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HS20 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of molecule is this?

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

2.

What type of molecule is this?

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

3.

What type of molecule is this?

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

4.

What type of molecule is this?

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

5.

Where is bone marrow found?

a)

Spongy Bone

b)

In blood vessels

c)

Inside the heart

d)

Compact bone

6.

What is the main function of the red blood cells?

a)

Fight infections

b)

Clot blood

c)

regulate body temperature

d)

transport oxygen

7.

Oxygenated blood is carried through the body in...

a)

arteries

b)

veins

8.

Deoxygenated blood is carried through the body in...

a)

arteries

b)

veins

9.

Leaky vessel that allow gases and fluids to exit and enter; red blood cells fit one at a time.

a)

Arterioles

b)

Capillaries

c)

Aorta

d)

veins

10.

The liquid part of the blood.

a)

Fibrin

b)

Plasma

c)

Platelet

d)

Erythrocyte

11.

Insoluble protein part of a blood clot.

a)

Fibrin

b)

Plasma

c)

Platelet

d)

Erythrocyte

12.

White blood cells that can produce antibodies and are able to surround and engulf foreign bodies.

a)

Fibrin

b)

Leukocyte

c)

Platelet

d)

Erythrocyte

13.

Red blood cells which contain hemoglobin and are responsible for oxygen transport.

a)

Fibrin

b)

Leukocyte

c)

Platelet

d)

Erythrocyte

14.

The dilation of the heart; chambers fill.

a)

Systole

b)

Atrioventricular node

c)

Sinoatrial node

d)

Diastole

15.

The contraction of the heart; chambers empty.

a)

Systole

b)

Atrioventricular node

c)

Sinoatrial node

d)

Diastole

16.

Which is the only time an artery is carrying deoxygenated blood?

a)

from the body to the heart

b)

from the heart to the body

c)

from the lungs to the heart

d)

from the heart to the lungs

17.

Which is the only time a vein is carrying oxygenated blood?

a)

from the body to the heart

b)

from the heart to the body

c)

from the lungs to the heart

d)

from the heart to the lungs

18.

Our skeletal muscles are tightly packed with these two types of filaments

a)

Actin and myosin

b)

Myosin and protein

c)

protein and enzymes

d)

actin and enzyme

19.

The part of the nervous system that is broken into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

central nervous system

c)

peripheral nervous system

d)

somatic nervous system

20.

This is made up of the brain and spinal cord.

a)

peripheral nervous system

b)

central nervous system

c)

somatic system

d)

autonomic system

21.

The parts of this system are organized into the somatic system and autonomic systems.

a)

central nervous system

b)

somatic system

c)

peripheral nervous system

d)

autonomic system

22.

Another name for a nerve cell

a)

cerebrum

b)

neuron

c)

cerebellum

d)

dendrite

23.

Made up of all of the sensory and motor neurons in the body outside of the central nervous system.

a)

lobe

b)

neuron

c)

cerebellum

d)

peripheral nervous system

24.

The part of the nervous system under INVOLUNTARY control

a)

Somatic

b)

autonomic

c)

motor

d)

sensory

25.

The heart accelerates as a result of the

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

26.

The pupil dilates as a result of the

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

27.

Intestines increase movement as a result of the

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

28.

Which nervous system is responsible for slowing the heart rate?

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

29.

Which type of neuron carries signals from the brain to muscles?

a)

Motor neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Sensory neurons

30.

Which type of neuron carries signals between neurons?

a)

Motor neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Sensory neurons

31.

Which type of neuron carries sensory information from the environment to the brain?

a)

Motor neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Sensory neurons

32.

Which statement about grey matter is TRUE?

a)

It contains bundles of axons

b)

It contains cell bodies and synapses

c)

It is found only in the spinal cord

d)

It conducts signals up and down the spinal cord

33.

Which statement about white matter is TRUE?

a)

Its job is to conduct, process, and send nerve signals up and down the spinal cord

b)

It contains cell bodies, dendrites, axon terminals, and synapses

c)

It is found only in the spinal cord

d)

It is found only in the peripheral nervous system

34.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the “fight-or-flight” response?

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Somatic

c)

Sympathetic

d)

Peripheral

35.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the “rest and digest” response?

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Somatic

c)

Sympathetic

d)

Peripheral

36.

Which system controls voluntary movements?

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

37.

What is the main function of the musculoskeletal system?

a)

Producing hormones

b)

Providing movement, stability, shape, and support

c)

Transporting oxygen

d)

Regulating body temperature

38.

Which of the following is TRUE about muscles?

a)

They actively lengthen when relaxed

b)

They contract to produce force

c)

They are made of bone tissue

d)

They are controlled only by the brain

39.

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the heart?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

40.

Which type of muscle tissue is responsible for voluntary movements?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

41.

Which type of muscle tissue is found lining the walls of involuntary organs?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

42.

What connects muscles to bones?

a)

Ligaments

b)

Tendons

c)

Cartilage

d)

Joints

43.

What connects bones to bones?

a)

Ligaments

b)

Tendons

c)

Cartilage

d)

Joints

44.

What type of tissue acts as a shock absorber in joints?

a)

Ligament

b)

Cartilage

c)

Tendon

d)

Spongy bone

45.

What is the role of stomach acid (HCl) beyond breaking food down?

a)

There is no additional role of stomach acid

b)

Mechanical digestion

c)

Killing off unwanted microorganisms

d)

Creating an environment where the gut microbiome can flourish

46.

Which muscle is essential for breathing?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Stermun

d)

Intercostal muscles

47.

What is the main function of the respiratory system?

a)

To produce energy

b)

To pull in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

c)

To circulate blood

d)

To regulate body temperature

48.

What is the main function of the circulatory system?

a)

To produce hormones

b)

To deliver nutrients and oxygen to cells

c)

To remove waste from the kidneys

d)

To provide movement, structure, and stability

49.

What is the main function of the digestive system?

a)

To deliver oxygen and nutrients to the body

b)

To produce hormones

c)

To break down food into nutrients for absorption

d)

To provide movement, stability, and structure to the body

50.

The place in the lungs where gas exchange occurs

a)

Bronchi

b)

Alveoli

c)

Atrium

d)

Trachea

51.

Where the electrical impulse for the heart to beat are started

a)

Sinus node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

c)

Systole node

d)

Diastole note

52.

What does bone marrow make?

a)

Platelets, blood stem cells, red blood cells, and white blood cells

b)

Platelets and Fibrin

c)

Compact bone

d)

White and red blood cells

53.

When it comes to talking about nutrition, the 3 main categories of carbohydrates are:

a)

Glucose, fructose, galactose

b)

Fibre, starches, sugars

c)

Polysaccharides, cellulose, chitin

d)

There are no categories of carbohydrates

54.

What type of carbohydrate is this?

a)

Polysaccharide

b)

Monosaccharide

c)

Disaccharide

d)

Not a carbohydrate

55.

All sugars names end with:

a)

-ise

b)

-ase

c)

-osis

d)

-ose

56.

The words for enzymes typically have this ending:

a)

-ise

b)

-ase

c)

-osis

d)

-ose

57.

What happens to glycogen if someone is eating a lot more calories in a day than they are burning?

a)

Liver turns it into fat

b)

Liver turns it into chitin

c)

Pancreas turns it into fat

d)

Pancreas turns it into cellulose

58.

Which polysaccharides are found in plants only?

a)

Glycogen and chitin

b)

Starch and cellulose

c)

Cellulose and chitin

d)

Starch and glycogen

59.

Important to the structural integrity of plant cells, this is the most plentiful polysaccharide in the world:

a)

Starch

b)

Glycogen

c)

Cellulose

d)

Chitin

60.

The monomer that all polysaccharides are made of:

a)

Galactose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Glucose

d)

Glucagon

61.

What is a polysaccharide?

a)

One glucose molecule

b)

A simple sugar

c)

Two simple sugars bonded together

d)

Many sugar units bonded together

62.

What elements make up carbohydrates?

a)

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

b)

Sulfur, carbon, hydrogen

c)

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

d)

Glucose

63.

What kind of carbohydrate is this?

a)

Polysaccharide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Monosaccharide

d)

Not a carbohydrate

64.

What is the job of the hormone glucagon?

a)

Convert glucose into glycogen

b)

Convert glycogen into glucose

c)

Convert lactose into glucose

d)

Convert glucose into galactose

65.

Which of the following are energy storage polysaccharides?

a)

Strach and glucose

b)

Cellulose and fibre

c)

Chitin and cellulose

d)

Starch and glycogen

66.

Which of the following are polysaccharides that are involved in structure?

a)

Strach and glucose

b)

Cellulose and fibre

c)

Chitin and cellulose

d)

Starch and glycogen

67.

You can get dietary fibre from:

a)

Animal products

b)

Plant-based foods

c)

Minerals like salt

d)

All of the above

68.

What is fibre?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Chitin

c)

Glycogen

d)

Starch

69.

If a molecule contains carbon, we can automatically assume it is organic

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Carbon has ___ valence electrons, so it makes ___ bonds

a)

1;1

b)

2;4

c)

4;2

d)

4;4

71.

Lactose is broken down by which enzyme

a)

lactase

b)

maltase

c)

sucrase

d)

amylase

72.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
73.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
74.

Which of the following is a function of lipids in the human body?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Long-term energy storage

c)

Oxygen transport

d)

Muscle contraction

75.

What type of molecule is hydrophobic and insoluble in water?

a)

Polar molecule

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Carbohydrate

76.

Saturated fats are typically _______ at room temperature.

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gaseous

d)

plasma

77.

Unsaturated fats differ from saturated fats because they contain what type of bonds?

a)

Single bonds

b)

Double bonds

c)

No bonds

d)

Triple bonds

78.

Phospholipids are important components of:

a)

Cell membranes

b)

Blood plasma

c)

Bone tissue

d)

Hair

79.

What structural feature distinguishes steroids from other lipids?

a)

Long chains

b)

Ring structure

c)

Double bonds

d)

Hydrophilic heads

80.

Proteins are made up of:

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Glucose

d)

Nucleotides

81.

Essential amino acids must be:

a)

Synthesized by the body

b)

Obtained from food

c)

Stored in fat

d)

Produced by enzymes

82.

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

a)

3D folding

b)

Sequence of amino acids

c)

Alpha helix and beta sheets

d)

A polypeptide

83.

Which level of protein structure involves interactions between multiple polypeptides?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

84.

What is a prion?

a)

A misfolded protein

b)

A type of lipid

c)

A carbohydrate

d)

A vitamin

85.

Which food is a good source of essential omega-3 fats?

a)

Ham

b)

Steak

c)

Salmon

d)

Chicken

86.

What is the function of enzymes?

a)

Store energy

b)

Catalyze reactions

c)

Transport oxygen

d)

Provide insulation

87.

Enzymes are specific to:

a)

Any molecule

b)

Their substrate

c)

Water

d)

Lipids

88.

What happens to an enzyme after a reaction?

a)

It is used up

b)

It is broken down to make a new enzyme

c)

It is unchanged and able to catalyze the same reaction over and over

d)

It becomes denatured

89.

What does metabolism include?

a)

Only digestion

b)

Only respiration

c)

All body reactions

d)

Only movement

90.

The following happens because lipids are...

a)

polar

b)

soluble in water

c)

non-polar

d)

polar bears

91.

The following is an example of a

a)

fat/oil

b)

steroid

c)

phospholipid

d)

wax

92.

The following is an example of a

a)

fat/oil

b)

steroid

c)

phospholipid

d)

wax

93.

The following is an example of a

a)

fat/oil

b)

steroid

c)

phospholipid

d)

wax

94.

The following is an example of a

a)

unsaturated fatty acid

b)

saturated fatty acid

c)

trans fat

d)

cis fat

95.

The following is an example of a

a)

unsaturated fatty acid

b)

saturated fatty acid

c)

monounsaturated

d)

fully hydrogenated fat

96.

The following is an example of a

a)

fully hydrogenated fat

b)

saturated fatty acid

c)

trans fat

d)

cis fat

97.

The following is an image of a

a)

polyunsaturated fat

b)

polysaturated fat

c)

monounsaturated fat

d)

monosaturated fat

98.

The following is an image of a

a)

polyunsaturated fat

b)

polysaturated fat

c)

monounsaturated fat

d)

monosaturated fat

99.

Another term often used for a trans fat is

a)

good fat

b)

translocated fat

c)

partially hydrogenated fat

d)

cis fat

100.

Cholesterol is the steroid found in

a)

hormones

b)

digestive juices

c)

cell membranes

d)

all of the above

101.

Oils and fats are composed of which atoms?

a)

Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon

c)

Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon

d)

Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen

102.

The category of lipids that plants and some animals use to repel water.

a)

steroids

b)

waxes

c)

fats/oils

d)

phospholipids

103.

The following is an example of a

a)

saturated fatty acid

b)

hydrogenated fat

c)

trans fat

d)

cis fat

104.

The phrase, "Folic acid is number nine, keeps your DNA working fine" refers to this vitamin.

a)

B

b)

E

c)

A

d)

D

105.

The phrase, "Won't let you get sick, you'll pump iron more quick" refers to this vitamin.

a)

B

b)

D

c)

C

d)

K

106.

The phrase, "Helps you clot, that way you won't bleed a lot" refers to this vitamin.

a)

B

b)

K

c)

A

d)

D

107.

The phrase, "Is from the sun and helps the mineral calcium" refers to this vitamin.

a)

B

b)

E

c)

A

d)

D

108.

The phrase, "Has a mission to give to give you strong bones and vision" refers to this vitamin.

a)

B

b)

K

c)

A

d)

D

109.

Which of the following best describes the function of enzymes?

a)

They transport oxygen

b)

They store genetic information

c)

They speed up chemical reactions

d)

They provide structural support

110.

The type of reaction that occurs when a molecule is broken down by an enzyme

a)

metabolic

b)

anabolic

c)

catabolic

111.

These reactions occur when smaller molecules are bound together to create a larger molecule

a)

metabolic

b)

anabolic

c)

catabolic

112.

Hair, nails, skin, and muscles are all examples of

a)

Physiological proteins

b)

Structural proteins

113.

Enzymes, pigments, hormones, and antibodies are all examples of

a)

Physiological proteins

b)

Structural proteins

114.

A micronutrient made by plants or animals (is organic)

a)

Vitamin

b)

Mineral

c)

Lipid

d)

Enzyme

115.

A micronutrient that comes from water and soils (is inorganic)

a)

Vitamin

b)

Mineral

c)

Lipid

d)

Enzyme

116.

What is the name of the ethical code that Hippocrates' students followed and is still used for medical professionals today?

a)

  • The Medical Code

b)

The Physician's Promise

c)

  • The Hippocratic Oath

d)

The Doctor's Covenant

117.

During the Middle Ages, how did the Roman Catholic Church view illnesses?

a)

  • As natural biological processes

b)

  • As punishments from God

c)

  • As caused by poor hygiene

d)

  • As hereditary conditions

118.

What profession performed surgeries during the Middle Ages?

a)

  • Physicians

b)

  • Priests

c)

  • Barber-surgeons

d)

  • Apothecaries

119.

What invention during the Renaissance helped scientists make huge advances in medical understanding?

a)

  • The printing press

b)

  • The microscope

c)

  • The stethoscope

d)

  • The thermometer

120.

What is peer review?

a)

  • When patients review their doctors

b)

  • When the public reads scientific findings

c)

  • When people in the same field evaluate a scientist's work

d)

  • When students grade each other's work

121.

In a double-blind study, who knows which participants are in the experimental or control group?

a)

  • Only the participants

b)

  • Only the researchers

c)

  • Both participants and researchers

d)

  • Neither participants nor researchers

122.

What is a placebo?

a)

  • An active medication

b)

  • A fake or inactive medical intervention

c)

  • A type of surgery

d)

A complementary therapy

123.

What is the difference between complementary and alternative medicine?

a)

  • The cost of treatment

b)

  • Whether traditional/modern medicine is also used

c)

  • The type of therapy used

d)

  • Who provides the treatment

124.

What should patients be careful about when exploring complementary therapies?

a)

  • Using them alongside traditional medicine

b)

  • People trying to sell them something or misinformation

c)

  • Telling their doctor about them

d)

  • The time commitment required

125.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Compound

b)

Greenstick

c)

Transverse

d)

Comminuted

126.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Greenstick

b)

Comminuted

c)

Transverse

d)

compound

127.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
128.
Away from the origin or trunk
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Proximal
d)
Posterior
129.

The eyes are _______ to the brain

a)
Inferior
b)

Posterior

c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
130.

Your feet are ________ to your knees.

a)

caudal

b)

cephalic

c)

inferior

d)

superior

131.

This plane divides the body into superior and inferior parts.

a)

coronal plane

b)

frontal plane

c)

transverse plane

d)

sagittal plane

132.

This plane divides the body into front and back.

a)

coronal plane

b)

lateral plane

c)

transverse plane

d)

sagittal plane

133.
Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right halves?
a)
frontal
b)
transverse
c)
horizontal
d)
sagittal
134.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
135.

The eyes are _________ to the ears

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

anterior

d)

posterior

136.

The heart is ____________ to the hips

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

c)

superior

d)

inferior

137.

A negative control is one where we

a)

Expect no reaction

b)

See what it looks like when the thing we are testing for is present

c)

Expect the reaction to have negative effects on the human body

d)

See what it looks like when we do the test incorrectly

138.

A positive control is one where we

a)

Expect no reaction

b)

See what it looks like when the thing we are testing for is present

c)

Expect the reaction to have positive effects on the human body

d)

See what it looks like when we do the test right

139.

The body cavity being indicated is

a)

abdominal cavity

b)

thoracic cavity

c)

dorsal cavity

140.

The body cavity being indicated is

a)

abdominal cavity

b)

thoracic cavity

c)

dorsal cavity

141.

The body cavity being indicated is

a)

abdominal cavity

b)

thoracic cavity

c)

dorsal cavity

142.

What are diagnostics?

a)

Tools healthcare providers use to identify diseases

b)

Blood pressure machines

c)

A triage system

d)

Methods to help a patient feel better

143.

What is a communicable disease?

a)

Diseases caused by genetics, physiology, environment, and/or behaviour

b)

An illness that cannot be passed from person to person

c)

Illnesses that are caused by infectious agents

d)

Immunizations

144.

What is a noncommunicable disease?

a)

Diseases caused by genetics, physiology, environment, and/or behaviour

b)

An illness that are passed from person to person or animal to human

c)

Illnesses that are caused by infectious agents

d)

HIV/AIDS

145.

Kyla is worried that a mole on her skin might be cancerous. Her doctor takes a biopsy of that mole and analyzes it in the lab. This is an example of ________ diagnostics.

a)

In vitro

b)

In vivo

146.

John fell off his bike and injured his leg. In urgent care, the healthcare workers take him for an X-Ray to determine if he has a fractured tibia or fibula. This is an example of ________ diagnostics.

a)

in vitro

b)

in vivo

147.

All provinces and territories in Canada must provide insurace coverage for:

a)

All medical procedures

b)

Both medically necessary and elective procedures/medications

c)

Medically necessary hospital, physician, and some surgical-dental services

d)

Vision and dental services

148.

Medical professionals will give treatments...

a)

only when necessary and backed by scientific evidence

b)

when it will make them lots of money

c)

when they are sponsored by a company to do so

d)

that are requested by the patient

149.

Urgent care and emergency rooms in Canada will...

a)

see patients on a first in, first out basis

b)

treat the patient that will be able to pay for their procedure first

c)

prioritize patients based on the urgency of their need for care

d)

only treat people with conditions if they are going to die immediately

150.

The Canadian Triage and Acuity Scale (CTAS)...

a)

ranges from 1-5, with 1 being the sickest patient and 5 being the least sick

b)

ranges from 1-5, with 5 being the sickest patient and 1 being the least sick

c)

ensures that only patients who have the financial means to pay for their treatment are treated

d)

ensures that patients understand the gravity of their medical condition and know what order they will be seen in

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