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EFDA Final Exam

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the optimal distance between the patient’s face and the operator’s face?

a)

10 to 12 inches

b)

8 to 12 inches

c)

12 to 14 inches

d)

12 to 15 inches

2.

When working on the mandibular arch, the back of the patients chair is raised until its angle to the floor is

a)

15 to 35 degrees

b)

 

25 to 45 degrees

c)

25 to 30 degrees

d)

It doesn't matter as long as you can see

3.

What is the proper placement of the operator’s forearms when working on a patient?

a)

Bent at the elbows and parallel to the floor

b)

Straight out in front of the operator

c)

Close to his/her body with elbows tucked in

d)

Raised at a 25 degree angle

4.

What is the best way to gain access visually to the mandibular lingual surfaces?

a)


Have the patient turn their head to the right

b)

Have the patient tilt their chin downward

c)


Have the patient turn their head to the left

d)

The operator should stand up and move right or left to allow access

5.

The most common zone for the right handed operator to do most of the work in either arch is

a)

In the 2 to 5 o'clock position

b)


In the 4 to 12 o'clock position

c)


In the 8 to 1 o'clock position

d)

 

In the 8 to 12 o'clock position

6.

 

The most common zone for the left handed operator is

a)


In the 8 to 12 o'clock position

b)

 

In the 8 to 1 o'clock position

c)

In the 4 to 12 o'clock position

d)


In the 2 to 5 o'clock position

7.

The relationship of the lower legs and thighs to the floor is (in order)

a)

Perpendicular and parallel

b)

 

Parallel and perpendicular

c)

 

Perpendicular and slightly angled up

d)


It doesn't matter as long as the operator is comfortable

8.

How should the operator sit on the stool?

a)


Upper body rolled forward

b)

How should the operator sit on the stool?

c)

As far back as possible with back of knees just touching the front edge of the stool.

d)

It doesn't matter

9.

When seated, the back rest of the operator stool should support

a)


the upper back region between the shoulder blades.

b)

the lower back lumbar region.

c)

the operator does not need to utilize the back rest if they feel well supported without it.

10.

Generally speaking, the patient should be reclined so the mouth is approximately at the level of the operators elbow when seated.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Proper condensing of amalgam will:

a)

Eliminate voids

b)


Reduce residual mercury

c)

Increase strength of the finished amalgam

d)

All of these

12.

Condensing the alloy immediately after trituration:

a)

 

Is not recommended

b)

Prevents voids

c)

Allows each layer to bond together

d)

Both b and c

13.

By overfilling the cavity preparation:

a)

By overfilling the cavity preparation:

b)

we allow the mercury rich layers to be removed during carving

c)

we are able to close the cavosurface margins properly

d)

All of the above

14.

When condensing amalgam into a preparation

a)

Always use calcium hydroxide first

b)

Condense the mesial area first

c)

Condense the least accessible area first

d)

Condense the mesial area first

15.

Excess mercury left on the restoration:

a)


Can be polished off at a later date

b)

Will dissolve in the patient's saliva

c)

Can contribute to plaque accumulation

d)

Will weaken the strength of the restoration

16.

Amalgam is ready to carve when:

a)

Excess mercury is laying on top of the packed amalgam

b)

The last layer has been burnished

c)

Slight resistance is felt with a carver

d)

 

The last layer has been plane-packed with the small condenser

17.

The purpose of carving an amalgam restoration is:

a)


To remove excess material from the cavosurface margins

b)

To countour the restoration so it resembles the original contour

c)

To remove residual mercury

d)

All of these

18.

The carver should rest on tooth surface and alloy when carving:

a)

To prevent submarginal areas

b)

To create anatomical grooves

c)


all of the above

d)

To allow the tooth surface to serve as a guide

19.

An undercarved restoration may be:

a)

Undercontoured and need to be replaced

b)

An overcontoured restoration with excess amalgam

c)

Carved more or corrected with finishing and polishing

d)

Both b and c

20.

When condensing the layers of alloy:

a)


The strokes should be overlapping

b)

Use the condenser to rub the alloy

c)

Use the smallest condenser nib

d)

Use the burnisher

21.

Grooves are placed on the occlusal surface of amalgam restorations with:

a)

A discoid

b)


A ball burnisher

c)


A pointed instrument

d)


The amalgam carrier

22.

Vertical angulation that is too steep when carving the occlusal surface of an amalgam restoration will:

a)

Provide a weak restoration

b)

Leave premature occlusion

c)

Ruin the instrument's blade

d)

Not remove enough alloy

23.

When checking the margins of a restoration, a catch is felt both from tooth to amalgam, and from amalgam to tooth. This is considered:

a)


Flash

b)

Submarginal or open margin

c)

Overextension

d)

Basic anatomy

24.

Flash is corrected by:

a)

Adding more alloy

b)

More carving

c)

Burnishing

d)

Removing tooth structure adjacent to the area

25.

An area of flash is considered:

a)

 

Overcarved

b)

Undercarved

c)

Residual area of mercury

d)

Submarginal

26.

Failure to condense amalgam into the retentive grooves will:

a)


Leave open margins

b)

Leave submarginal areas

c)

Weaken the retention of the restoration

d)

Displace pulp protection

27.

Marginal ridge heights are best reduced using the:

a)

Acorn burnisher

b)


Cleoid carver

c)


½ Hollenback carver or discoid carver

d)

The explorer

28.

A Markley diamond end condenser will:

a)


Be used for buccal and lingual extensions only

b)

Assure proper condensation into retentive grooves and line angles

c)

 

Provide good adaptation on the pulpal floor

d)

Condense Class V amalgams at the gingival margin

29.

Amalgam that contains __________ 54% mercury is considered "mercury-rich.

a)

Less than

b)

Greater than

30.

The strength and setting time of amalgam are determined by?

a)


Size of alloy particles

b)

Ratio of mercury to alloy

c)


Mixing time (trituration)

d)

All of these

31.

Mercury is toxic and all amalgam scraps should be salvaged and stored under water.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

_________ is made from a combination of metals and is referred to as an alloy.

a)

Composite

b)


Amalgam

c)

ZOE

d)

None of the above

33.

_______occurs when dissimilar metals in the mouth, such as silver amalgam against gold, act like a battery and upon contact an electric current results in pain.

a)

Galvanism

b)


Condensation

c)

Deformation

d)

None of the above

34.

What are the two types of alloy particles?

a)

Squared and cubical

b)

Lathe and spherical

c)


Circular and lathe

d)

Spherical and squared

35.

The creep process can cause an amalgam restoration to extend out of the cavity prep thereby increasing its susceptibility to what?

a)

Marginal breakdown

b)

Under contouring

c)

Over contouring

d)


Galvanism

36.

Undertrituration produces

a)

A drier mix

b)

Lacks mercury

c)

Lacks cohesiveness

d)

All of the above

37.

The main component in amalgam is _________.

a)

 

Tin

b)


Silver

c)

Copper

d)

Zinc

38.

The reaction between alloy and mercury is called _____.

a)


Alloy

b)

Trituration

c)


Amalgamation

d)


Palladium

39.

The slow change in dimension of the amalgam due to prolonged exposure to stress is

a)


Corrosion

b)

Condensation

c)


Moisture contamination

d)

Creep

40.

What can help amalgams to have a lower creep value?

a)


Higher copper content (13-30%)

b)

Lower copper content (less than 5%)

c)

Low zinc content (0-2%)

d)

Higher tin content (22-30%)

41.

When removing amalgam from a tooth, it is important to NOT use water spray to avoid splatter of the old amalgam.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The compressive strength of an amalgam 20 minutes after placement is _____ of the strength it will have at the end of one week.


a)



3%

b)

20%

c)

15%

d)


6%

43.

_____ is the time dependant strain or deformation that is produced by a stress.

a)

 

Creep

b)

 

Galvanism

c)

Condensation

d)


None

44.

The gamma 2 phase occurs in dental alloy:

a)

By moisture contamination during placement

b)

By tin-mercury combinations

c)

With the formation of "creep"

d)


From improper trituration of amalgam

45.

The higher percentage of mercury in the dental alloy will:

a)

Make the alloy set faster

b)

Make the alloy set slower

c)


Strengthen the amalgam

d)

Decrease expansion of the amalgam

46.

Moisture contamination during the condensing process of the amalgam alloy will:

a)

Cause the alloy to expand rapidly

b)

Stop the expansion process

c)

Cause delayed expansion of the alloy

d)

Cause the zinc to leak

47.

Proper condensing of amalgam will:

a)

Eliminate voids

b)


Reduce residual mercury

c)

 

Increase strength of the finished amalgam

d)

All of these

48.

Condensing the alloy immediately after trituration:

a)

Is not recommended

b)

Prevents voids

c)

Allows each layer to bond together

d)

Both b and c

49.

A gingival retractor is used with rubber dam isolation for what cavity classification?

a)

Class I

b)

Class IV

c)

Class III

d)

Class V

50.

A matrix retainer and band, when properly placed, exhibit the following:

a)

Tapers out from the gingival margin toward the occlusal surface

b)

Has the band extending 3-6 mm mm beyond the gingival margin

c)

Has the band extending 0.5mm to 1.5mm occlusal to the junction of the occlusal and lingual surfaces

d)

Both a and c are correct

51.

How is the disadvantage of excessive time consumption remedied in regards to rubber dam use?

a)

Discontinue use

b)

Skilled efficient dental auxiliary

c)

Have the DDS place the rubber dam

52.

If you are preparing the rubber dam for placement for a Class V restoration on tooth #27, how far facially would you displace the holes being punched?

a)

1-2mm

b)

1-1.5mm

c)

2-4mm

d)

3-6mm

53.

Methods of stabilizing the rubber dam include

a)

Dental floss tied around the tooth in a surgical knot secured to the rubber dam clamp

b)

Wedging a small piece of the dam next to the last exposed tooth

c)


Use of a Wedjet

d)


All of these

54.

One advantage of a cotton roll holder is that the cheek and tongue are slightly retracted.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Position the facial jaw of the gingival retractor clamp _____________mm gingival to the proposed gingival margin of the preparation.

a)


.5 to 1.5 mm

b)

1 to 1.5 mm

c)

1 to 2 mm

d)

.5 to 1 mm

56.

The rubber dam clamp should contact the tooth in at least __________ areas or points.

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

2

57.

This method of isolation is the oldest form of retraction and is recommended for isolation during short procedures.

a)

Rubber dam

b)

Svedopter

c)

Cotton roll

d)

Vac-ejector

58.

What instrument is used to invert the rubber dam?

a)

T-ball burnisher

b)

Explorer

c)

Blunt shaped instrument

d)

Either a or c

59.

What is a special oral evacuation device consisting of an open metal (or most currently, plastic) tube that is attached to a high volume evac system?

a)

Erickson rejector

b)

Svedopter

c)

Cotton roll

d)

Retraction cord

60.

What is the advantage to using winged clamps?

a)

Allows dam to be attached to the clamp prior to placing it on the tooth

b)


It looks a lot better in the oral cavity

c)

Makes removal easier

d)

Easier for the patient to tolerate

61.

What is the correct guideline to follow when placing rubber dam?

a)

Two teeth distal and one tooth mesial to the tooth being treated

b)

One tooth distal and two teeth mesial

c)

One tooth distal and three teeth mesial

d)

It doesn't matter

62.

What is the part of the clamp that expands to fit over a tooth?

a)

Forcep holes

b)

Points

c)

Bow

d)

Jaw

63.

What is the part of the matrix retainer that is threaded, coming to a point and can move through the entire length of the retainer to secure or loosen the band?

a)


Spindle

b)

Box

c)

Head

d)

Locking knob

64.

What is used to lubricate the patient's lips?

a)

K-Y jelly

b)

Petroleum jelly

c)

Smuckers' jelly

d)

Brushless shave cream

65.

When placing the rubber dam clamp, it is positioned on the buccal aspect of the tooth first.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Where would you place cotton rolls for an MO amalgam on tooth #31?

a)

Mandibular Buccal

b)

Mandibular Lingual

c)

Maxillary Buccal

d)

Mandibular Buccal and Mandibular Lingual

67.

Which embrasure is the largest and as such, is usually best suited for wedge placement?

a)


Buccal

b)


Lingual

c)

Occlusal

68.

Which of these is incorrect regarding the placement of a wooden wedge during the restoration of a Class II amalgam:

a)

Minimizes the possibility of an "over hang"

b)

Separates the teeth slightly to compensate for the space taken up by the thickness of the matrix band

c)

Must be inserted with the point of the triangle towards the gingival

d)

Must extend slightly gingival to the gingival margin of the cavity prep

69.

Which part of the matrix retainer increases and/or decreases the circumference of the band loop?

a)

Vice

b)

Guide slot

c)

Inner adjusting nut

d)

Outer adjusting nut

70.

________ is the arched band of metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together

a)


Jaw

b)

Forcep

c)

Point

d)


Bow

71.

A smooth polished surface is more likely to accumulate acids and plaque which may encourage galvanic action on the surface.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Amalgam finishing burs are made of ____________ instead of ________ like those used to prepare the cavities

a)


Plain steel / carbide

b)

Carbide/plain steel

c)

Diamond dust

73.

Are these criteria examples of finishing or polishing? Exhibit margins that are flush with adjacent tooth surfaces; major anatomical contours are consistent with surrounding tooth structures; the occlusion is even with other teeth; the surface is smooth with no deep scratches.

a)

Finishing

b)

Polishing

74.

Evidence suggests that polishing of high copper amalgams is unnecessary

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Final finishing and polishing of amalgams should not be done until the amalgam has reached its final set, approximately how long after it has been placed and carved?

a)


2-4 days

b)

7-10 days

c)

4-8 hours

d)


24-48 hours

76.

Finishing and polishing of amalgam restorations may assist in the maintenance of periodontal health by reducing rough surfaces that irritate adjacent gingival and contribute to increased plaque accumulation.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Finishing discs are most helpful on what surfaces

a)


Round surfaces such as fossa

b)

Broad, smooth surfaces such as class V

c)

Pits and fissures

d)

Any class II restoration

78.

If a contact it too tight it may present the potential for mechanical irritation from

a)

may tear floss

b)

floss being forced through the contacts

c)

may frustrate the patient so he/she won't floss at all

d)

all of the above

79.

It is best to use ________ speed and ______pressure to smooth the occlusal margins of a new restoration.

a)

slow/heavy

b)


fast/heavy

c)

fast/light

d)

medium/light

80.

Over contoured/ under carved restorations can contribute to periodontal disease to a much lesser degree than under contoured/ over carved restoration would.

a)

False

b)

True

81.

Over- polishing (or improper polishing techniques) may allow the restoration to overheat and bring mercury to the surface. This will leave a very shiny surface that is less susceptible to corrosion.

a)

The first sentence is true and the second sentence is false

b)

The first sentence is false and the second sentence is true

c)

Both sentences are true

82.

Premature finishing and polishing will cause which of the below conditions?

a)

Weaken the restoration

b)

Disturb the crystalline structure of the amalgam

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

83.

Proper finishing and polishing can help to prevent amalgam deterioration


a)

True

b)

False

84.

Submarginal areas of enamel equaling ___________ can be eliminated with a _____________

a)

.2mm/green stone

b)

.02 mm/ white stone

c)


.02mm/ green stone

d)


.2mm/white stone

85.

What is the correct order when using impregnated polishing systems

a)

Greenie/super greenie/ brownie

b)

Super greenie/greenie/brownie

c)

Greenie/brownie/super greenie

d)

Brownie/greenie/super greenie

86.

What will happen if we use our finishing discs out of order (such as fine then medium then coarse)?

a)

We will get a nice, high polish shine

b)

We will see scratches on the amalgam that become less noticeable, until they are no longer visible

c)

We will fail to remove the deep scratches left by coarsest abrasives

87.

What would be an acceptable system to use in place of the pumice/tin oxide system of polishing?

a)

Burs

b)

Stones

c)

Coarse Finishing strips only

d)

Impregnated cups and points

88.

When using hand instruments such as amalgam knife and file, which is used first?

a)

Knife

b)

File

89.

_______ is done to obtain a smooth shiny luster on the surface of the amalgam so that it is easier to keep clean.

a)

Polishing

b)

Finishing

c)

Carving

d)

Burnishing

90.

____________ Amalgam restorations involve removing marginal irregularities, defining anatomical contours and smoothing the surface roughness of the restoration.

a)


Carving

b)

Burnishing

c)

Finishing

d)

Polishing

91.

if you have significant submarginal areas (>.2mm)in the box of an MO restoration on tooth #13, it's best to

a)

use a sandpaper strip to smooth the area

b)

use an amalgam knife and file

c)

replace the restoration

d)

Try to add more material to the submarginal place.

92.

Bases and liners may be used as sealers, reinforcers, insulators, obtundants, and pulp stimulators.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

What happens if calcium hydroxide is applied too thick? (more than .5mm)

a)

The restoration may change color

b)

The restoration may fail

c)

The restoration will be too tall

d)

The calcium hydroxide is a temporary filling

94.

COPAL VARNISH AND ZINC OXIDE

EUGENOL CAN BE USED UNDER COMPOSITE

a)

True

b)

False

95.

YOU CAN USE CALCIUM HYDROXIDE

UNDER COMPOSITE RESINS

a)

True

b)

False

96.

YOU CAN USE GLASSIONOMERS

UNDER COMPOSITE RESINS

a)

True

b)

False

97.

If the restoration is overcarved, the result may be an undercontoured restoration.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

If an amalgam is left overcontoured

a)

remove replace

b)

adjust with finishing and polishing

99.

If the amalgam is undercontoured

a)

it should be removed and replaced

b)

It can be adjusted

100.

the higher content of mercury in the amalgam

a)

Stronger it is

b)

Long lasting

c)

Weaker

101.

A composite-ionomer restoration refers to

a)

a cavity preparation with glassionomer liner on the pulpal floor and dentin walls covered with composite for esthetics.

b)

a hybrid composite material used solely as a restorative.

c)

a glassionomer material used solely as a restorative.

d)

a class IV restoration of tooth colored material.

102.

Bonding agent is applied to etched surfaces of the teeth

a)

to prevent hypersensitivity.

b)

as a wetting agent to allowing better flow of the composite.

c)

to achieve maximum retention and seal.

d)

all of the above

103.

Bonding agents may bond with:

a)

enamel

b)

dentin

c)

glass ionomer

d)

all of these

104.

If the tooth becomes wet again after the first etch , how long should you reapply the acid etchant?

a)

15 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

20 seconds

d)

8 seconds

105.

The purpose of acid etching enamel before placing a resin is

a)

to prevent recurrent decay by killing organisms on the tooth surface.

b)

to soften the surface to remove the outer layer of enamel and expose new enamel.

c)

to create micropores into which the resin material will flow to form a mechanical bond.

d)

to establish a chemically activated surface to which the sealant will chemically bond.

106.

A 45 degree bevel is recommended at the margin because

a)

removes the outer layer of enamel

b)

provides more surface area for bonding

c)

greater potential for strengthening the remaining tooth structure

d)

all of these

107.

Uncured resin deep within the filling may result in:

a)

gross microleakage

b)

high solubility

c)

hypersensitivity

d)

galvanism

108.

When posterior teeth are viewed from the occlusal, the proximal contacts are usually located:

a)

more lingual in the buccal to lingual direction.

b)

more distal in a mesial to distal direction

c)

more mesial in a mesial to distal direction.

d)

more buccal in a buccal to lingual direction.

109.

When removing excess composite on facial surfaces during finishing and polishing, it is recommended to use

a)

flame shaped carbide finishing burs.

b)

inverted cone shaped plain steel burs.

c)

round carbide finishing burs.

d)

round diamond burs.

110.

When using a composite-ionomer technique, acid etch is used

a)


on enamel walls only.

b)

inside the cavity prep only.

c)

on enamel walls first-then added on the glassionomer liner and surrounding dentin for the remainder of the etch time.

d)

on enamel, dentin, and glassionomer liner for the full etching time.

111.

Which product contains 75-80% inorganic filler by weight?

a)

Hybrid composite

b)

Nano-fils

c)

sealant material

d)

conventional large particle

112.

You are restoring a class IV defect on tooth #9. Of the options listed below, which area best describes the ideal position of interproximal contact?

a)

Middle one-third

b)


Incisal one third

c)

Gingival one third

d)

Middle to gingival one third

113.

Acid etch enamel must be washed for _____ seconds; gel etchants should be washed up to _____ seconds longer following manufacturers instructions.

(a)  

114.

Filling and curing one proximal box before filling the other one provides (a)   tooth separation.

115.

If dentin is less than (a)   thick place calcium hydroxide nearest to the pulp.