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Assessment_Unit 2.1-2.7 (Jan. 2024)

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 3hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Molecular Biology is the study of

a)

Biological molecules

b)

Chemical processes in living organisms

c)

Organic chemistry

d)

DNA

2.

Typically, in carbon compounds, how many bonds does carbon make?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

none of the above

3.

Common types of carbon compounds in living organisms are:

a)

DNA, enzymes, nitrogenous bases, and amylose.

b)

Nucleic acids, amino acids, carbohydrates, and lipids.

c)

Urea, amino acids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates

d)

Carbon dioxide, Lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins.

e)

Nucleic acids, proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.

4.

This molecule is a

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic acid

e)

Cholesterol

5.

What is a -COOH group called?

a)

Amine group

b)

Hydroxyl

c)

Carboxyl

d)

Methyl

6.

Which is not true about carbohydrates?

a)

They contain oxygen and hydrogen in a 1:2 ratio.

b)

They contain carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen.

c)

They have hydroxyl groups.

d)

They have carboxyl groups.

7.

Which statement is true about amino acids?

a)

All amino acids have

C=CC=C double bonds

b)

All amino acids have amine groups.

c)

Some amino acids contain phosphorus.

d)

No amino acid contains sulfur.

8.

Which statement is true about catabolism?

a)

Catabolism occurs during protein synthesis.

b)

Catabolic reactions release energy that can be captured in the form of ATP

c)

An example of a catabolic process is DNA replication.

d)

Catabolism is the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules through hydrolysis.

9.

Metabolism is best defined as:

a)

A chemical reaction.

b)

The web of all enzyme-catalyzed reactions in a cell or organism.

c)

The web of all chemical reactions in a cell or organism.

d)

The web of all endergonic reactions in a cell or organism.

10.

True or False: Molecular Biology explains living processes in terms of chemical reactions.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

A carbon atom can make __ covalent bonds.

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

12.

True or False: Catabolism cannot release energy.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is Anabolism?

a)

Breakdown of a molecule

b)

Breakdown of complex molecule into simpler molecules

c)

Synthesis of complex molecule from simpler molecules by condensation

d)

Synthesis of simple molecule

14.

Which of the following can create urea?

a)

Plants

b)

Mammals

c)

Combination of ammonia and carbon dioxide

d)

Nothing

15.

Metabolism can:

a)

Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell

b)

Convert one type of molecule to another

c)

Exist on it's own

d)

Be extremely complex

16.

True or False: Cell respiration is an example of catabolism.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Water molecules consist of two types of atoms

a)

Oxygen and Oxygen

b)

Oxygen and Helium

c)

Oxygen and Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen and Hafnium

18.

Where one part of water molecules is partially negative and the other is partially positive is called

a)

Bonding

b)

Polarity

c)

Charged

d)

Neutral

19.

When water molecules are near each other, what forms between them?

a)

nothing

b)

a tiny rope

c)

Attractive forces

d)

Hydrogen Bonds

20.

Hydrophillic means

a)

water-loving

b)

water-fearing

21.

In the Phospholipid bilayer, there is a __________ head and a ___________ tail.

a)

polar; nonpolar

b)

nonpolar; polar

22.

Which property of water would allow bugs to float on water?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Thermal

d)

Solvent

23.

The energy required to increase 1g of a substance 1 degree Celcius is

a)

Boiling

b)

Increase in energy

c)

Freezing

d)

Specific Heat

24.

Because water is polar, it makes an effective

a)

Solute

b)

Solvent

25.

Which chemical group do amino acids contain that carbs and lipids do not?

a)

hydroxyl

b)

amine

c)

carboxyl

d)

methyl

26.

Which term describes the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules?

a)

adhesion

b)

catabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

anabolism

27.

Which type of reaction is the breakdown of starch into sugars?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Reducation

c)

Catabolic

d)

Condensation

28.

Which type of chemical reaction is an example of anabolism?

a)

Photolysis

b)

Combustion

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Condensation

29.

Carbohydrates contain the following elements:

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Phosphorous

d)

Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen

30.

Lipids contain the following elements:

a)

Carbon, Oxygen, Sulfur

b)

Oxygen, Carbon, Nitrogen

c)

Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen

d)

Carbon, Nitrogen, Sulfur

31.

The monomers that make up polypeptides are called:

a)

amino acids

b)

fatty acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

monosaccharides

32.

Another name for a polypeptide is:

a)

lipid

b)

carbohydrates

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

33.

Which of the following molecules is the only one to contain nitrogen?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

water

34.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

35.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

36.
What type of macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
37.

Which is shown in the picture?

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Fatty Acid

d)

Monosaccharide

38.

Which is shown in the picture?

a)

Fatty Acid

b)

Monsaccharide

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Nucleotide

39.
the breaking of a large molecule (polymer) into smaller ones (monomers)
a)
Triglycerides
b)
Disaccharides
c)
Condensation
d)
Hydrolysis
40.
More than one double bond
a)
Monounsaturated fatty acid
b)
Unsaturated fatty acid
c)
Polyunsaturated fatty acid
d)
Polysaccharides
41.
Branched, globular starch
a)
Amylopectin
b)
Glycogen
c)
Amylose
d)
Monosaccharides
42.
Shape of starch molecules
a)
Straight
b)
Curved
43.
Unbranched starch in helix form
a)
Amylopectin
b)
Glycogen
c)
Amylose
d)
Cellulose
44.
Fats that provide long term energy storage
a)
Lipids
b)
Glycogen
c)
Saturated fatty acid
d)
Glucose
45.
All single bonds between carbons
a)
cis or trans isomers
b)
Monounsaturated fatty acid
c)
Polyunsaturated fatty acid
d)
Saturated fatty acid
46.
Hydrogen atoms at a double bond are on the same side; bends; oils
a)
hydrolysis
b)
Cis
c)
Trans
d)
Glycogen
47.
A permanent change to the shape of a protein caused by the breaking of stabilizing bonds (h bonds) and interactions between R groups of their amino acids.
a)
Denaturation
b)
Dipeptide
c)
Condensation
d)
Collagen
48.
A structural protein that forms strong fibers, found in skin, connective tissue and bone (the most abundant protein in the animal kingdom).
a)
Insulin
b)
Immunoglobulins
c)
Rhodopsin
d)
Collagen
49.
The enzyme that catalyses the first step of carbon fixation in photosynthesis
a)
spider silk
b)
Rhodopsin
c)
Rubisco 
d)
Proteome
50.
 A 4 polypeptide globular protein in red blood cells. Binds oxygen in lungs and releases it in tissues.
a)
Integrin
b)
Hemoglobin
c)
Lysozyme
d)
Rubisco 
51.
Which is not an example of a fibrous protein?
a)
Shape: Long & narrow
b)
Examples: Collagen, myosin, actin, elastin
c)
Function: Structure
d)
Soluble in water
52.
A covalent bond that joins amino acids, at the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of the other amino acid, with the release of a molecule of water.
a)
Ionic Bond
b)
Glycosidic bond
c)
Peptide bond
d)
Ester bond
53.

Scientists have found geysers on one of Saturn’s moons. The geysers release water vapor containing complex organic compounds, which may indicate the presence of life. Which of the following elements is most likely abundant in the organic compounds in the water vapor?

a)

carbon

b)

chlorine

c)

iron

d)

zinc

54.

Which of the following is the main reason that humans need to include carbohydrates in their diet?

a)

Carbohydrates are broken down in cells for energy.

b)

Carbohydrates combine to form many different proteins.

c)

Carbohydrates act as catalyst to speed up chemical reactions.

d)

Carbohydrates are the building blocks for cell growth and repair.

55.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
56.

These biomolecules are, in order of appearance...

a)

cis and trans saturated fatty acids

b)

cis and trans unsaturated fatty acids

c)

trans and cis saturated fatty acids

d)

trans and cis unsaturated fatty acids

57.

A polymer of alpha-D-glucose found in plants has mostly 1,4 linkages and some 1,6 linkages. Which molecule fits this description?

a)

glycogen

b)

cellulose

c)

amylose

d)

amylopectin

58.

What characteristic shows that this steroid molecule is a lipid?

a)

it is made of carbon rings

b)

it has a very low proportion of oxygen to carbon

c)

it contains OH groups as do fatty acids

d)

it is made only of nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen

59.

The diagram shows the structure of palmitic acid. What type of fatty acid is palmitic acid?

a)

it is monosaturated

b)

it is polyunsaturated

c)

it is saturated

d)

it is a trans-fatty acid

60.

What is a role of cholesterol in animal cells?

a)

it increases body fat

b)

it controls membrane fluidity

c)

it lines the inner wall of capillaries

d)

it is a constituent of bile

61.

Which molecule diagram corresponds to the name?

a)
b)
c)
d)
62.

Which molecule is a sugar?

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

What molecule is a polysaccharide?

a)

glucagon

b)

glycose

c)

glycerol

d)

glycogen

64.

Which substance is used for structure in plants?

a)

amylopectin

b)

cellulose

c)

collagen

d)

starch

65.

In which compounds would a double bond link carbon to oxygen (C=O)?


I. amino acid

II. fatty acid

III. glycerol

a)

I and II only

b)

II and III only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II, and III

66.

That is the maximum number of fatty acids that can be condensed with glycerol?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

67.

Which described these molecules correctly?

a)

I: ribose II: amino acid

b)

I: glucose II: amino acid

c)

I: ribose II: fatty acid

d)

I: glucose II: fatty acid

68.

Which of the following molecules is ribose?

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

Which one shows a secondary structure of protein?

a)
b)
c)
d)
70.

How many polypeptides does hemoglobin have?

a)

3

b)

10

c)

8

d)

4

71.

Proteins including enzymes can be used for removing stains, pregnancy tests, and insulin for treating diabetes.

a)

False

b)

True

72.

What is the correct definition for a polypeptide?

a)

Chains of amino acids that are made by linking together amino acids by condensation reactions.

b)

Two amino acids are linked by a condensation reaction between the amine group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the other.

c)

Four amino acids, linked by three peptide bonds.

73.

What amino acid is this?

a)

Alanine

b)

Glycine

c)

Glutamic acid

d)

Serine

74.

Which one shows a primary structure of protein?

a)
b)
c)
d)
75.

Are ALL of these functions carried out by proteins? Cytoskeletons, Blood clotting, Cell adhesion, Immunity

a)

Yes

b)

No

76.

What is collagen’s function?

a)

Enzymes in secretions such as nasal mucus and tears; it kills some bacteria by digesting the peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

b)

Membrane protein used to make connections between structures inside and outside a cell.

c)

Structural protein in tendons, ligaments, skin and blood vessel walls; it provides high tensile strength, with limited stretching.

d)

Transport protein in red blood cells; it binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in tissues with a reduced oxygen concentration.

77.

How many bases of the gene are needed in order to code for each amino acid in the polypeptide?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

9

d)

3

78.

Amino acids that are linked together by ribosomes to make polypeptides all have some identical structural features.

a)

False

b)

True

79.

What amino acid is this?

a)

Glycine

b)

Glutamic acid

c)

Serine

d)

Alanine

80.

How many polypeptides does insulin contain?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

1

d)

3

81.

Denaturation is a structural change in a protein that results in the loss (usually permanent) of its biological properties.

a)

False

b)

True

82.

What are the two key conditions that cause denaturation?

(a)  

83.

Which of these is NOT an example of the different functions of proteins?

a)

Spider silk

b)

Elastin

c)

Immunoglobulins

d)

Actin

84.

Which one shows a tertiary structure of protein?

a)
b)
c)
d)
85.

Which part of the amino acid is never the same?

a)

Amine group

b)

Carboxyl group

c)

R group

d)

Hydrogen group

86.

A proteome is as unique to a person as their genome is.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

What type of bond joins neighboring amino acids together? (check all that apply)

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Ionic bonds

d)

Covalent bonds

88.

Which one of the following is one of the functions/roles a protein serves in a cell? (check all that apply)

a)

Immunity

b)

Hormones

c)

Sensation

d)

Transport

89.

What is the name of the bond that is formed when a polypeptide is made?

a)

Ester bond

b)

Glycosidic bond

c)

Amine bond

d)

Peptide bond

90.

Most organisms use the same 20 amino acids and genetic code. However, which one of these is an exception?

a)

Valine

b)

Lysine

c)

Collagen

d)

Serine

91.

Which parts of the amino acid react with another amino acid to form a peptide bond?

a)

The carboxyl group and the amino group

b)

The amine group and the R group

c)

The R group and carbon backbone

d)

The carboxyl group and the R group

92.

Which one shows a quaternary protein structure?

a)
b)
c)
d)
93.

In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the _____ binds to the _____ .

a)

Substance, enzyme

b)

Substrate, enzyme

c)

Substrate, active site

d)

Substrate, allosteric site

94.

An increase in which of these factors will guarantee an increase in enzyme activity?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Substrate concentration

d)

Amount of enzyme present

95.

With relation to enzyme and substrate, what does the term "successful collision" mean?

a)

When the substrate bumps into the active site and sticks to it.

b)

When a product is formed

c)

When the substrate bumps into the active site

d)

When the substrate bumps into the enzyme

96.

This graph represents enzyme activity with relation to which factor?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Substrate concentration

97.

This graph represents enzyme activity with relation to which factor?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Substrate concentration

98.

This graph represents enzyme activity with relation to which factor?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Substrate concentration

99.

How would you expect the optimum pH of enzymes to vary between the stomach and acidic hot springs?

a)

The optimum pH would be roughly the same.

b)

The optimum pH in acidic hot springs would be much lower than the stomach

c)

The optimum pH in acidic hot springs would be much larger than the stomach

d)

Depends on the enzyme.

100.

How would you expect the optimum pH of enzymes to vary between the stomach and alkaline lakes?

a)

The optimum pH would be roughly the same.

b)

The optimum pH in alkaline lakes would be much lower than the stomach

c)

The optimum pH in alkaline lakes would be much larger than the stomach

d)

Depends on the enzyme.

101.

Catalase is an enzyme produced in the liver. It decomposes hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas. Where would you expect its optimum temperature to be?

a)

0°C0\degree C

b)

40°C40\degree C

c)

100°C100\degree C

d)

It has no optimum temperature since the higher the temperature, the more collisions.

102.

Describe the advantages of enzyme immobilization.

4 lines
103.

Where are amino acids joined together to make polypeptides?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Ribosomes

104.

Some yeast genes can be replaced by human genes that then continue to produce the same human proteins in the yeast cells. Which statement helps to explain this evidence?

a)

The DNA of yeast and humans is identical.

b)

Yeast and humans have the same number of chromosomes.

c)

The genetic code is universal.

d)

Yeast and humans are both eukaryotes.

105.

Meselson and Stahl investigated DNA replication by first feeding bacteria with bases containing 15N (heavy), and then with bases containing 14N (light). The results are shown in the photographs.


From this information, what would be the composition of the DNA in generation 3?

a)

There will be a single 14N band.

b)

There will be a single 15N band and a single 14N band.

c)

There will be a darker 14N band and a lighter hybrid band.

d)

There will be a single 15N band, a single hybrid band and a single 14N band.

106.

A short sequence of nucleotides reads GGACAGAGCGCAGACGA. In which type of molecule could this sequence be found?

a)

DNA molecule only

b)

RNA molecule only

c)

Both in a DNA and an RNA molecule

d)

In double-stranded DNA only

107.

For which discovery about DNA do Watson and Crick receive credit?

a)

DNA is the molecule that genes are made of.

b)

The amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine in an organism.

c)

Phosphate–pentose bonding along the nucleotide backbone is covalent.

d)

The shape of DNA is a double helix.

108.

Which type of bond is identified by the arrow?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Covalent

d)

Peptide

109.

What is required to replicate DNA?

a)

Temperature of 37 °C

b)

Free nucleotides carrying A, C, G and T bases

c)

Plasmids

d)

Endonuclease

110.

The base sequence of a fragment of DNA is:


ACC GTG CAG GAT


What is the base sequence on the messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule transcribed from it?

a)

TGG CAC GTC CTA

b)

TGG CUC GTC CTU

c)

UGG CTC GUC CUT

d)

UGG CAC GUC CUA

111.

Which points to the 3′ end of a strand of DNA?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

112.

What is formed during transcription?

a)

RNA strand complementary to DNA strand, formed by RNA polymerase

b)

DNA strand complementary to DNA strand, formed by DNA polymerase

c)

RNA strand complementary to RNA strand, formed by DNA polymerase

d)

DNA strand complementary to RNA strand, formed by RNA polymerase

113.

Which of the following statements is/are correct for DNA replication?


I. It occurs during interphase.

II. It is semi-conservative.

III. It is a stage in protein synthesis.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I, II and III

114.

Which of the following are involved in both replication and transcription?

a)

DNA only

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

DNA and ribosomes

d)

DNA, RNA and ribosomes

115.

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of the leading strand?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Ligase

116.

What is the sequence of the amino acids that is being translated from the following mRNA sequence?


5' AUGGGUGCUUAUUGGUAA 3'

a)

Met-Pro-Arg-Ile-Thr

b)

Met-Cys-Ser-Tyr-Trp

c)

Met-Gly-Ala-Tyr-Trp

d)

Met-Gly-Tyr-Ala-Thr

117.

The percentage of thymine in the DNA of an organism is approximately 30 %. What is the percentage of guanine?

a)

70 %

b)

30 %

c)

40 %

d)

20 %

118.

What is a codon?

a)

A sequence of nucleotides on rRNA that corresponds to an amino acid

b)

A sequence of nucleotides on mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid

c)

A sequence of nucleotides on tRNA that corresponds to an amino acid

d)

A sequence of nucleotides on DNA that corresponds to an amino acid

119.

What happens during translation?

a)

Copying of DNA to produce DNA

b)

Copying of DNA to produce mRNA

c)

Copying of DNA to produce tRNA

d)

Polypeptide synthesis

120.

The image shows a DNA nucleotide.


Which correctly identifies the parts labelled I and II?

a)

I phosphate; II base

b)

I ribose; II uracil

c)

I deoxyribose; II base

d)

I ribose; II base

121.

What is amplified using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a)

Large amounts of RNA

b)

Small amounts of DNA

c)

Small amounts of protein

d)

Large amounts of polymers

122.

Which process is used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

123.

What are monomers of nucleic acids?

a)

Nitrogenous bases

b)

DNA

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Nucleus

124.

Which of the following can be present in a molecule of DNA?

a)

Ribose

b)

Phosphate

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

e)

Uracil

125.

What type of bonds are present between complementary nitrogenous bases?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Peptide bonds

126.

In complementary base pairing in DNA:

a)

A pairs with T, C pairs with G

b)

A pairs with U, C pairs with G

c)

A pairs with C, T pairs with G

d)

A pairs with G, C pairs with T

e)

Any base can pair with any other base

127.

Purine bases include:

a)

C, T

b)

A, G

c)

C, G

d)

A, C

e)

C, T, U

128.

What is common among purine bases

a)

They form complementary base pairs with each other.

b)

They have one carbon ring.

c)

They have two carbon rings

d)

They have no nitrogen

129.

The structure of DNA is often described as:

a)

parallel

b)

alpha-helix

c)

double helix

d)

helicase

130.

When adenine pairs with it's complementary base, how many hydrogen bonds are formed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

131.

When guanine pairs with it's complementary base, how many hydrogen bonds are formed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

132.

Outline the differences between DNA and RNA.

4 lines

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