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ATM 1

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three principal processes of air traffic management?

a)

Air traffic control, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance

b)

Air traffic control, Airspace management and Air traffic flow management

c)

Air traffic services, Airspace management and Air traffic flow management

d)

Airspace management, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance

2.

Who has final authority of an aircraft:

a)

The operator of the aircraft

b)

The pilot in command

c)

The controller

d)

The manufactuer

3.

Aerodrome is:

a)

A defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

b)

A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

c)

A defined area on land (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

d)

A defined area on water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

4.

Alternate aerodrome is:

a)

An aerodrome at which flight information service is provided to aerodrome traffic

b)

An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operational at the expected time of use

c)

An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic

d)

An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to take off at the aerodrome of intended take off where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operational at the expected time of use

5.

Take-off alternate aerodrome is:

a)

An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic

b)

An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing

c)

An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route

d)

An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure

6.

En-route alternate aerodrome is:

a)

An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic

b)

An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing

c)

An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure

d)

An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route

7.

Controlled aerodrome is:

a)

An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to enroute traffic

b)

An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrom traffic

c)

An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to arrival traffic

d)

An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to local traffic

8.

The objectives of Airspace management (ASM) are to:

a)

Airspace Design

b)

Provide Separation

c)

Balance Capacity and Demand

d)

Provide Capacity

9.

The objectives of Air traffic flow management (ATFM) are to:

a)

Airspace Design

b)

Provide Separation

c)

Balance Capacity and Demand

d)

Provide Capacity

10.

The objectives of Air traffic services (ATS) are to:

a)

Airspace Design

b)

Provide Separation

c)

Balance Capacity and Demand

d)

Provide Capacity

11.

ATM also aids in search and rescue:

a)

Probably

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Definitely

12.

ATM include search and rescue:

a)

Probably

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Definitely

13.

Touchdown is the point where the nominal glide path intercepts….

a)

Final course

b)

Runway

c)

Localizer

d)

Outer maker

14.

An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by….

a)

An ATC unit

b)

2 ATC Units

c)

3 ATC Units

d)

4 ATC Units

15.

What is rescue unit?

a)

An unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of search and rescue

b)

An unit composed of trained personnel or provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of search and rescue

c)

An unit provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of search and rescue

d)

An unit composed of trained personnel for the expeditious conduct of search and rescue

16.

What is the frequency used by emergency locator beacon?

a)

121.5 MHz

b)

125.5 MHz

c)

125.1 MHz

d)

121.1 MHz

17.

What is the definition of controlled flight:

a)

All flight in the air

b)

Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance

c)

Any flight to controlled and uncontrolled airspace

d)

Any flight to uncontrolled airspace

18.

Who shall decide the establishment of an enterprise providing air traffic service at VietNam?

a)

Prime minister

b)

Minister of transport

c)

Minister of national defense

d)

ICAO

19.

Who shall decide the Organization and management of ANS at VietNam?

a)

Prime minister

b)

Minister of transport

c)

Minister of national defense

d)

ICAO

20.

Who shall provide ANS at VietNam?

a)

Prime minister

b)

Minister of transport

c)

Minister of national defense

d)

ICAO

21.

Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to foreign VIP flights carrying the guests of party and state?

a)

Minister of transport

b)

Civil Aviation Authority of VN

c)

Minister of national defense

d)

Minister of foreign affairs

22.

Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to vietnamese and foreign military aircraft?

a)

Minister of national defense

b)

Minister of transport

c)

Minister of foreign affairs

d)

Civil Aviation Authority of VN

23.

Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission for civil flights operated in vietnam be issued?

a)

Minister of national defense

b)

Minister of transport

c)

Minister of foreign affairs

d)

Civil Aviation Authority of VN

24.

Flight permission granted to flights arriving and departing at the airports of Viet Nam shall become effective at 12 (twelve) hour prior to and until... hours after the ETA, ETD indicated in the permission:

a)

06

b)

24

c)

12

d)

18

25.

Over-flight permission shall become effective 03 (three) hours prior to and until... hours after estimated over flight time indicated in the flight permission:

a)

36

b)

24

c)

72

d)

48

26.

The time validation of permission for over-flight aircraft in Viet Nam shall become effective time:

a)

12 hours-24 hours

b)

24 hours - 72 hours

c)

1 hour - 12 hours

d)

3 hours-72 hours

27.

The sequence of emergency phases are:

a)

No difference

b)

ALERFA, INCERFA, DETRESFA

c)

DETRESFA, ALERFA, INCERFA

d)

INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA

28.

Choose the best answers:

a)

The frequency 121.5 MHz is guarded continuously during the hours of service at only the ground control offcice

b)

The frequency 121.5 MHz is guarded continuously during the hours of service at only the aerodrome control tower

c)

The frequency 121.5MHz is guarded non-continuously during the hours of service at all area control centres. It is also available at the approach control office

d)

The frequency 121.5MHz is guarded continuously during the hours of services at all area control centres. It is also available at the approach control office

29.

IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with:

a)

Instrument Filght rules

b)

Visual Flight rules + General rules

c)

Visual Flight rules

d)

Instrument Filght rules + General rules

30.

VFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with:

a)

Instrument Filght rules

b)

Visual Flight rules + General rules

c)

Visual Flight rules

d)

Instrument Filght rules + General rules

31.

Can visual flight operate with the visual flight rules only?

a)

No

b)

It shall be in compliance with the general rules

c)

Yes, always

d)

None of correct

32.

On board an aircraft, the altitude is measured from the:

a)

Radio altitude

b)

Pressure altitude

c)

Density altitude

d)

True altitude

33.

What is VFR flight:

a)

Flight operated on advisory airspace

b)

Flight complied with instrument flight rules

c)

Flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules

d)

None of correct

34.

Who provides assurance between the collision of aircraft with another aircraft or terrain?

a)

Autopilot

b)

FMS

c)

ATM

d)

Pilot

35.

The request to change from IFR flight to VFR flight is:

a)

Made by the pilot in command or Suggested by ATC when VMC exists

b)

Suggested by ATC when VMC exists

c)

Made by the pilot in command

d)

Made by the pilot in command and Suggested by ATC when VMC exists.

36.

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is:

a)

all of above

b)

if the clearance contains a restriction

c)

when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion."

d)

an emergency

37.

During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be reported as:

a)

altitude above mean sea level during the climb

b)

flight level during descent.

c)

either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during the climb

d)

altitude above mean sea level during descent

38.

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed as:

a)

flight level at or below the transition level

b)

flight level at or below the transition altitude

c)

altitude above sea level at or above the transition altitude

d)

altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude

39.

The altitude at which or below which the position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. That is the definition of:

a)

Minimum Sector Altitude

b)

Transition Altitude

c)

Transition Flight level

d)

Minimum En-route Altitude

40.

Whilst flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be reported as:

a)

it depends upon what is set on the altimeter

b)

altitude

c)

height

d)

flight level

41.

Transition Level is:

a)

300m (1000) above transition altitude

b)

The lowest flight level an aircraft can use during its flight

c)

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude

d)

The lowest flight level that can be given to an arriving aircraft by air traffic unit

42.

Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes:

a)

lateral

b)

horizotal

c)

vertical

d)

dimension

43.

The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level:

a)

Air Route

b)

Holding pattern

c)

Transition Layer

d)

Boundary layer

44.

The change in reference from altitude to flight levels of a flight, when climbing:

a)

At Boundary layer

b)

At transition layer

c)

At transition altitude

d)

At transition level

45.

The change in reference from altitude to flight levels of a flight, when descending:

a)

At Boundary layer

b)

At transition layer

c)

At transition altitude

d)

At transition level

46.

What's air traffic control clearance:

a)

Clearance for aircraft issued by tower controller

b)

Clearance issued by App controller

c)

Clearance by area controller

d)

Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit

47.

What's air traffic control instructions:

a)

Clearance for aircraft issued by tower controller

b)

The term is used to prefix a message of noncontrol information when it is relayed to an aircraft by other than an air traffic controller

c)

Directives issues by air traffic control for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action

d)

Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit

48.

Instrument meteorological conditions. expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling.. the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions:

a)

equal to or better than

b)

equal to or less than

c)

less than

d)

better than

49.

Visual meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, ... the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions:

a)

equal to or better than

b)

equal to or less than

c)

less than

d)

better than

50.

The following shall always be read back:

a)

ATC route clearance

b)

clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross and backtrack on any runway

c)

runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions and, whether issued by the controller or contained in ATTS broadcasts, transition levels

d)

All of above

51.

A complete ATC clearances include the following:

a)

Flight Number (in the flight plan)

b)

Limited clearance, the entire routes or partial routes and flight level change

c)

all of above

d)

The notice and other necessary instructions

52.

The controller can use the phrase" via flight-planned route" if:

a)

flights experiencing an emergency, including aircraft subjected to unlawful interference

b)

flights with "Head of State' status

c)

flights specially identified by State authorities

d)

all of above

53.

Who are not required to contact the ATM for navigation:

a)

IFR operator

b)

Pilot

c)

VFR operator

d)

IFR operator or VFR operator

54.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

a)

7555, 7666, 7777

b)

7500, 7600, 7777

c)

7500, 7600, 7700

d)

None of correct

55.

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in conjunction with SSR?

a)

Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7600; Communications failure 7500

b)

Distress 7500; Unlawful Interference 7700; Communications failure 7600

c)

Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7600

d)

Distress 7600; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7700

56.

The words "MAYDAY" or "PAN PAN", as appropriate, should preferably be ……at the start of the initial distress or urgency call:

a)

spoken 3 times

b)

spoken 4 times

c)

spoken 2 times

d)

spoken only ones

57.

The Alerting Service is provided by:

a)

Only by ATC units

b)

The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz

c)

The Area Control Centres

d)

The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment

58.

The definition of Special VFR flight:

a)

Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance

b)

A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules

c)

A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules

d)

A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone meteorological conditions below VMC

59.

The definition of VFR flight:

a)

Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance

b)

A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules

c)

A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules

d)

A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC

60.

The definition of IFR Flight:

a)

Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance

b)

A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules

c)

A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules

d)

A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC

61.

The Air traffic service is given priority:

a)

Air Traffic Control Services

b)

Flight Information Services

c)

Alering Services

d)

Air Traffic Advisory Services

62.

The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

a)

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office

b)

Area Control Centre-Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower

c)

Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower

d)

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower

63.

A controlled flight shall be under the control of:

a)

Only one ATC unit at any given time

b)

TWR control unit

c)

APP control unit

d)

ACC control unit

64.

Where the transfer of control is to be effected using radar or ADS-B data, the control information pertinent to the transfer shall include information regarding the position and, if required, the track and speed of the aircraft, as observed by radar or ADSB immediately....... the transfer:

a)

prior to

b)

after

c)

request for

d)

within

65.

An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

6

d)

5

66.

What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

a)

Initial; Intermediate; Descent, Final; Landing

b)

Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach

c)

Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach

d)

Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing

67.

Which abbreviation is used for Coordinated universal time?

a)

LCT

b)

GMT

c)

UTC

d)

COUT

68.

UTC is:

a)

concerns the availability of aircraft towing facilities

b)

concerns the way in which the Earth is divided into time zones and the positioning of the international Date Line

c)

is an abbreviation for co-ordinated universal time

d)

concerns the notification of the closure of taxiways

69.

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time-recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus…… of UTC at all time:

a)

30 second

b)

20 second

c)

60 second

d)

15 second

70.

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or mimus:

a)

30 seconds of UTC at all times

b)

10 seconds of UTC at all times

c)

1 minute of UTC at all times

d)

1 second of UTC at all times

71.

How long is strip marking remained:

a)

60 days

b)

90 days

c)

45 days

d)

30 days

72.

Record of FPL shall be normally kept for at least, days:

a)

10 days

b)

30 days

c)

25 days

d)

20 days

73.

How long should NOTAM remain in force?

a)

not more that six months

b)

not more that three months

c)

not more that one month

d)

not more that one year

74.

Pilots should notify air traffic control a revised estimated time if the reported estimate for the reporting point is found to be in error in excess of:

a)

± 05 minutes

b)

± 04 minutes

c)

± 02 minutes

d)

± 03 minutes

75.

The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:

a)

Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point

b)

Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point

c)

Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over

d)

Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over

76.

The order of priority for the transmission of messages in the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network shall be as follows:

a)

DD,FF, GG, KK, SS

b)

DD,FF, SS, GG, KK

c)

SS, DD, FF, GG, KK

d)

GG, KK, SS, DD, FF

77.

Aeroplane reference field length for code number 1 serodrome:

a)

Less than 800m

b)

800m up to but not including 1200m

c)

1200m up to but

d)

1800m and over

78.

Aeroplane reference field length for code number 1 aerodrome:

a)

Less than 800m

b)

800m up to but not including 1200m

c)

1200m up to but not including 1800m

d)

1800m and over

79.

Aeroplane reference field length for code number 4 aerodrome:

a)

Less than 800m

b)

800m up to but not including 1200m

c)

1200m up to but not including 1800m

d)

1800m and over

80.

Minimum safe altitude ensures (Vietnam rules of the air):

a)

At least 300m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area

b)

At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL

c)

At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain and 600 m (2000 ft) above sea

d)

At least 600m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 900m (3000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area

81.

Minimum safe altitude has been establish for ATS routes:

a)

At least 300m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000) above highest obstacle in mountain area

b)

At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL.

c)

At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain and 600 m (2000 ft) above sea.

d)

At least 600m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 900m (3000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area.

82.

Except when neccesary for take off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate authority, IFR flight shall not be flown:

a)

at a level less than 600m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position from the aircraft

b)

at a level less than 300m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position from the aircraft

c)

at a level less than 600m above the highest obstacle within 16km of the estimated position from the aircraft

d)

at a level less than 300m above the highest obstacle within 16km of the estimated position from the aircraft

83.

Clearance limit mean:

a)

The point at which an aircraft is going to hold

b)

The flight level at which an aircraft plans to fly

c)

The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance

d)

The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive

84.

An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Bi-lobal circular

c)

A cardioid balanced at 30 Hz

d)

A beam rotating at 30 Hz

85.

The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies. Transmitter ... Receiver ...

a)

1030 MHz-1030 MHz

b)

1090 MHz-1030 Mhz

c)

1090 MHz-1090 MHz

d)

1030 MHz-1090 MHz

86.

Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle:

a)

Surface Movement Radar

b)

Global Positioning System

c)

Airborne Weather Radar

d)

Secondary Surveillance Radar

87.

The DME system shall provide for continuous and accurate indication in the cockpit of the ...of an equipped aircraft from an equipped ground reference point:

a)

Longitudial distance

b)

Horizontal distance

c)

Vertical distance

d)

Slant range distance

88.

In Viet Nam the following types of radio aids to air navigation are available:

a)

NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, LORAN

b)

NDB, VOR, DME, OMEGA

c)

NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, OMEGA

d)

NDB, VOR, DME, ILS

89.

Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction:

a)

4096

b)

9999

c)

7600

d)

4444

90.

The surveillance radar normally used by ATC does not display altitude information unless the aircraft is equipped with an altitude encoding transponder. This is referred to as:

a)

Mode C

b)

Mode A

c)

Mode S

d)

Altimeter

91.

Which facility among the following provides aircraft with its azimuth and distance:

a)

VOR C

b)

VOR/DME

c)

NDB

d)

ILS

92.

Which of the following is a precision approach?

a)

VOR C

b)

VOR/DME

c)

NDB

d)

ILS

93.

What does AIDC stand for?

a)

ATC interfacility Data communication

b)

ATS interfacility Data link communication

c)

ATS interfacility Data communication

d)

ATC interfacility Data link communication

94.

ATC unit may use the following means of commmmications for coordination purposes:

a)

AFTN

b)

Direct speech circuits

c)

Data - exchange circuits

d)

all of the above

95.

Two-way communication between aircraft and stations on the face of the earth. That is the definition of:

a)

CPDLC

b)

Air-Air Traffic Services

c)

Point to Point communication

d)

Air-ground communication

96.

Two-way communication between stations and stations on the surface of the earth. That is the definition of.

a)

CPDLC

b)

Air-Air Traffic Services

c)

Point to Point communication

d)

Air-ground communication

97.

What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?

a)

Time separation and track separation

b)

Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation

c)

Vertical, horizontal and composite separation

d)

Composite separation

98.

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a speed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be....

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

15 minutes

99.

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

a)

2 minutes

b)

3 minutes

c)

4 minutes

d)

5 minutes

100.

As an emergency measure, use of flight levels spaced by the applicable vertical separation minimum may be resorted to temporarily if standard procedural separation cannot be provided immediately.

a)

triple

b)

double

c)

half

d)

quadruple

101.

When the aircraft is…. miles from the threshold on final approach, speed control should not be applied:

a)

5

b)

3

c)

4

d)

10

102.

The vertical separation minima for IFR flights in CAS applied by ATC above FL290 is:

a)

500 ft

b)

1,000 ft

c)

2,000 ft

d)

1,000 ft if RVSM is applied otherwise 2,000ft

103.

Radar separation is:

a)

The separation used when aircraft position information is derived from radar sources

b)

The separation used when aircraft equipped with airborne radar

c)

The separation used when aircraft operating in radar coverage area

d)

The separation used by an air traffic controller having radar control rating

104.

(Aircraft in holding) Except when lateral separation exists, vertical separation shall be applied between aircraft holding inflight and other aircraft, whether aniving, departing or en route, whenever the other aircraft concerned are within…….

a)

5 minutes flying time of the holding point

b)

5 miles flying time of the holding areas

c)

5 minutes flying time of the holding areas

d)

15 minutes flying time of the holding areas

105.

If two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft which shall give the way is:

a)

The one that has the other on in sight first

b)

The one that has the other on its left

c)

The one that has the other on its right

d)

The one that is faster than the other

106.

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision:

a)

Each shall alter its heading to the left

b)

The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way

c)

Each shall alter its heading to the right

d)

The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way

107.

Which aircraft along the following has first priority:

a)

Taxiing aircraft

b)

Arriving aircraft on final approach

c)

Arriving aircraft in the traffic pattern

d)

Departing aircraft

108.

……… shall be given priority over other aircraft listed below:

a)

Military aircraft

b)

Emergency aircraft

c)

Hospital aircraft

d)

VIP aircraft

109.

Which following departure sequence is correct?

a)

Commercial flight -Hospital flight - Training flight

b)

Hospital flight-Commercial flight - Training flight

c)

Training flight-VIP flight - Hospital flight

d)

Training flight - Hospital flight - VIP flight

110.

Which following arrival sequence is correct?

a)

Shortage of fuel flight - Hospital flight - Commercial flight

b)

Shortage of fuel flight - Commercial flight - Hospital flight

c)

Hospital flight-Shortage of fuel flight-Commercial flight

d)

Hospital flight - Commercial flight - Shortage of fuel flight

111.

Which following arrival sequence is correct?

a)

Hospital flight-VIP flight-Commercial flight-Training flight

b)

VIP flight-Commercial flight-Shortage of fael flight-Training flight

c)

Hospital flight-Commercial flight-VIP flight-Training flight

d)

Training flight-VIP flight-Hospital flight-Commercial flight

112.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFR flight shall not be flown at.

a)

A level above minimum flight level

b)

A level below FL 150

c)

A level below minimum flight level

d)

A level above FL 150

113.

Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend

a)

10 NM

b)

12 NM

c)

15 NM

d)

20 NM

114.

For traffic on reciprocal tracks where lateral separation is not provide, vertical separation shall be kept at least.. ...prior to and after the time the aircraft are estimated to pass, or are estimated to have passed:

a)

15 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

1 minutes

d)

5 minutes

115.

The speed reductions not exceeding plus/minus 40km/h (20kt) IAS should be used for:

a)

Aircraft on initial and intermediate approach segments

b)

Aircraft on intermediate approach segment

c)

Aircraft on final approach segment

d)

Aircraft on intermediate and final approach segments