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Chemistry Final Review

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?

a)

air

b)

heat

c)

smoke

d)

water vapor

2.

A golf ball has more mass than a tennis ball because it ____.

a)

takes up more space

b)

contains more matter

c)

contains different kinds of matter

d)

has a definite composition

3.

An example of an extensive property of matter is ____.

a)

temperature

b)

pressure

c)

mass

d)

hardness

4.

All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____.

a)

mass

b)

color

c)

melting point

d)

ability to rust

5.

Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its container?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

both b and c

6.

Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

air

b)

salt water

c)

steel

d)

soil

7.

Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

vinegar in water

b)

milk

c)

oil and vinegar

d)

air

8.

A substance that can be separated into two or more substances only by a chemical change is a(n) ____.

a)

solution

b)

element

c)

mixture

d)

compound

9.

The chemical symbol for iron is ____.

a)

fe

b)

FE

c)

Fe

d)

Ir

10.

Which of the following is a chemical property?

a)

color

b)

hardness

c)

freezing point

d)

ability to react with oxygen

11.

Which of the following is NOT a physical change?

a)

grating cheese

b)

melting cheese

c)

fermenting of cheese

d)

mixing two cheeses in a bowl

12.

Which of the following does NOT involve a physical change?

a)

mixing

b)

melting

c)

grinding

d)

decomposing

13.

A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____.

a)

is split

b)

is painted

c)

decays

d)

is cut

14.

When an iron nail is ground into powder, its mass ____.

a)

stays the same

b)

decreases

c)

increases

d)

cannot be determined

15.

The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____.

a)

5.008 x 10^3 km

b)

50.08 x 10^4 km

c)

5.008 x 10^-3 km

d)

5.008 x 10^4 km

16.

The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____.

a)

precision

b)

accuracy

c)

reproducibility

d)

usefulness

17.

If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in °C?

a)

0°C

b)

37°C

c)

100°C

d)

273°C

18.

The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is a(n) ____.

a)

atom

b)

electron

c)

proton

d)

neutron

19.

Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory?

a)

All elements are composed of atoms.

b)

Atoms are always in motion.

c)

Atoms of the same element are identical.

d)

Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number ratios

20.

Which of the following is true about subatomic particles?

a)

Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle.

b)

Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle.

c)

Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle.

d)

The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton.

21.

All atoms are ____.

a)

positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons

b)

negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons

c)

neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons

d)

neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to the number of neutrons

22.

The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____.

a)

neutrons and electrons

b)

electrons only

c)

protons and neutrons

d)

protons and electrons

23.

As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is thought to be true?

a)

Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom.

b)

The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons.

c)

Electrons are distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the volume of the atom.

d)

The nucleus is made of electrons and protons.

24.

The nucleus of an atom is ____.

a)

the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons

b)

positively charged and has more protons than neutrons

c)

negatively charged and has a high density

d)

negatively charged and has a low density

25.

The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus?

a)

neutrons

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

protons and electrons

26.

An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are ____.

4 lines
27.

The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____.

a)

atomic number

b)

nucleus number

c)

atomic mass

d)

mass number

28.

What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent?

a)

the atomic number

b)

the mass number

c)

the sum of the protons and electrons

d)

twice the number of protons

29.

All atoms of the same element have the same ____.

a)

number of neutrons

b)

number of protons

c)

mass numbers

d)

mass

30.

Isotopes of the same element have different ____.

a)

numbers of neutrons

b)

numbers of protons

c)

numbers of electrons

d)

atomic numbers

31.

The mass number of an element is equal to ____.

a)

the total number of electrons in the nucleus

b)

the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

c)

less than twice the atomic number

d)

a constant number for the lighter elements

32.

Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same element?

a)

42 J, 42 J, 40 J

b)

19 L, 20 L, 21 L

c)

38 M, 38 M, 38 M

d)

59 Q, 55 Q, 54 Q

33.

In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly represented?

a)

19, 9 F has 0 neutrons.

b)

75, 33 As has 108 neutrons.

c)

24, 12 Mg has 24 neutrons.

d)

238, 92 U has 146 neutrons.

34.

What unit is used to measure weighted average atomic mass?

a)

amu

b)

gram

c)

angstrom

d)

nanogram

35.

In the Bohr model of the atom, an electron in an orbit has a fixed ____.

a)

position

b)

color

c)

energy

d)

size

36.

How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus?

a)

It decreases.

b)

It increases.

c)

It stays the same.

d)

It doubles.

37.

What is the shape of the 3p atomic orbital?

a)

sphere

b)

dumbbell

c)

bar

d)

two perpendicular dumbbells

38.

How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

39.

What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

40.

The shape (not the size) of an electron cloud is determined by the electron's ____.

a)

energy sublevel

b)

position

c)

speed

d)

principal quantum number

41.

The letter "p" in the symbol 4p^3 indicates the ____.

a)

spin of an electron

b)

orbital shape

c)

principle energy level

d)

speed of an electron

42.

What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p?

a)

2d

b)

3d

c)

3f

d)

4s

43.

According to the aufbau principle, ____.

a)

an orbital may be occupied by only two electrons

b)

electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins

c)

electrons enter orbitals of highest energy first

d)

electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy first

44.

What is the electron configuration of potassium?

a)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹

b)

1s² 2s² 2p¹⁰ 3s² 3p³

c)

1s² 2s² 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹

d)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹

45.

How many unpaired electrons are in a sulfur atom (atomic number 16)?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

46.

Which scientist developed the quantum mechanical model of the atom?

a)

Albert Einstein

b)

Erwin Schrodinger

c)

Niels Bohr

d)

Ernest Rutherford

47.

According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving particle is known, what other quantity CANNOT be known?

a)

mass

b)

charge

c)

spin

d)

velocity

48.

What is another name for the representative elements?

a)

Group A elements

b)

Group B elements

c)

Group C elements

d)

transition elements

49.

What is another name for the transition metals?

a)

noble gases

b)

Group A elements

c)

Group B elements

d)

Group C elements

50.

Which of the following elements is in the same period as phosphorus?

a)

carbon

b)

magnesium

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

51.

Each period in the periodic table corresponds to ____.

a)

a principal energy level

b)

an energy sublevel

c)

an orbital

d)

a suborbital

52.

The modern periodic table is arranged in order of increasing atomic ____.

a)

mass

b)

charge

c)

number

d)

radius

53.

Of the elements Pt, V, Li, and Kr, which is a nonmetal?

a)

Pt

b)

V

c)

Li

d)

Kr

54.

To what category of elements does an element belong if it is a poor conductor of electricity?

a)

transition elements

b)

metalloids

c)

nonmetals

d)

metals

55.

What element has the electron configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p²?

a)

nitrogen

b)

selenium

c)

silicon

d)

silver

56.

Elements that are characterized by the filling of p orbitals are classified as ____.

a)

groups 3A through 8A

b)

transition metals

c)

inner transition metals

d)

groups 1A and 2A

57.

Which subatomic particle plays the greatest part in determining the properties of an element?

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

d)

none of the above

58.

Which of the following elements is a transition metal?

a)

cesium

b)

copper

c)

tellurium

d)

tin

59.

Which of the following groupings contains only representative elements?

a)

Cu, Co, Cd

b)

Ni, Fe, Zn

c)

Al, Mg, Li

d)

Hg, Cr, Ag

60.

How does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table?

a)

It tends to decrease.

b)

It tends to increase.

c)

It first increases, then decreases.

d)

It first decreases, then increases.

61.

How does atomic radius change from left to right across a period in the periodic table?

a)

It tends to decrease.

b)

It tends to increase.

c)

It first increases, then decreases.

d)

It first decreases, then increases.

62.

Atomic size generally ____.

a)

increases as you move from left to right across a period

b)

decreases as you move from top to bottom within a group

c)

remains constant within a period

d)

decreases as you move from left to right across a period

63.

What element in the second period has the largest atomic radius?

a)

carbon

b)

lithium

c)

potassium

d)

neon

64.

Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius?

a)

sulfur

b)

chlorine

c)

selenium

d)

bromine

65.

What is the charge of a cation?

a)

a positive charge

b)

no charge

c)

a negative charge

d)

The charge depends on the size of the nucleus.

66.

The metals in Groups 1A, 2A, and 3A ____.

a)

gain electrons when they form ions

b)

form ions with a negative charge

c)

all have ions with a 1+ charge

d)

lose electrons when they form ions

67.

What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?

a)

cesium

b)

helium

c)

calcium

d)

fluorine

68.

What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?

a)

cesium

b)

helium

c)

calcium

d)

fluorine

69.

What is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in the gaseous state called?

a)

nuclear energy

b)

ionization energy

c)

shielding energy

d)

electronegative energy

70.

Compared with the electronegativities of the elements on the left side of a period, the electronegativities of the elements on the right side of the same period tend to be ____.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

the same

d)

unpredictable

71.

Which of the following statements correctly compares the relative size of an ion to its neutral atom?

a)

The radius of an anion is greater than the radius of its neutral atom.

b)

The radius of an anion is identical to the radius of its neutral atom.

c)

The radius of a cation is greater than the radius of its neutral atom.

d)

The radius of a cation is identical to the radius of its neutral atom.

72.

How many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

73.

What is the electron configuration of the gallium ion?

a)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶

b)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 4p⁶

c)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵ 3d¹

d)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰

74.

The octet rule states that, in chemical compounds, atoms tend to have ____.

a)

the electron configuration of a noble gas

b)

more protons than electrons

c)

eight electrons in their principal energy level

d)

more electrons than protons

75.

A compound held together by ionic bonds is called a ____.

a)

diatomic molecule

b)

polar compound

c)

covalent molecule

d)

salt

76.

What is the formula unit of aluminum oxide?

a)

AlO

b)

Al₂O

c)

AlO₃

d)

Al₂O₃

77.

Which of the following is true about the melting temperature of potassium chloride?

a)

The melting temperature is relatively high.

b)

The melting temperature is variable and unpredictable.

c)

The melting temperature is relatively low.

d)

Potassium chloride does not melt.

78.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of most ionic compounds?

a)

They are solids.

b)

They have low melting points.

c)

When melted, they conduct an electric current.

d)

They are composed of metallic and nonmetallic elements.

79.

Which of these elements does not exist as a diatomic molecule?

a)

Ne

b)

F

c)

H

d)

I

80.

Why do atoms share electrons in covalent bonds?

a)

to become ions and attract each other

b)

to attain a noble-gas electron configuration

c)

to become more polar

d)

to increase their atomic numbers

81.

Which of the following is the name given to the pairs of valence electrons that do not participate in bonding in diatomic oxygen molecules?

a)

unvalenced pair

b)

outer pair

c)

inner pair

d)

unshared pair

82.

Which of the following diatomic molecules is joined by a double covalent bond?

a)

O₂

b)

Cl₂

c)

N₂

d)

H₂

83.

When one atom contributes both bonding electrons in a single covalent bond, the bond is called a(n) ____.

a)

one-sided covalent bond

b)

unequal covalent bond

c)

coordinate covalent bond

d)

ionic covalent bond

84.

A bond formed between a silicon atom and an oxygen atom is likely to be ____.

a)

ionic

b)

coordinate covalent

c)

polar covalent

d)

nonpolar covalent

85.

Which of the following covalent bonds is the most polar?

a)

H—F

b)

H—C

c)

H—H

d)

H—N

86.

When placed between oppositely charged metal plates, the region of a water molecule attracted to the negative plate is the ____.

a)

hydrogen region of the molecule

b)

geometric center of the molecule

c)

H—O—H plane of the molecule

d)

oxygen region of the molecule

87.

What type of ions have names ending in -ide?

a)

only cations

b)

only anions

c)

only metal ions

d)

only gaseous ions

88.

When naming a transition metal ion that can have more than one common ionic charge, the numerical value of the charge is indicated by a ____.

a)

prefix

b)

suffix

c)

Roman numeral following the name

d)

superscript after the name

89.

An -ate or -ite at the end of a compound name usually indicates that the compound contains ____.

a)

fewer electrons than protons

b)

neutral molecules

c)

only two elements

d)

a polyatomic anion

90.

Which of the following compounds contains the Mn^3+ ion?

a)

MnS

b)

MnBr2

c)

Mn2O3

d)

MnO

91.

How are chemical formulas of binary ionic compounds generally written?

a)

cation on left, anion on right

b)

anion on left, cation on right

c)

Roman numeral first, then anion, then cation

d)

subscripts first, then ions

92.

Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound?

a)

CS2

b)

BaI2

c)

N2O4

d)

PCl3

93.

Which element, when combined with fluorine, would most likely form an ionic compound?

a)

lithium

b)

carbon

c)

phosphorus

d)

chlorine

94.

Which of the following compounds contains the lead(II) ion?

a)

PbO

b)

PbCl4

c)

Pb2O

d)

Pb2S

95.

What is the correct formula for potassium sulfite?

a)

KHSO3

b)

KHSO4

c)

K2SO3

d)

K2SO4

96.

Identify the type of chemical reaction (a)  

Choose from the below words
Synthesis
Decomposition
Single replacement
Double replacement
Combustion
97.

Match the following

a)

1 reactant breaks apart into 2 or more smaller products

1.

decomposition

b)

2 or more reactants combine to make 1 product

2.

synthesis

c)

O2 as a reactant & CO2 and water as products

3.

combustion

d)

1 element & 1 compound in products & reactants

4.

single replacement

e)

2 compounds in reactants & products

5.

double replacement

98.

The ​ (a)   are on the right side of the arrow and the ​ (b)   are on the left side of the arrow.

Choose from the below words
products
reactants
dipoles
samples
ionic compounds
covalent compounds
99.

In a chemical equation, a reactant or product labeled ​ (a)   is a solid and a reactant or product labeled ​ (b)   is dissolved in water

Choose from the below words
(s)
(aq)
(l)
(w)
(g)
(d)
(p)
100.

In a double replacement reaction, a product that is soluble in water will be labeled ​ (a)   and a product that is a precipitate will be labeled ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
(aq)
(s)
(w)
(l)
(g)
(d)
(p)
101.

What type of reaction is this?3KOH + H3PO4 --> K3PO4 + 3H2O (a)  

Choose from the below words
Synthesis
Decomposition
Single Displacement
Double Displacement
102.

The proper formula for magnesium hydroxide.

a)

MgOH

b)

Mg2OH

c)

Mg(OH)2

d)

Mg2OH2

103.

Acids form​ (a)   when mixed with water, and they taste ​ (b)   .

Bases form ​ (c)   when mixed with water, and they taste ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
H+
sour
OH-
bitter
104.

Identify the ion.

a)

Hydrogen

1.

H+

b)

Hydroxide

2.

OH-

c)

Hydronium

3.

H3O+

105.

When acids are mixed with water, they release ​ (a)   ions.

Choose from the below words
hydrogen (H+)
hydroxide (OH-)
106.

What are the products when an acid reacts with a metal?

a)

A salt and water

b)

A salt, water and carbon dioxide

c)

A salt and hydrogen

d)

A salt, hydrogen and carbon dioxide

107.

Hydrochloric acid plus magnesium react to make…

a)

magnesium oxide

b)

magnesium chloride and water

c)

magnesium chloride and hydrogen

d)

hydrogen and water

108.

Which of the following is a sign of a chemical reaction?

a)

Change in state of matter

b)

Change in temperature

c)

Dissolving of a substance

d)

Change in volume