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Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This protein (which comes from bacteria) searches for certain sequences in DNA cuts them at certain places

a)

Restriction Enzyme

b)

Molecular Cutters

c)

PCR cleaver

d)

Digesters

2.

After DNA has been cut into pieces by restriction enzymes, it is considered to be...

a)

snipped

b)

amplified

c)

digested

d)

Cut up

3.

EcoRI, HaeIII, HindIII are examples of...

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

digestion sites

c)

DNA strands

d)

restriction enzymes

4.

This process produces millions of copies of a DNA sequence from a small amount of DNA.

a)

Amplification

b)

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

c)

DNA Digestion

d)

Transcription

5.

Removing DNA from the nucleus of a cell is known as...

a)

Endonuclease

b)

Site Charging

c)

DNA Amplification

d)

DNA extraction

6.

The location where restriction enzymes cut DNA is called a..

a)

nucleotide

b)

recognition site

c)

phosphate

d)

molecular clevage site

7.

Check all the places from where you can collect DNA.

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

Clothing

c)

Bone

d)

Hair with a follicle

e)

Body Fluids

8.

A person's unique individual DNA code is called a ...

a)

identity sequence

b)

code or organization

c)

DNA Profile

d)

nucleotide fingerprint

9.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

10.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

11.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

12.
Restriction Enzymes . . . 
a)
cut DNA at precise locations
b)
help bacteria to pick up DNA
c)
move DNA through a gel
d)
copy DNA
13.
Restriction Enzymes come from . . . 
a)
viruses
b)
bacteria
c)
goats
d)
spiders
14.
Why do bacteria have restriction enzymes?
a)
To prevent being infected by viruses
b)
To help DNA get into the cell
c)
To be able to grow in an incubator
d)
They don't - viruses have restriction enzymes
15.
What charge is DNA?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
16.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
17.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged
b)
DNA is positively charged
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
18.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
19.
During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from the ___ end to the ___ end.
a)
positive, negative
b)
negative, positive
20.

An individual’s code determines the number of times the restriction enzymes will cut and the number and size of DNA pieces that will result.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

How many fragments resulted from the cut above?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

22.

"bp" stands for...

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Base Pair

c)

Body Pressure

d)

Body Pair

23.

How many restriction sites appear in the picture?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

24.
Which restriction enzyme listed below was isolated from E.coli bacteria?
a)
AluI
b)
HindIII
c)
HaeII
d)
EcoRI
25.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
26.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
27.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
28.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
29.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
30.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
31.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
32.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
33.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
34.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
35.

What makes up the SIDES of a DNA ladder?

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

sugars & phosphates

c)

genes & chromosomes

d)

RNA

36.

What makes up the rungs (steps) of a DNA ladder?

a)

sugars & phosphates

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

sugars

d)

genes & chromosomes

37.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
38.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
39.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
40.
What is the significance of the sequence (order) of the Nitrogen Bases in DNA?
a)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the number of chromosomes present in an organism.
b)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the traits that an organism will possess (have).
c)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the gender of an organism.
d)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines whether an organism is abiotic biotic.
41.
Assume that you have straight hair and your sibling has curly hair. What accounts for this difference?
a)
You have DNA and your sibling does not.
b)
The your sequence of nitrogen bases is different than your sibling.
c)
Your sibling has a weave. 
d)
Your sibling has a genetic mutation. 
42.
What sugar is in DNA?
a)
deoxyribose
b)
ribose
c)
oxyribose
d)
deoxyose
43.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
44.
If a DNA molecule consists of 29% Guanine, how much cytosine will it contain?
a)
29%
b)
58%
c)
21%
d)
I have no idea.
45.
X outlines a(n) ___________.
a)
amino acid
b)
nitrogen base 
c)
nucleotide
d)
nitrogen base pair
46.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

47.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
48.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
49.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
50.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
51.
What is the purpose of PCR?
a)
To produce millions of copies of DNA.
b)
To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA
c)
To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
d)
To watch polymerase work.
52.
What is the function of a primer?
a)
To identify the particular region of DNA to be copied by PCR.
b)
To copy DNA.
c)
To create DNA nucleotides.
d)
To maintain the temperature of the PCR reaction.
53.
What are the base-pairing rules in DNA?
a)
A-C, G-T
b)
A-U, G-C
c)
A-T, G-C
d)
A-C, G-U
54.

What happens after you have denatured your DNA?

a)

It denatures again.

b)

Primers attach to the gene of interest.

c)

The gene elongates

d)

PCR is over

55.

How many copies of DNA are made after 1 cycle of PCR? (we did 30 cycles during the last block period).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

1 million

d)

4

56.

What is the force that separates the DNA fragments by size during gel electrophroesis?

a)

Magnetic force

b)

Gravitational force

c)

Electrical force

d)

Jiu Jitsu

57.

This protein (which comes from bacteria) searches for certain sequences in DNA cuts them at certain places

a)

Restriction Enzyme

b)

Molecular Cutters

c)

PCR cleaver

d)

Digesters

58.

After DNA has been cut into pieces by restriction enzymes, it is considered to be...

a)

snipped

b)

amplified

c)

digested

d)

Cut up

59.

EcoRI, HaeIII, HindIII are examples of...

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

digestion sites

c)

DNA strands

d)

restriction enzymes

60.

This process produces millions of copies of a DNA sequence from a small amount of DNA.

a)

Amplification

b)

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

c)

DNA Digestion

d)

Transcription

61.

Removing DNA from the nucleus of a cell is known as...

a)

Endonuclease

b)

Site Charging

c)

DNA Amplification

d)

DNA extraction

62.

The location where restriction enzymes cut DNA is called a..

a)

nucleotide

b)

recognition site

c)

phosphate

d)

molecular clevage site

63.

Check all the places from where you can collect DNA.

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

Clothing

c)

Bone

d)

Hair with a follicle

e)

Body Fluids

64.

Is DNA found inside a Red Blood Cell?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

65.

Where on a hair can DNA be extracted?

a)

Follicle

b)

Cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

Cortex

66.

A person's unique individual DNA code is called a ...

a)

identity sequence

b)

code or organization

c)

DNA Profile

d)

nucleotide fingerprint

67.

Proteins which DNA winds around in order to compress into a small space are...

a)

corpuscles

b)

histones

c)

nucleic acids

d)

enzymes

68.

This organelle holds and protects the DNA

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi body

69.

The smallest unit of life capable of living independently is the...

a)

organelle

b)

nucleic acid

c)

plasmid

d)

cell

70.

DNA takes on this "X" shape when the cell is getting ready to divide.

a)

chromosome

b)

histone

c)

chromatin

d)

X cell

71.

The letters A, T, C, G, that make your DNA unique are called...

a)

uracil

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

nucleic acids

d)

sequence components

72.

Inside the nucleus, the DNA exists primarily in this loose form.

a)

chromatin

b)

chromosome

c)

chromosphore

d)

histones

73.

These are tiny structures that preform specific functions inside the cell.

a)

prokaryotes

b)

nuclei

c)

DNA pockets

d)

organelles

74.

This type of cell that has organized membrane bound organelles inside of it.

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

red blood cells

d)

hemoglobulin

75.

These cells are unorganized and lack organelles with membranes.

a)

prokaryotic cells

b)

eukaryotic cells

c)

white blood cells

d)

potent cells

76.

A sequence of DNA that codes for a protein which creates your traits.

a)

sequences

b)

nitrogen base

c)

gene

d)

genome

77.

All of the DNA in one organism.

a)

nucleotide bunches

b)

base pairs

c)

chromosome bundles

d)

genome

78.

The building blocks of DNA - made of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base.

a)

nucleotide

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

double helix

d)

genome

79.

The spiral form of DNA is best known as a...

a)

twisted fung

b)

double helix

c)

curly morphism

d)

dual twist

80.

In a strand of DNA, adenine always bonds with...

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

81.

In a strand of DNA, cytosine always bonds with

a)

guanine

b)

thymine

c)

adenine

d)

uracil

82.

Adenine and guanine both belong to a class of nitrogen bases called ___

a)

benzenes

b)

pyrimidines

c)

purines

d)

aromatics

83.

Thymine and cytosine are both made of one ring and are called ___.

a)

purines

b)

pyrimidines

c)

cyclical structures

d)

covalents

84.

This type of bond holds the left nitrogen base to the right nitrogen base.

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Disulfide

d)

Hydrogen

85.

This bond occurs between phosphate and sugar in the sides of a DNA strand.

a)

hydrogen bond.

b)

covalent bond.

c)

thymine bond

d)

phosphate bond.

86.

DNA provides the chemical instructions to build these large molecules that are necessary for life.

a)

proteins

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nitrogen bases

d)

nucleotides

87.

This protein (which comes from bacteria) searches for certain sequences in DNA cuts them at certain places

a)

Restriction Enzyme

b)

Molecular Cutters

c)

PCR cleaver

d)

Digesters

88.

After DNA has been cut into pieces by restriction enzymes, it is considered to be...

a)

snipped

b)

amplified

c)

digested

d)

Cut up

89.

EcoRI, HaeIII, HindIII are examples of...

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

digestion sites

c)

DNA strands

d)

restriction enzymes

90.

This process produces millions of copies of a DNA sequence from a small amount of DNA.

a)

Amplification

b)

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

c)

DNA Digestion

d)

Transcription

91.

Removing DNA from the nucleus of a cell is known as...

a)

Endonuclease

b)

Site Charging

c)

DNA Amplification

d)

DNA extraction

92.

The location where restriction enzymes cut DNA is called a..

a)

nucleotide

b)

recognition site

c)

phosphate

d)

molecular clevage site

93.

Check all the places from where you can collect DNA.

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

Clothing

c)

Bone

d)

Hair with a follicle

e)

Body Fluids

94.

Is DNA found inside a Red Blood Cell?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

95.

Where on a hair can DNA be extracted?

a)

Follicle

b)

Cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

Cortex

96.

A person's unique individual DNA code is called a ...

a)

identity sequence

b)

code or organization

c)

DNA Profile

d)

nucleotide fingerprint

97.

Proteins which DNA winds around in order to compress into a small space are...

a)

corpuscles

b)

histones

c)

nucleic acids

d)

enzymes

98.

This organelle holds and protects the DNA

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi body

99.

The smallest unit of life capable of living independently is the...

a)

organelle

b)

nucleic acid

c)

plasmid

d)

cell

100.

DNA takes on this "X" shape when the cell is getting ready to divide.

a)

chromosome

b)

histone

c)

chromatin

d)

X cell

101.

The letters A, T, C, G, that make your DNA unique are called...

a)

uracil

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

nucleic acids

d)

sequence components

102.

Inside the nucleus, the DNA exists primarily in this loose form.

a)

chromatin

b)

chromosome

c)

chromosphore

d)

histones

103.

These are tiny structures that preform specific functions inside the cell.

a)

prokaryotes

b)

nuclei

c)

DNA pockets

d)

organelles

104.

This type of cell that has organized membrane bound organelles inside of it.

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

red blood cells

d)

hemoglobulin

105.

These cells are unorganized and lack organelles with membranes.

a)

prokaryotic cells

b)

eukaryotic cells

c)

white blood cells

d)

potent cells

106.

A sequence of DNA that codes for a protein which creates your traits.

a)

sequences

b)

nitrogen base

c)

gene

d)

genome

107.

All of the DNA in one organism.

a)

nucleotide bunches

b)

base pairs

c)

chromosome bundles

d)

genome

108.

The building blocks of DNA - made of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base.

a)

nucleotide

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

double helix

d)

genome

109.

The spiral form of DNA is best known as a...

a)

twisted fung

b)

double helix

c)

curly morphism

d)

dual twist

110.

In a strand of DNA, adenine always bonds with...

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

111.

In a strand of DNA, cytosine always bonds with

a)

guanine

b)

thymine

c)

adenine

d)

uracil

112.

Adenine and guanine both belong to a class of nitrogen bases called ___

a)

benzenes

b)

pyrimidines

c)

purines

d)

aromatics

113.

Thymine and cytosine are both made of one ring and are called ___.

a)

purines

b)

pyrimidines

c)

cyclical structures

d)

covalents

114.

This type of bond holds the left nitrogen base to the right nitrogen base.

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Disulfide

d)

Hydrogen

115.

This bond occurs between phosphate and sugar in the sides of a DNA strand.

a)

hydrogen bond.

b)

covalent bond.

c)

thymine bond

d)

phosphate bond.

116.

DNA provides the chemical instructions to build these large molecules that are necessary for life.

a)

proteins

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nitrogen bases

d)

nucleotides

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