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Earth and Space Final Exam

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most ozone is found in a region of Earth’s atmosphere between 10 and 20 miles above Earth’s surface. This temperature zone of the atmosphere is known as the

a)

Thermosphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Troposphere

2.

Why are P-waves received, but S-waves are not received by seismic stations located on the opposite side of Earth from an earthquake epicenter?

a)

S-waves travel slower than P-waves

b)

S-waves travel faster than P-waves

c)

Earth’s inner core absorbs S-waves

d)

Earth’s outer core absorbs S-waves

3.

0 degrees longitude starts at the imaginary line running through Greenwich, England. What is the name of this imaginary line?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

Equator

c)

Arctic Circle

d)

North Pole

e)

Tropic of Cancer

4.

What are the latitude and longitude lines?

a)

Imaginary lines that divide the Earth

b)

Visible lines that divide the Earth

c)

Long and short line that divide the Earth

d)

Real lines that mark territories

e)

None of the above

5.

Who is closer to the Equator: Freddy, standing at 41 degrees North Latitude, or Suzanne, standing at 12 degrees North Latitude?

a)

Freddy

b)

Suzanne

c)

They are the same distance from the Equator

d)

Feddy and Suzanne are equally distant

e)

Cannot determine

6.

Who is closer to the Prime Meridian: Mike, standing at 72 degrees, 30 minutes East longitude, or Shirley, standing at 72 degrees, 30 minutes West longitude?

a)

Mike

b)

Shirley

c)

They are the same distance

d)

Cannot be determined

e)

Both are equally distant

7.

What is the main line of longitude called?

a)

Equator

b)

Northern Hemisphere

c)

Prime Meridian

d)

Tropic of Cancer

e)

International Date Line

8.

What is the angle between the Equator and the North Pole?

a)

90 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

180 degrees

d)

0 degrees

e)

30 degrees

9.

What is the imaginary line at 180 degrees longitude that separates one day from another called?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

International Date Line

c)

Arctic Circle

d)

Equator

e)

North Pole

10.

What does the equator, an imaginary line, divide the Earth into?

a)

Northern and Southern Hemisphere

b)

Eastern and Western Hemisphere

c)

Tropical and Polar Regions

d)

Arctic and Antarctic Circles

e)

Equatorial and Non-Equatorial Regions

11.

What is located 90 degrees north of the Equator?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

North pole

c)

South Pole

d)

International Date Line

e)

Equator

12.

What is the primary purpose of the latitude lines?

a)

To indicate elevation

b)

To measure time

c)

To measure distances

d)

To identify locations

e)

None of the above

13.

List the four spheres

a)

Lithosphere Hydrosphere Biosphere Atmosphere

b)

Lithosphere Stratosphere Biosphere Mesosphere

c)

Lithosphere Hydrosphere Cryosphere Atmosphere

d)

Lithosphere Hydrosphere Exosphere Atmosphere

14.

Rank the following stellar objects from smallest to largest

a)

Moon, planet, solar system, galaxy, and universe

b)

Planet, moon, galaxy, solar system, and universe

c)

Universe, galaxy, solar system, planet, and moon

d)

Moon, planet, solar system, universe, and galaxy.

15.

What is the approximate age of the universe?

a)

4.5 million years old

b)

4.5 billion years old

c)

13.7 million years old

d)

13.7 billions years old

16.

Which unit of measurement describes the distance between the Earth and Sun?

a)

Kilometer

b)

Light Year

c)

Parsec

d)

Astronomical Unit

17.

The gravitational attraction between two objects in the universe is greatest when their masses are

a)

Small and the objects are close together

b)

Small and the objects are far apart

c)

Large and the objects are far apart

d)

Large and the objects are close together

18.

Almost everything we know about the universe is based on….

a)

Our observations of light

b)

Sending astronauts to outer space

c)

Listening to cosmic background radiation

d)

Studying impact craters on the Earth and Moon

19.

What event is known as the beginning of the universe?

a)

The Big Crunch

b)

The Big Bang

c)

Cosmic Inflation

d)

The Steady State Theory

20.

Which of the following statements about the Big Bang Theory is true?

a)

It suggest the universe is contracting

b)

It states that the universe was once in a hot, dense state

c)

It explains the future fate of our universe

d)

It is universally accepted without any evidence

21.

What Phenomenon explains the change in frequency or wavelength of light from an object moving away from an observer?

a)

Redshift

b)

Blueshift

c)

Doppler Effect

d)

Gravitational Lensing

22.

Which of the following objects gives off their own light?

a)

Black holes

b)

Planets

c)

Main sequences stars

d)

Moons

23.

Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?

a)

Gamma rays

b)

X-Rays

c)

Infrared

d)

Radio Waves

24.

Which type of electromagnetic radiation travels the fastest?

a)

Radio

b)

Ultraviolet

c)

Gamma Ray

d)

All EM waves travel at the same speed

25.

Stars are composed of

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

26.

Which process occurring in the Sun produces energy by converting lighter hydrogen into heavier helium?

a)

Radiation

b)

Conduction

c)

Radioactive decay

d)

Nuclear fusion

27.

When the star reaches the end of its life cycle, the nuclear force is overtaken by which force?

a)

Electromagnetic Force

b)

Gravitational Force

c)

Rotational Force

d)

Frictional Force

28.

Stars fuse lighter elements into heavier elements throughout their lifetime until which element is reached?

a)

Helium

b)

Iron

c)

Carbon

d)

Silicon

29.

Which of the following is true about the life cycle of massive stars compared to smaller stars?

a)

Massive stars live longer than smaller stars

b)

Massive stars do not go through a supernova

c)

Massive stars end their life cycle as black holes or neutron stars

d)

All stars follow the same life cycle regardless of size

30.

What would you expect to be the relationship between the density of gas and dust in a nebula, and the rate of star formation within that nebula?

a)

As density of gas and dust increases, the rate of star formation decreases.

b)

As density of gas and dust increases, the rate of star formation increases.

c)

As density of gas and dust decreases, the rate of star formation increases.

d)

Star formation is not dependent on density of matter.

31.

Stars with very low mass can have lifetimes of hundreds of billions of years, whereas stars with very high mass have much shorter lifetimes on the order of a billion years. How does luminosity of these stars help explain the large difference in these lifetimes?

a)

High mass stars fuse hydrogen into helium quicker, so they burn out faster.

b)

High mass stars fuse hydrogen into helium slower, so they live longer.

c)

High mass stars have greater gravitational pull, so they live longer.

d)

High mass stars have TBD

32.

Which of the following eject stellar matter into space, allowing for the formation of new stars and planets?

a)

Supernova

b)

Protostar

c)

Main sequence stars

d)

Supergiants

33.

When does a protostar become an “official” star?

a)

When it reaches a temperature threshold

b)

When planets begin orbiting

c)

When it has gravitational pull

d)

When fusion begins

34.

What is located at the center of our Milky Way galaxy?

a)

cluster of supergiant stars

b)

black hole

c)

dark matter

d)

our Sun

35.

What does the x-axis of the Hertzsprung-Russell (HR) diagram represent?

a)

Luminosity of stars

b)

Temperature of stars

c)

Distance of stars

d)

Size of stars

36.

Which type of star is found in the upper right portion of the HR diagram?

a)

Neutron stars

b)

White dwarfs

c)

Main sequence stars

d)

Supergiants

37.

How do stars typically move on the HR diagram as they evolve?

a)

They remain static throughout their life cycles

b)

They move from the main sequence around to the right

c)

They move from the main sequence around to the left

d)

They move in random directions

38.

What is a characteristic of red giants as seen on the HR diagram?

a)

They have low luminosity and high temperature

b)

They have high luminosity and low temperature

c)

They have high luminosity and high temperature

d)

They have low luminosity and low temperature

39.

Which of the following statements is true regarding white dwarfs on the HR diagram?

a)

They are very luminous and cool

b)

They are found in the upper right corner

c)

They are hot and have low luminosity

d)

They form before main sequence stars

40.

What are the compositional layers of the earth defined by?

a)

Physical properties

b)

Chemical properties

c)

Magnetic properties

d)

Biogeographic properties

41.

What type of properties define the mechanical layers of the Earth?

a)

Physical properties

b)

Chemical properties

c)

Magnetic properties

d)

Biogeographic properties

42.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth’s layers?

a)

Crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

b)

Mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

Outer core, inner core, crust, mantle

d)

Crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

43.

The thin, outer layer of the lithosphere that forms the Earth’s surface is called the

a)

Mantle

b)

Crust

c)

Inner Core

d)

Outer Core

44.

What type of metals is the inner core made mostly of?

a)

Iron and basalt

b)

Iron and granite

c)

Iron and nickel

d)

Iron and silicon

45.

The soft layers of the mantle on which the lithosphere floats is the

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Outer core

c)

Inner core

d)

Asthenosphere

46.

What physical property causes the Earth to have layers?

a)

Temperature

b)

Density

c)

Pressure

d)

Seismic Waves

47.

Which is denser?

a)

Oceanic crust

b)

Continental crust

c)

They have the same density

48.

What layer of the Earth is most responsible for Earth’s magnetic field?

a)

Lower mantle

b)

Atmosphere

c)

Inner core

d)

Outer core

49.

What does Earth’s magnetic field shield it from?

a)

Climate change

b)

Asteroid impacts

c)

Solar winds

d)

Auroras

50.

What type of rock mostly makes up continental crust?

a)

Granite

b)

Obsidian

c)

Basalt

d)

Marble

51.

What is thinner?

a)

Continental crust

b)

Oceanic crust

c)

They have the same thickness.

52.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth’s plates is caused by

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection currents

c)

Earthquakes

d)

Earth’s magnetic field

53.

Why is the Earth’s inner core solid?

a)

Density

b)

Pressure

c)

Temperature

d)

Type of rock it contains

54.

Using data from seismic waves, geologists have learned that the Earth’s interior is made up of several

a)

Continents

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Ridges

d)

Layers

55.

Which type of seismic waves cannot travel through liquids?

a)

S-waves

b)

P-waves

c)

Love waves

56.

Alfred Wegener is best known for what hypothesis?

a)

Seafloor spreading

b)

Plate tectonics

c)

Continental drift

d)

Subduction

57.

What is the name of the ancient supercontinent that broke apart about 200 million years ago?

a)

Gondwana

b)

Eurasia

c)

Pangaea

d)

Panthalassa

58.

Fossils of the Mesosaurus, a prehistoric freshwater animal, have been found on the continents of South America and Africa. The distribution of these fossils suggest that these areas were once…

a)

Made of similar chemical elements

b)

Covered by oceanic crust

c)

Connected to one another

d)

Frozen

59.

Scientists have found fossils of tropical plants in Antarctica. How could tropical plants have grown in Antarctica?

a)

At one time, Earth’s entire surface was a tropical rainforest.

b)

At one time, the continent of Antarctica was located closer to the equator.

c)

At one time, the rotation of Earth increased in speed, causing a warming of the atmosphere.

d)

Catastrophic volcanic eruptions melted the thin ice of Antarctica and exposed the sunlight.

60.

Which of the following is NOT evidence of continental drift?

a)

A land bridge once connected different continents

b)

Similar rock types on different continents

c)

Similar fossils on different continents

d)

Similar glacial striations and till on different continents

61.

Which layer of the Earth is composed of tectonic plates?

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Asthenosphere

d)

Exosphere

62.

What layer of the Earth does the lithosphere float on top of?

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Outer core

c)

Asthenosphere

d)

Troposphere

63.

Which two scientists provided the supporting evidence necessary to validate the hypothesis of continental drift?

a)

Harry Hess and Marie Tharp

b)

Marie Curie and Alfred Wegener

c)

Alfred Wegener and Marie Tharp

d)

Harry Hess and Alfred Wegener

64.

Where does seafloor spreading take place?

a)

Continental rift alleys

b)

Hot spots

c)

Volcanic island arcs

d)

Mid-ocean ridges

65.

Where do convection currents take place?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer core

d)

Inner core

66.

What type of plate boundary exists at a mid-ocean ridge?

a)

Convergent plate boundary

b)

Divergent plate boundary

c)

Subduction plate boundary

d)

Transform plate boundary

67.

What type of plate boundary are subduction zones associated with?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Volcanic plate boundary

d)

Transform plate boundary

68.

Mountain ranges are usually associated with…

a)

A convergent boundary between oceanic crust and continental crust

b)

A divergent boundary between oceanic crust and continental crust

c)

A convergent boundary between two different continental crust

d)

A transform boundary between two different continental crusts

69.

What type of tectonic plate boundary involves a collision between two plates?

a)

Convergent plate boundary

b)

Divergent plate boundary

c)

Subduction plate boundary

d)

Transform plate boundary

70.

What type of tectonic plate boundary involves two plates moving away from one another in opposite directions?

a)

Convergent plate boundary

b)

Divergent plate boundary

c)

Volcanic plate boundary

d)

Transform plate boundary

71.

What type of tectonic plate boundary involves two plates sliding and grinding past one another horizontally without destroying any crust?

a)

Convergent plate boundary

b)

Divergent plate boundary

c)

Subduction plate boundary

d)

Transform plate boundary

72.

Which type of plate boundary is MOST associated with earthquakes?

a)

Transform plate boundary

b)

Divergent plate boundary

c)

Rigid plate boundary

d)

Convergent plate boundary

73.

Which of the following is NOT evidence of seafloor spreading?

a)

Magnetic pole reversals

b)

Age of rocks on ocean floor

c)

Mantle plumes in hot spots

d)

Molten material at mid-ocean ridges

74.

Which of the following does NOT occur at the convergent plate boundary?

a)

Volcanic island arcs

b)

Continental volcanic mountain arcs

c)

Ocean trenches

d)

Rift valleys

75.

Which of the following is caused by continental divergent plate boundaries?

a)

Volcanic island arcs

b)

Rifts valleys

c)

Continental mountains

d)

Deep ocean trenches

76.

Volcanic arcs are associated with…

a)

Divergent boundaries

b)

Convergent boundaries

c)

Transform boundaries

d)

All of the above

77.

What is a vibration of Earth produced by the rapid release of energy within the lithosphere called?

a)

Fault

b)

Epicenter

c)

Volcano

d)

Earthquake

78.

What is lava underneath Earth’s surface called?

a)

Lava

b)

Magma

c)

Mantle

d)

Asthenosphere

79.

What type of volcano is tall and has the most violent and explosive eruptions?

a)

Cinder cone

b)

Stratovolcano (composite)

c)

Supervolcano

d)

Shield volcano

80.

What is the name of the place beneath Earth’s surface where an earthquake starts?

a)

Fault

b)

Focus

c)

Epicenter

d)

Wave front

81.

What type of wave shake particles at right angles to the wave’s direction of travel?

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

Surface waves

d)

Body waves

82.

What process occurs when an earthquake’s shaking turns loose soil into mud?

a)

Landslide

b)

Seismic shaking

c)

Tsunamis

d)

Liquefaction

83.

What is the location on the surface of Earth where an earthquake is centered?

a)

Fault

b)

Focus

c)

Epicenter

d)

Wave front

84.

What type of volcanoes are the largest and are produced by the accumulation or runny basaltic lava?

a)

Cinder cone

b)

Stratovolcano (composite)

c)

Supervolcano

d)

Shield volcano

85.

What is a break in the lithosphere where movement has occurred?

a)

Fold

b)

Fault

c)

Focus

d)

Earthquake

86.

Which type of seismic wave arrives first at a seismograph?

a)

S wave

b)

P wave

c)

Surface wave

d)

Electromagnetic waves

87.

Which gas is the most abundant in Earth’s atmosphere?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

88.

What causes a front to form?

a)

The boundary between two air masses with different temperatures and densities

b)

A rapid drop in precipitation

c)

Cloud formation at high altitudes

d)

Warm air compressing

89.

A cold front forms when:

a)

Warm air moves over cold air

b)

Cold air pushes under warm air

c)

Cold and warm air meet and stop moving

d)

Warm air gradually rises over cold air

90.

What typically happens at a warm front?

a)

Cold air moves quickly beneath warm air

b)

Warm air sinks beneath cold air

c)

Cold and warm air meet and stop moving

d)

Warm air gradually rises over cold air

91.

Which of the following best describes a stationary front?

a)

Fast-moving cold air

b)

Warm air overtakes cold air

c)

Two air masses the meet but don’t move

d)

Air moving in opposite directions

92.

Warm fronts generally move:

a)

Rapidly with turbulent air

b)

Sideways, without lifting

c)

With cold air overtaking warm

d)

Slowly with gradual lifting of warm air

93.

Why do thunderstorms often occur along cold fronts?

a)

Cold air rapidly lifts warm, moist air, leading to condensation

b)

Warm air quickly sinks

c)

Air pressure drops

d)

Cloud cannot form quickly

94.

What type of weather might follow a cold front?

a)

Warmer temperatures and sunshine

b)

Strong winds and hot temperatures

c)

Persistent rain

d)

Cooler, drier air with clear skies

95.

Which of the following would most likely be found in the center of a low-pressure system?

a)

Sunny skies

b)

High temperatures

c)

Rising air and cloud formation

d)

Dry, sinking air

96.

What effect does warm air have on air pressure?

a)

It increases air pressure

b)

It causes lower air pressure

c)

It makes pressure constant

d)

It causes high-pressure systems to form

97.

Which direction does air move in a low-pressure system in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Outward and clockwise

b)

Inward and counterclockwise

c)

Inward and clockwise

d)

Outward and counterclockwise

98.

Occluded fronts often bring:

a)

Clear and sunny weather

b)

Complex precipitation patterns, including rain and snow

c)

No change in weather

d)

Drought conditions

99.
The air mass labelled mP is most likely...
a)
wet and cold
b)
dry and warm
c)
wet and dry
d)
warm and cold
100.
Air masses that form over water and are filled with moisture are called ________ air masses.
a)
continental
b)
polar
c)
tropical
d)
maritime
101.
When did the big bang occur?
a)
26.5 billion yrs
b)
30.2 billion yrs
c)
10.4 billion yrs
d)
13.8 billion years ago
102.
The Big Bang Theory suggests that
a)
planet collision formed our solar system
b)
gravity formed our solar system
c)
a tiny particle exploded and created our solar system
d)
space rock and dust formed our planets
103.
Which is *NOT* evidence for the Big Bang theory?
a)
Hieroglypiphics describing the instant of the Big Bang
b)
Amounts of hydrogen and helium
c)
Red-shifted galaxies
d)
Smooth cosmic background radiation
104.
How can red shifting be seen as evidence for The Big Bang Theory?
a)
That the universe is still collapsing
b)
That the universe is more red than anything
c)
That the galaxies are shifting together and creating nebulas
d)
That the universe is still expanding
105.
Galaxies contain.......
a)
Just the Sun
b)
None of these answers
c)
Only animals and human
d)
Planets, Stars, Gas, and Dust
106.
The Milky Way is a ____ galaxy.
a)
spiral
b)
elliptical
c)
lenticular
d)
irregular
107.
What's at the center of the Milky Way?
a)
a planet
b)
a star
c)
a neutron star
d)
a supermassive black hole
108.
The force that dominates the formation of a star is
a)
pressure.
b)
magnetism.
c)
gravity.
d)
electricity.
109.
A star begins its formation as gravitational forces cause instability within a
a)
black hole
b)
supernova
c)
nebula
d)
red giant
110.
A star's life cycle will depend mainly on its
a)
brightness
b)
color
c)
temperature
d)
mass
111.
which of the fallowing is not a possible stage of a star's life cycle?
a)
Nebula
b)
Giant
c)
Neutron star
d)
Planet
112.
A star begins it's life cycle as a cloud of dust and gas, called
a)
A galaxy
b)
A red shift
c)
A star cluster
d)
A nebula
113.
The final stage in the life cycle of the most massive stars is a
a)
white dwarf
b)
black dwarf
c)
black hole
d)
supergiant
114.
Which of the following is part of our solar system?
a)
The sun
b)
Planets
c)
Moons
d)
All of the above
115.
How many planets are in our solar system?
a)
1
b)
8
c)
5
d)
6
116.
Clouds form along weather fronts because warm air
a)
sinks and warms
b)
sinks and cools
c)
rises and cools
d)
rises and gets warmer
117.
Warm fronts bring
a)
warmer temperatures, dry weather
b)
warmer temperatures, rainy weather
c)
cooler temperatures, dry weather
d)
cooler temperatures, rainy weather
118.
Air masses have common
a)
rain fall and altitude
b)
temperature and humidity
c)
pressure and fronts
d)
topography and distance to water
119.
Cold fronts typically bring
a)
warmer temperature and storms
b)
warmer temperatures and fair weather
c)
cooler temperatures and storms
d)
cooler temperatures and fair weather
120.
Cold fronts are associated with __________ weather.
a)
severe weather
b)
light wind & light precipitation
121.
mT air masses are _____
a)
cold & humid
b)
warm & humid
c)
cold & dry
d)
cold & humid
122.
Where do Air Masses get there characteristics
a)
from there source region
b)
near the equator
c)
under the surface of the earth
d)
from there air mass
123.
Air masses from the poles are____________
a)
wet
b)
warm
c)
cold
d)
dry
124.
Maritime air masses will always be dry.
a)
True
b)
False
125.
Where do continental polar air masses form?
a)
Texas and Mexico
b)
Canada
c)
North Pacific Ocean
d)
Gulf of Mexico
126.
When two air masses meets and stop moving
a)
Cold Front
b)
Warm Front
c)
Stationary Front
d)
Quarter Front
127.
The boundary between two or more air masses (where they meet)
a)
front
b)
cloud
c)
thunderstorm
d)
weather
128.
What are the proper air mass symbols for air masses X and Y?
a)
X = cP, Y = mT
b)
X = cT, Y = mP
c)
X = mT, Y = cP
d)
X = mP, Y = cT
129.
Air masses that form over water and are filled with moisture are called ________ air masses.
a)
continental
b)
polar
c)
tropical
d)
maritime
130.
The air mass labelled mP is most likely...
a)
wet and cold
b)
dry and warm
c)
wet and dry
d)
warm and cold
131.
What is a contour interval?
a)
Difference in elevation between contour lines
b)
The elevationn above water
132.
What is the contour interval?
a)
500
b)
100
c)
20
d)
1000
133.
Where can the steepest slope be found?
a)
North
b)
Northwest
c)
Southwest
d)
Northeast
134.

The Oceanic crust is younger than Continental crust because
it subducts and is recycled.
a)
True
b)
False
135.
The seasons on Earth are a result of:
a)
Earth getting nearer and farther from the Sun.
b)
Sun spots.
c)
Earth's tilted axis
136.
The apparent change in wavelengths of a moving energy source is called:
a)
The Coriolis Effect.
b)
The Doppler Effect.
137.
The Earth Science field which studies stars, planets, and galaxies is:
a)
Astronomy.
b)
Astrology.
138.
The Earth Science field which studies the interaction of people with their environment is:
a)
Astronomy.
b)
Meteorology.
c)
Ecology.
d)
Economics.
139.

The Earth Science field which studies the history, processes, and structure of the Earth is Geology
a)
True
b)
False
140.

The Earth Science field which studies the atmosphere and weather is:
a)
Meteorology.
b)
Ecology.
141.
Tides are caused by the pull of the moon
a)
True
b)
False
142.
Salt water is denser than fresh; cold water is denser than warm.
a)
True.
b)
False.
143.

Evidence for the Big Bang Theory includes red shift in the spectra of galaxies
a)
True
b)
False
144.

The work of scientists generally begins with making observations and asking questions.
a)
True
b)
False
145.
One study is all you need to prove a hypothesis. 
a)
True.
b)
False.