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BIO 252L Cumulative Exam Review: Labs 1-4

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The medial malleolus is ___ to the acetabulum of the hip.

a)

proximal

b)

distal

c)

ventral

d)

posterior

2.

What is the anatomical name for the armpit region?

a)

brachial

b)

pectoral

c)

axillary

d)

scapular

3.

What is the name for the most superficial meninge?

a)

dura mater

b)

pia mater

c)

arachnoid mater

d)

subarachnoid space

4.

Where does the cerebrospinal fluid exist?

a)

epidural space

b)

subdural space

c)

supra-arachnoid space

d)

subarachnoid space

5.

What structures provide stability for the spinal cord?

a)

conus medullaris

b)

denticulate ligaments

c)

cauda equina

d)

dorsal root ganglia

6.

What are the denticulate ligaments made of?

a)

pia mater

b)

subarachnoid mater

c)

dura mater

d)

fibrocartilage

7.

What structure bisects the anterior aspect of white matter in the spinal cord?

a)

ventral rami

b)

posterior median sulcus

c)

ventral horn

d)

anterior median fissure

8.

The spinothalamic tract carries information from the cerebral cortex to motor neurons.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

The most posterior region of grey matter in the spinal cord is for which functional designation?

a)

somatic sensory

b)

visceral sensory

c)

visceral motor

d)

somatic motor

10.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there in the cervical spine?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

12

11.

What is the name for the segmental sensory patterns of skin?

a)

myotome

b)

dermatome

c)

central pattern generator

d)

reflex

12.

The T2 spinal nerve exits the spinal cord inferior to the T2 vertebra.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

What peripheral structures does the sympathetic chain connect to?

a)

peripheral musculature

b)

skin

c)

visceral organs

d)

the brain

14.

Spinal nerve plexuses (ie: cervical, brachial, lumbosacral) are formed from what nerve structures?

a)

dorsal rami

b)

ventral rami

c)

intercostal nerves

d)

sympathetic chain

15.

During the withdrawal reflex, your brain consciously removes your hand away from a hot stove.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

An example of a monosynaptic reflex is the patellar (knee-jerk) reflex.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

In a descending pathway, the synapse to the motor neuron occurs in which structure?

a)

dorsal horn

b)

dorsal root ganglion

c)

ventral horn

d)

medulla oblongata

18.

The corticospinal tract decussates in which structure?

a)

in the gray matter of the corresponding spinal segment

b)

medulla oblongata

c)

thalamus

d)

corpus callosum

19.

What structures in the spinal cord have been identified experimentally to assist with locomotion?

(a)  

20.

What structures produce cerebrospinal fluid?

(a)  

21.

What passageway must CSF travel to reach the 3rd ventricle from the lateral ventricles?

(a)  

22.

What absorbs CSF to help it drain into the dural sinuses?

(a)  

23.

What brain structures sandwich the 4th ventricle?

a)

thalamus

b)

pons & medulla oblongata

c)

pons & cerebellum

d)

cerebral cortex

24.

Projection tracts connect higher and lower regions of the central nervous system.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

25.

What structure separates the right and left hemispheres?

a)

longitudinal fissure

b)

central sulcus

c)

squamous suture

d)

lateral sulcus

26.

Where can you find the primary motor cortex?

a)

medulla oblongata

b)

thalamus

c)

precentral gyrus

d)

postcentral gyrus

27.

Where is taste processed in the brain?

a)

parietal & temporal lobes

b)

temporal & insular lobes

c)

frontal & temporal lobes

d)

parietal & insular lobes

28.

What brain structure is involved with memory, decision-making, and emotional responses? 

a)

hippocampus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

amygdala

d)

pineal gland

29.

What brain structure allows the right side of your body to know what the left side is doing?

a)

inferior colliculi

b)

internal capsule

c)

thalamus

d)

corpus callosum

30.

If a person is observed to make many false, faltering attempts at stepping before walking, which region of the brain may be affected?

a)

medulla oblongata

b)

basal ganglia

c)

precentral gyrus

d)

thalamus

31.

Which brain structure helps you fall asleep?

a)

pituitary gland

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pineal gland

d)

nothing - I don't sleep

32.

Which brain structure produces hormones for many other body systems (ie: thyroid, adrenal cortex, liver, and reproductive organs)?

a)

pituitary gland

b)

hypothalamus

c)

thalamus

d)

hippocampus

33.

What type of tracts are found in the cerebral peduncles?

a)

association tracts

b)

commissural tracts

c)

projection tracts

d)

internal capsule

34.

What part of your brainstem helps with processing the "startle reflex" from hearing a sudden, loud sound?

a)

inferior colliculi

b)

superior colliculi

c)

thalamus

d)

temporal lobe

35.

What can be found in a mid-sagittal cut of a cerebellum?

a)

arbor vitae

b)

vermis

c)

superior cerebellar peduncle

d)

inferior cerebellar peduncle

36.

What brain structure causes you to not be aware of your clothes on your skin all the time?

a)

amygdala

b)

hypothalamus

c)

cerebral peduncles

d)

reticular formation

37.

What is the name for cranial nerve 6?

a)

trochlear

b)

trigeminal

c)

abducens

d)

facial

38.

What is the name for cranial nerve 10?

a)

glossopharyngeal

b)

vagus

c)

spinal accessory

d)

hypoglossal

39.

Which cranial nerve activates your zygomaticus major? (select the correct name AND number)

a)

trigeminal (CN 4)

b)

trigeminal (CN 5)

c)

facial (CN 6)

d)

facial (CN 7)

40.

Which cranial nerve helps you turn your head? (select the correct name AND number)

a)

trigeminal (CN 5)

b)

facial (CN 7)

c)

vagus (CN 10)

d)

spinal accessory (CN 11)

41.

Which of the following does NOT activate muscles that move your eyes?

a)

optic (CN 2)

b)

oculomotor (CN 3)

c)

trochlear (CN 4)

d)

abducens (CN 6)

42.

Which cranial nerve (at least partially) decussates?

a)

optic (CN 2)

b)

oculomotor (CN 3)

c)

vestibulocochlear (CN 8)

d)

vagus (CN 10)

43.

The facial nerve activates all the muscles found on your face.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Which of the following carries sensory and motor function?

a)

optic (CN 2)

b)

trochlear (CN 4)

c)

trigeminal (CN 5)

d)

hypoglossal (CN 12)

45.

Where is red bone marrow found?

a)

spongy bone of the axial skeleton

b)

spongy bone of the distal appendicular skeleton

c)

epiphyses

d)

periosteum

46.

What remains open in children to allow them to grow taller?

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

epiphyseal plate

d)

hyaline cartilage

47.

What is NOT another name for a hole in a bone?

a)

meatus

b)

fissure

c)

fossa

d)

foramen

48.

The joint formed at the pubic symphysis is a form of an osseous joint.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

49.

What kind of synovial joint describes the carpal and tarsal bones?

a)

condyloid

b)

saddle

c)

hinge

d)

plane

50.

What kind of synovial joint describes the joint formed with the talus and the tibia?

a)

saddle

b)

condyloid

c)

hinge

d)

pivot

51.

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

(a)  

52.

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

(a)  

53.

The pedicle is ___ to the lamina of a spinal vertebra.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

superficial

d)

deep

54.

The dens (odontoid process) allows for someone to shake their head "no".

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

55.

What of the following structures do ribs connect to (select ALL that apply)?

a)

costal cartilage

b)

transverse costal facets

c)

lamina

d)

superior & inferior costal facets

56.

What structures fuse to form the median sacral crest of the sacrum?

a)

spinous processes

b)

transverse processes

c)

laminas

d)

vertebral bodies

57.

The manubrium connects with the clavicle.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

58.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

all false ribs are floating ribs

b)

all floating ribs are false ribs

c)

only true ribs are floating ribs

d)

all ribs are true ribs

59.

The connection of the atlas on the occiput is an example of what type of synovial joint?

a)

condyloid

b)

saddle

c)

pivot

d)

hinge

60.

The squamous suture is between ___ and ___ bones of the skull.

a)

parietal, temporal

b)

frontal, parietal

c)

parietal, occipital

d)

frontal, temporal

61.

Which of the following bones of the skull do not form the orbit?

a)

maxilla

b)

zygomatic

c)

temporal

d)

ethmoid

62.

Which bone forms the posterior aspect of the roof of the mouth?

(a)  

63.

What warms air as it enters the nose?

a)

external nares

b)

internal nares

c)

nasal conchae

d)

nasal choana

64.

Which of the nasal concha are formed by the ethmoid bone? (select ALL that apply)

a)

inferior

b)

middle

c)

superior

65.

What structure passes through the superior orbital fissure? (select ALL that apply)

a)

CN 2

b)

CN 3

c)

CN 4

d)

CN 5

e)

CN 6

66.

The cribiform plate (formed by the ___ bone) allows for the passage of CN1

from the nasal cavity to the olfactory bulbs.

a)

ethmoid

b)

sphenoid

c)

maxilla

d)

temporal

67.

Which of the following does not house a rotator cuff muscle?

a)

subscapular foss

b)

glenoid cavity

c)

supraspinous fossa

d)

infraspinous fossa

68.

The acromion process attaches to what bony projection?

a)

coracoid process

b)

coronoid process

c)

clavicle

d)

subscapular fossa

69.

Where is the growth plate of the humerus?

a)

anatomical neck

b)

surgical neck

c)

intertubercular groove

d)

greater tubercle

70.

What connects with the radius at the elbow?

a)

trochlea

b)

capitulum

71.

The extensors of the forearm attach to what structure?

a)

olecranon process

b)

coronoid process

c)

medial epicondyle

d)

lateral epicondyle

72.

The head of the radius is nested in the ___ of the ___ [bone].

a)

ulnar notch, ulna

b)

radial notch, radius

c)

ulnar notch, radius

d)

radial notch, ulna

73.

What is NOT in the proximal row of carpal bones?

a)

trapezium

b)

triquetrum

c)

lunate

d)

scaphoid

74.

How many phalanges are found total in digits 1-3?

(a)  

75.

What bony structure on the pelvis can assist with identifying biological male vs female?

a)

sacrum

b)

subpubic angle

c)

greater sciatic notch

d)

iliac fossa

76.

The primary movement of the shoulders and hips when going from

the anatomical position to the jumping jack position is what?

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

adduction

d)

abduction

77.

What is the anatomical term for the ankle joint?

(a)  

78.

Where is the axis of the foot in regards to movement in the frontal plane?

a)

digit 1

b)

digit 2

c)

digit 3

d)

between digits 3-4

79.

What is the anatomical name for the big toe?

(a)  

80.

From the anatomical position, lifting your toes towards your nose

is ___ of the toes.

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

adduction

d)

abduction