Font size
WorksheetsSAS 013 Midterm 1.0 Worksheet Extraction
Total questions: 110
Worksheet time: 55mins
Which scientist led the Human Genome Project and discovered the CFTR gene on chromosome 7 associated with cystic fibrosis?
Francis Collins
Robert Koch
John Enders
Maurice Hilleman
Which immunologist researching viral infections explained that long covid has revealed many chronic illnesses like CFS are real and need to be studied?
Akiko Iwasaki
Jenny McCarthy
Andrew Wakefield
Jim Carrey
Who developed the first successful measles vaccine?
John Enders
Maurice Hilleman
Andrew Wakefield
Tu Youyou
Who created the MMR vaccine using three attenuated viruses, drawing on his own daughter's infection?
Maurice Hilleman
John Enders
Edward Livingston Trudeau
Robert Koch
Who published a fraudulent study that linked the MMR vaccine to autism, contributing to a decline in vaccination?
Andrew Wakefield
Maurice Hilleman
John Enders
Rachel Carson
Which actress with an autistic son promoted a claimed link between vaccines and autism and advocated for safe vaccines?
Jenny McCarthy
Akiko Iwasaki
Emily Bissell
Jim Carrey
Which actor criticized California's mandatory vaccination law in 2015 and spoke out against vaccines along with Jenny McCarthy?
Jim Carrey
Francis Collins
Robert Koch
John Enders
Which scientist announced the discovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis as the bacterium causing TB on March 24, 1882, won the Nobel Prize in 1905, and later promoted an ineffective tuberculin cure?
Robert Koch
Edward Livingston Trudeau
Maurice Hilleman
Emily Bissell
Who started the first sanitarium in the United States in 1884 at Saranac Lake, New York, known as the "little red cottage"?
Edward Livingston Trudeau
Robert Koch
Francis Collins
Emily Bissell
Who started the Christmas Seal Campaign to raise money for a sanitarium that was going to close and spread awareness about healthy practices?
Emily Bissell
Rachel Carson
Akiko Iwasaki
Jenny McCarthy
Which professor studies how air pollution affects people's immunity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Stephan Schwander
Akiko Iwasaki
Robert Koch
John Enders
Who discovered artemisinin as a treatment for malaria and was the first Chinese Nobel laureate in physiology or medicine (2015)?
Tu Youyou
Rachel Carson
Maurice Hilleman
Robert Koch
Who published Silent Spring in 1962 exposing the harms of pesticides such as DDT and helped launch the environmental movement?
Rachel Carson
Emily Bissell
Francis Collins
Andrew Wakefield
What is the World Health Organization's diagnostic coding system that serves as a global standard for health data codes used for morbidity/mortality statistics, billing, and research resource allocation?
International Classification of Diseases (ICD)
ICD-11
ILCD (1893)
Global Burden of Disease Study
Which version of the ICD was endorsed by the 72nd World Health Assembly in 2019 and went into effect globally in 2022, allowing more detail and flexibility in coding?
ICD-10
ICD-11
ICD-Clinical Modification
ILCD (1893)
Which coding system is used in the United States to code diseases and medical conditions (morbidity data) as a clinical modification of the ICD?
ICD-Clinical Modification
ICD-11
ILCD (1893)
DALYs
Which 1893 list, the International List of Causes of Death, eventually became the ICD in 1948?
ILCD (1893)
ICD-Clinical Modification
Global Burden of Disease Study
DALYs
Which method of disease classification lists Muscular, Digestive, Nervous, Urinary, Reproductive, Cardiovascular, Endocrine, Lymphatic, Respiratory, and Skeletal systems?
Disease classification by body systems
Disease classification by etiology
Disease burden
Symptom-based classification
What classification approach categorizes diseases by their cause, including infectious, genetic, and environmental factors?
Disease classification by etiology
Disease classification by body systems
ICD-Clinical Modification
DALYs
Which condition is characterized by enlargement of the thyroid gland in the neck due to iodine deficiency?
Goiter
Scurvy
Tuberculosis
Malaria
Which disease results from a deficiency of vitamin C and presents with loss of teeth, sunken eyes, and pale skin, historically common among sailors and pirates?
Scurvy
Goiter
Measles
Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease
What term describes diseases that have multiple contributing factors (infectious, genetic, environmental), such as cancer, asthma, heart disease, and diabetes?
Multifactorial diseases
Communicable diseases
Monogenic genetic diseases
Subclinical diseases
Which term refers to the impact of a health problem on a population?
Disease burden
DALYs
Infection
Disability weight
What metric represents disability adjusted life years, where one unit reflects the loss of one year of full health and allows comparison of disease burden?
DALYs
YLD
YLL
Disability weight
Which formula correctly calculates DALYs?
DALYs = YLL + YLD
DALYs = YLL − YLD
DALYs = YLD ÷ YLL
DALYs = YLL × YLD
What is the range for disability weight, where 0 represents full health and 1 represents "a state equivalent to death"?
0 to 1
0 to 100
−1 to 1
1 to 10
Which research initiative is the largest effort to quantify health loss across places and over time, finding low-income countries more impacted by communicable diseases and higher-income countries more impacted by noncommunicable diseases (2021)?
Global Burden of Disease Study
International Classification of Diseases (ICD)
DALYs
Silent Spring
Which statement best defines disease as presented on the worksheet?
A particular abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of all or part of an organism
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
Invasion and multiplication of pathogenic microorganisms
A change noticed or reported by the patient (subjective)
What term describes a health change noticed or reported by the patient and considered subjective?
Symptom
Sign
Infection
Pathogenic
What term describes a health indication noticed or measured by others and considered objective?
Sign
Symptom
Infection
Burden
Which perspective emphasizes the undesirability of diseases and the harms and limitations they bring to patients and/or society, viewing diseases as value-laden social constructs?
Normativist
Naturalist
Pathogenic
Etiological
Which perspective requires only the presence of biological dysfunction, treating disease as an objective scientific matter where normal function contributes to survival and reproduction?
Naturalist
Normativist
Etiological
Communitarian
What is the etymology of the word disease according to the worksheet?
From Old French 'desaise' meaning lack of ease
Italian 'mala aria' meaning bad air
German 'masel' meaning blemish
Named after Lyme, Connecticut
What is the etymology of the word measles according to the worksheet?
German 'masel' meaning blemish or Old German 'masla' meaning blood-blister
Italian 'mala aria' meaning bad air
From Old French 'desaise' meaning lack of ease
Named after Coxsackie, New York
What is the etymology of the term malaria according to the worksheet?
Italian 'mala aria' meaning bad air associated with marshes and swamps
German 'masel' meaning blemish
Named after Lyme, Connecticut
Old French 'desaise' meaning lack of ease
Lyme disease was named after unusual bouts of arthritis in which location, later found to be caused by bacteria from ticks?
Lyme, Connecticut
Saranac Lake, New York
Coxsackie, New York
London, England
Which virus was named after the town in New York where researchers first isolated it while investigating a polio outbreak, and is associated with Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease?
Coxsackievirus
Measles virus
Influenza virus
SARS-CoV-2
Which is a documented problem with naming diseases after places, highlighted during the Covid pandemic and the mislabeling of the Spanish flu?
It can fuel discrimination and misattribution
It improves geographic tracking precision
It increases diagnostic accuracy
It ensures ethical clarity
Which issue is commonly associated with eponyms (diseases named after a person)?
They may be confusing, raise ethical concerns, and not tell the full discovery story
They always provide complete historical accuracy
They are required by WHO guidelines
They avoid ethical complications
What term refers to invasion by and multiplication of pathogenic microorganisms in a bodily part or tissue?
Infection
Symptom
Sign
Disease burden
What term describes organisms or agents that are capable of causing disease, including bacteria, fungi, viruses, protists, helminths, and prions?
Pathogenic
Benign
Commensal
Saprophytic
Which term describes a disease that is not clinically apparent and is diagnosed via PCR, culture, or antibody testing?
Subclinical disease
Preclinical disease
Clinical disease
Chronic disease
Which term describes a disease that is not yet clinically apparent but is destined to progress to clinical disease, corresponding to the incubation period?
Preclinical disease
Subclinical disease
Clinical disease
Latent non-progressive disease
Choose the statement that best defines Incubation Period.
Time from initial exposure to a pathogen until the first signs or symptoms of illness appear
Localized infection that seeds infections at distant sites
Initial infection within a given patient
Disease not transmitted from one host to another
Choose the statement that best defines Local Infection.
Spreads throughout the body via blood or lymphatic system
Confined to a limited region of the body (one body part or organ)
Initial infection within a given patient
Follows a primary infection, often by opportunistic pathogens
Choose the statement that best defines Systemic Infection.
Localized infection that seeds infections at distant sites
Spreads throughout the body via blood or lymphatic system
Disease transmitted from one host to another
Average number of new cases generated by each initial case
Choose the statement that best defines Focal Infection.
Initial infection within a given patient
Localized infection that seeds infections at distant sites
Symptoms develop rapidly and resolve relatively quickly
Symptoms develop slowly and last a long time
Choose the statement that best defines Primary Infection.
Initial infection within a given patient
Infections that follow a primary infection, often by opportunistic pathogens
Disease not transmitted from one host to another
Direct, immediate transfer of infectious agents from one host to another
Choose the statement that best defines Secondary Infection.
Symptoms develop rapidly and resolve relatively quickly
Infections that follow a primary infection, often by opportunistic pathogens
Confined to a limited region of the body
Average number of new cases generated by each initial case
Which description best characterizes Opportunistic pathogens?
Not normally capable of causing significant disease in a healthy host and commonly take advantage of a weakened immune system
Spreads via eating or drinking contaminated food or water
Any substance or object that adheres to and transmits infectious material
Intermediary is the air
Choose the statement that best defines Acute Infectious Diseases.
Symptoms develop rapidly and resolve relatively quickly
Symptoms develop slowly and last a long time
Reappears a long time after infection following a period with no symptoms
Disease not transmitted from one host to another
Choose the statement that best defines Chronic Infectious Diseases.
Symptoms develop rapidly and resolve relatively quickly
Symptoms develop slowly and last a long time
Localized infection that seeds infections at distant sites
Average number of new cases generated by each initial case
Choose the statement that best defines Latent Infectious Diseases.
Reappears a long time after infection following a period with no symptoms
Confined to a limited region of the body
Disease transmitted from one host to another
Direct, immediate transfer of infectious agents
Choose the statement that best defines Non-communicable infectious diseases.
Disease transmitted from one host to another
Disease not transmitted from one host to another (pathogen from environmental source)
Intermediary is the air
Any object that adheres to and transmits infectious material
Choose the statement that best defines Communicable infectious diseases.
Disease transmitted from one host to another
Disease not transmitted from one host to another
Localized infection that seeds infections at distant sites
Initial infection within a given patient
Choose the statement that best defines Direct transmission.
Intermediary is the air
Direct, immediate transfer of infectious agents from one host to a portal of entry of another host
An intermediary is involved in transfer from one host to another
Spread via eating or drinking contaminated food or water
Which mode matches Airborne transmission?
Intermediary is the air
Any substance or object that adheres to and transmits infectious material
Direct, immediate transfer between hosts
Spread via eating or drinking contaminated food or water
Which description best defines Fomites?
Intermediary is the air
Any substance or object that adheres to and transmits infectious material
Spread via eating or drinking contaminated food or water
Reappears long after infection with no symptoms between
Choose the statement that best defines Indirect Transmission.
An intermediary is involved in the transfer of infectious agents from one host to another
Direct, immediate transfer of infectious agents
Intermediary is the air
Disease not transmitted from one host to another
According to the worksheet, which statements about Aerosols are correct? Select all that apply.
They can stay in the air for a long time and travel long distances; someone across the room can be infected
They can travel only less than one meter and fall in less than 5 seconds
They can float in air for hours and be inhaled
They are typically over 100 micrometers and cannot be inhaled
According to the worksheet, which statements about Droplets are correct? Select all that apply.
Can travel less than one meter and fall to the ground in less than 5 seconds
Can stay suspended for hours and be inhaled
Are typically <5 micrometers
Are over 100 micrometers and cannot be inhaled
Choose the statement that best defines Fecal-Oral Transmission.
Spread of disease via eating, drinking, or licking food, water, or objects contaminated by feces
Direct, immediate transfer between hosts
Intermediary is the air
Any object that adheres to and transmits infectious material
Choose the statement that best describes the S-I-R Compartment Model of Disease Spread.
Every person in a population is split into a compartment: susceptible, infected, or recovered/removed (immune, no spreading)
Spread of disease via eating or drinking contaminated items
Average number of new infections generated by each case
Symptoms develop rapidly then resolve
Choose the statement that best defines R0 (Basic Reproduction Number).
Average number of new cases generated by each initial case in a completely susceptible population
Time from exposure to first symptoms
Disease not transmitted from one host to another
Localized infection that seeds distant sites
Which statements about the meaning of R0 for disease spread are correct? Select all that apply.
If R0 > 1, an epidemic will occur
If R0 < 1, the infection will not spread
The larger R0 is, the harder it is to stop an epidemic
Knowing R0 does not help public health decision making
Which factors influence the R0 value according to the worksheet? Select all that apply.
Duration of infectious period
Probability of infecting a susceptible individual during one contact
Number of susceptible individuals contacted per unit of time
Incubation period never affects R0
Choose the statement that best defines Herd Immunity.
Resistance to the spread of a contagious disease within a population when a sufficiently high proportion of individuals are immune, especially through vaccination
Direct, immediate transfer of infectious agents
Disease transmitted from one host to another
Reappearance long after infection following a symptom-free period
Based on the listed values, which disease has the highest R0 among the vaccine-preventable childhood diseases shown?
Measles
Rubella
Polio
Diphtheria
Which groups are listed as most at risk of measles complications? Select all that apply.
Children younger than 5 years of age
Adults older than 20 years of age
Pregnant people
People with compromised immune systems
According to the worksheet, which statements about subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) are correct? Select all that apply.
It is a very rare degenerative disease of the central nervous system
It results from a previous measles infection
It develops approximately 7 to 10 years after a person has recovered from measles
It is always fatal and has no cure
Which statements about the original Measles Vaccine are correct? Select all that apply.
Originally developed by John Enders
Became available in 1963
Was not originally a combo vaccine
Was developed by Maurice Hilleman
Which statements about the MMR Vaccine are correct? Select all that apply.
Developed by Maurice Hilleman
Available in 1971
Further attenuated the original measles vaccine and added strains of mumps and rubella
Originally developed by John Enders
According to the worksheet, when were measles declared eliminated in the U.S.?
2000
1990
2010
2015
Which statements about the Disneyland Measles Outbreak are correct? Select all that apply.
Occurred December 2014 to April 2015
125 cases in 7 states
110 cases were in California
Most cases involved unvaccinated individuals
According to the worksheet, what approximate herd immunity level is cited for measles?
95%
60%
75%
85%
Which statements are included under CA SB277? Select all that apply.
June 2015 California Senate Bill
Eliminates religious and personal belief exemptions (nonmedical) to vaccine requirements for children entering school
Expands exemptions for personal belief
Unrelated to school vaccine requirements
Which statement reflects the worksheet’s description of the MMR/autism controversy?
MMR vaccine rates dropped because some people believe there is a link between the MMR vaccine and autism, with a 1998 report claiming the triple MMR leads to autism
The controversy centers on whether measles causes rubella
It claims vaccines never have side effects
It reports that autism rates fell after MMR introduction
According to the worksheet, which statements about current measles vaccination rates and outbreaks in the U.S. are correct? Select all that apply.
Current vaccination rate is only 92.5%, not enough for herd immunity
More cases of measles in 2025 than any other year since it was declared eliminated in 2000
Current vaccination rate exceeds the herd immunity threshold
There have been no outbreaks since 2000
According to the notes on the impact of COVID-19 on measles worldwide, which statement best explains a key reason measles deaths rose in 2021–2022 and why measles remains a leading cause of death among young children globally?
Routine vaccination was disrupted because many avoided doctor visits during the pandemic.
Measles mutated into a novel strain with higher lethality in adults.
Mycobacterium is described as a large family of bacteria found in soil and water that includes pathogens causing serious diseases in mammals. Which pair of human diseases listed in the notes is caused by Mycobacterium?
Tuberculosis and leprosy
Influenza and measles
Extrapulmonary tuberculosis is TB affecting organs outside the lungs. Based on the examples provided, which sites can be involved?
Spine (Pott’s disease)
Lymph nodes (scrofula)
Kidneys only
Lymphohematogenous spread refers to which process in tuberculosis?
Spread of TB through lymphatic and blood systems
Local spread from one alveolus to the next without blood involvement.
According to the description of alveoli, what occurs in these air sacs of the lungs and how do macrophages interact with Mycobacterium tuberculosis there?
Gas exchange occurs, and macrophages ingest M. TB and attempt to destroy it.
Digestion occurs, and macrophages secrete surfactant.
During the period of the industrial revolution and urbanization (~1750–1900), tuberculosis was rampant and caused approximately what proportion of all deaths?
About 10%
About 25%
About 50%
About 75%
In 19th century New England, what was tuberculosis thought to be caused by, according to the contemporary debate over the etiology of TB?
Vampires
Miasma from swamps
A bacterial infection
Witchcraft
World TB Day marks the day Robert Koch announced the discovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis as the bacterium causing TB. On which date is World TB Day observed?
January 12
March 24
June 7
September 30
The first U.S. sanatorium for the treatment of tuberculosis was opened by Edward Livingston Trudeau in 1884. Where was it located?
Saranac Lake, New York
Boston, Massachusetts
Baltimore, Maryland
Denver, Colorado
In the United States, tuberculosis mortality fell from 194 deaths per 100,000 in 1900 to 46 per 100,000 in 1940. What development accounted for much of this reduction prior to antibiotics?
Mass vaccination campaigns
Increased public health education about TB
Introduction of sulfa drugs
Herd immunity from prior infections
The organization that became the American Lung Association in 1973 had been known by which name immediately prior to the rename?
National Association for the Study and Prevention of Tuberculosis
National Tuberculosis Association
National Respiratory Health Council
United States Tuberculosis League
Christmas Seals were labels placed on mail during the Christmas season to raise funds and awareness. Who started Christmas Seals to raise money for a sanatorium?
Emily Bissell
Florence Nightingale
Jane Addams
Clara Barton
A public campaign targeted a common behavior because women’s dresses would drag through material on the ground. What behavior was this campaign against?
Public spitting
Public smoking
Public drinking
Public littering
Which statement best defines a vector-borne disease?
A disease acquired directly from contaminated water
An infectious disease acquired from organisms that transmit a pathogen from one host to another
A genetic disease passed from parents to children
A disease caused by nutritional deficiency
Regarding the Anopheles mosquito and malaria transmission, which mosquitoes are the vectors?
Only males
Only females
Both males and females equally
Neither; ticks transmit malaria
During the mosquito stage of the Plasmodium life cycle, parasites reproduce sexually as gametocytes and form sporozoites. To which location do the sporozoites migrate within the mosquito?
Midgut wall
Salivary glands
Malpighian tubules
Compound eyes
The periodic “malaria attack” occurs in waves. What underlying process produces this periodicity?
Seasonal changes in mosquito activity
Host circadian rhythms altering fever patterns
The reproductive cycle of the parasites and the bursting of red blood cells
Fluctuations in drug levels after treatment
What is the definition of hemolysis?
The formation of new red blood cells
The rupture or destruction of red blood cells
The coagulation of blood plasma
The oxidation of hemoglobin
When merozoites infect red blood cells (RBCs), they express certain proteins that make the RBCs very sticky. Which consequence is described for these “sticky” infected RBCs?
They are rapidly filtered out by the spleen
They stick to the lining of blood vessels and can clog blood vessels
They become less adhesive and circulate freely
They immediately lyse in the bloodstream
Which severe malaria complication involves abnormal behavior, impairment of consciousness, and seizures and can lead to long-term effects such as ataxia and speech difficulties?
Cerebral malaria
Acute kidney injury
Hemoglobinuria
ARDS
Which diagnostic approach is described as the light-microscopy “gold standard” for detecting and quantifying Plasmodium parasites?
Urine dipstick
Thick and thin blood smear microscopy
Chest X-ray
PCR on saliva
Giemsa stain is described as the gold standard for diagnosing malaria. What does this stain enable in blood films?
Detection of viral antigens by immunofluorescence
Identification of Plasmodium parasites by staining cytoplasm blue and chromatin red
Measurement of hemoglobin concentration
Differentiation of bacterial colonies by Gram reaction
Which test is a rapid antigen test that detects parasite antigens (proteins) in blood using a fingerstick sample?
Complete blood count
Rapid Diagnostic Test for malaria
ELISA for antibodies
Liver function panel
The Office of Malaria Control in War Areas, predecessor to the CDC, was established to limit the impact of malaria at WWII military training bases. In which year was it established?
1935
1942
1950
1961
Which vector control method listed was a form of arsenic used historically?
Larvicides
Paris Green
Diesel oil on water
Insecticide-treated bed nets
DDT is very persistent in the environment, affects wildlife, and is probably carcinogenic to humans (Group 2A). In the United States, in which year was DDT banned?
1965
1972
1980
1993
The modern environmental movement was catalyzed by which book, according to the notes?
The Jungle
Silent Spring
Our Common Future
A Sand County Almanac
Indoor residual spraying for malaria control is applied to interior walls and ceilings of houses in endemic regions. What level of reduction is noted?
About 90% reduction
About 50% reduction
Only about 10% reduction
Complete elimination
Which treaty, enforced in 2004, negotiated global bans or restrictions on persistent organic pollutants and included a limited exemption for the use of DDT to control malaria vectors?
Montreal Protocol
Stockholm Convention on POPs
Basel Convention
Rotterdam Convention
Most malaria vector feeding occurs at night (dusk to dawn). Widespread uptake of insecticide-treated nets (including LLINs) between 2000 and 2015 in Africa is credited with leading to approximately what reduction in malaria cases?
20%
40%
70%
90%
Artemisinin, used in WHO-recommended combinations to prevent resistance, is derived from which source mentioned in the notes?
Quinine tree bark
Sweet wormwood (Artemisia annua)
Synthetic benzene derivative
Seaweed extracts
Which malaria vaccine was endorsed by WHO in October 2023 as approximately 75% effective?
RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix)
R21/Matrix-M
BCG
MMR
