

d)

Study of biological processes at the molecular level, focusing on DNA, RNA, proteins, and their interactions to understand genetics and evolution.

e)

Study of species distribution patterns and their relationship to geography and environmental factors, providing insights into evolutionary history and ecological processes

125.

biogeography

a)

Preserved remains or traces of ancient organisms that provide evidence of past life forms and evolutionary processes.

b)

Study of similarities and differences in early      developmental stages among different species to understand evolutionary relationships.

c)

 Comparison of anatomical structures in different organisms to reveal common ancestry and functional adaptations.

d)

Study of biological processes at the molecular level, focusing on DNA, RNA, proteins, and their interactions to understand genetics and evolution.

e)

Study of species distribution patterns and their relationship to geography and environmental factors, providing insights into evolutionary history and ecological processes

126.

stabilizing

a)

Favors individuals with extreme traits at both ends of the spectrum, leading to the divergence of a population into two or more distinct phenotypes; for example, the selection for both large and small beak sizes in a bird population with different food sources.

b)

Favors individuals with traits at one extreme end of the spectrum, leading to a shift in the average phenotype over time; for example, the selection for darker moth coloration in industrial areas with increased pollution.

c)

Favors individuals with intermediate traits, reducing variation in a population; for example, the selection against extremely large or small birth weights in human babies.

127.

disruptive

a)

Favors individuals with extreme traits at both ends of the spectrum, leading to the divergence of a population into two or more distinct phenotypes; for example, the selection for both large and small beak sizes in a bird population with different food sources.

b)

Favors individuals with traits at one extreme end of the spectrum, leading to a shift in the average phenotype over time; for example, the selection for darker moth coloration in industrial areas with increased pollution.

c)

Favors individuals with intermediate traits, reducing variation in a population; for example, the selection against extremely large or small birth weights in human babies.

128.

directional

a)

Favors individuals with extreme traits at both ends of the spectrum, leading to the divergence of a population into two or more distinct phenotypes; for example, the selection for both large and small beak sizes in a bird population with different food sources.

b)

Favors individuals with traits at one extreme end of the spectrum, leading to a shift in the average phenotype over time; for example, the selection for darker moth coloration in industrial areas with increased pollution.

c)

Favors individuals with intermediate traits, reducing variation in a population; for example, the selection against extremely large or small birth weights in human babies.

129.

biotic factors

a)

Refers to living components of an ecosystem, such as plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms.

b)

 Refers to non-living components of an ecosystem, such as temperature, sunlight, soil composition, and water availability.

130.

abiotic factors

a)

Refers to living components of an ecosystem, such as plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms.

b)

 Refers to non-living components of an ecosystem, such as temperature, sunlight, soil composition, and water availability.

131.

ecosystem ecology

a)

Studies the interactions between living organisms and their physical environment, including energy flow and nutrient cycling.

b)

Focuses on the study of individual organisms and their adaptations to the environment.

c)

Examines the dynamics of populations, including population size, density, and interactions between individuals of the same species.

d)

Explores the interactions among different species within a given area or community.

132.

community ecology

a)

Studies the interactions between living organisms and their physical environment, including energy flow and nutrient cycling.

b)

Focuses on the study of individual organisms and their adaptations to the environment.

c)

Examines the dynamics of populations, including population size, density, and interactions between individuals of the same species.

d)

Explores the interactions among different species within a given area or community.

133.

population ecology

a)

Studies the interactions between living organisms and their physical environment, including energy flow and nutrient cycling.

b)

Focuses on the study of individual organisms and their adaptations to the environment.

c)

Examines the dynamics of populations, including population size, density, and interactions between individuals of the same species.

d)

Explores the interactions among different species within a given area or community.

134.

organismal ecology

a)

Studies the interactions between living organisms and their physical environment, including energy flow and nutrient cycling.

b)

Focuses on the study of individual organisms and their adaptations to the environment.

c)

Examines the dynamics of populations, including population size, density, and interactions between individuals of the same species.

d)

Explores the interactions among different species within a given area or community.

135.

temp biome

a)

exhibit different levels of precipitation, such as the heavy rainfall in tropical rainforests and the low rainfall in deserts.

b)

vary in temperature, from the freezing temperatures of tundra to the scorching heat of deserts

c)

differ in their biodiversity, with rainforests being highly diverse while deserts have lower biodiversity.

136.

biodiversity biome

a)

exhibit different levels of precipitation, such as the heavy rainfall in tropical rainforests and the low rainfall in deserts.

b)

vary in temperature, from the freezing temperatures of tundra to the scorching heat of deserts

c)

differ in their biodiversity, with rainforests being highly diverse while deserts have lower biodiversity.

137.

preditation

a)

A lion hunting and consuming a zebra.

b)

A rabbit feeding on grass in a meadow.

c)

Two bird species competing for limited nesting sites in a forest.

d)

Bees and flowers benefiting from the exchange of nectar and pollen.

e)

Barnacles attaching to a whale's skin and benefitting from the movement and resources provided by the host.

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